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LE4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The Rhinion is located at:
    A. The junction of the nasal bones and frontal bone
    B. The midline of the inferior border of the nasal bones where it meets the upper lateral cartilage
    C. The suture line between the nasal bones and ethmoid bone
    D. The upper part of the nasal septum
A

B. The midline of the inferior border of the nasal bones where it meets the upper lateral cartilage

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2
Q
  1. What does the mesodermal frontonasal process give rise to?
    A. Inferior nasal conchae and nasal bones
    B. Nasal septum and primitive palate (premaxilla)
    C. Maxillary sinus and uncinate process
    D. Superior nasal meatus and cribriform plate
A

B. Nasal septum and primitive palate (premaxilla)

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3
Q
  1. The nasal septum serves which function?
    A. Divides the nose into right and left nasal cavities
    B. Supports the lateral nasal walls
    C. Provides drainage pathways for paranasal sinuses
    D. Protects the nasolacrimal duct
A

A. Divides the nose into right and left nasal cavities

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4
Q
  1. The _____ includes maxillary ostium/infundibulum, ethmoid infundibulum, frontoethmoidal complex, uncinate process, hiatus semilunaris, ethmoidal bulla, and middle meatus.
    A. Middle meatus complex
    B. Ostiomeatal unit
    C. Nasolacrimal pathway
    D. Frontoethmoidal drainage unit
A

B. Ostiomeatal unit

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5
Q
  1. The inferior meatus contains the opening of the:
    A. Maxillary sinus
    B. Nasolacrimal duct
    C. Sphenoid sinus
    D. Ethmoidal air cells
A

B. Nasolacrimal duct

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the paranasal sinus?
    A. Medial to the ethmoids and separates them from the orbit
    B. Air-filled spaces lined by respiratory epithelium on either side of the head
    C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses
    D. Posterosuperior to the sphenoid
A

B. Air-filled spaces lined by respiratory epithelium on either side of the head

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7
Q
  1. The lamina papyracea is located:
    A. Medial to the ethmoids and separates them from the orbit
    B. Air-filled spaces lined by respiratory epithelium on either side of the head
    C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses
    D. Posterosuperior to the sphenoid
A

A. Medial to the ethmoids and separates them from the orbit

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8
Q

The largest of the paranasal sinuses is the:
A. Frontal sinus
B. Sphenoid sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Parietal sinus
E. Maxillary sinus

A

E. Maxillary sinus

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9
Q
  1. The pituitary gland is located:
    A. Medial to the ethmoids and separates them from the orbit
    B. Air-filled spaces lined by respiratory epithelium on either side of the head
    C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses
    D. Posterosuperior to the sphenoid
A

D. Posterosuperior to the sphenoid

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10
Q
  1. The frontal sinus is located:
    A. Medial to the ethmoids and separates them from the orbit
    B. Air-filled spaces lined by respiratory epithelium on either side of the head
    C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses
    D. Posterosuperior to the sphenoid
A

C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses

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11
Q
  1. The cribriform plate is the structure:
    A. Physically cleanses inspired air
    B. Through which olfactory neurons pass into the nasal cavity
    C. Absence of sense of smell
    D. Unilateral foul-smelling rhinorrhea
A

B. Through which olfactory neurons pass into the nasal cavity

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12
Q
  1. Anosmia is defined as:
    A. Physically cleanses inspired air
    B. Through which olfactory neurons pass into the nasal cavity
    C. Absence of sense of smell
    D. Unilateral foul-smelling rhinorrhea
A

C. Absence of sense of smell

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13
Q
  1. The mucociliary apparatus serves which function?
    A. Physically cleanses inspired air
    B. Through which olfactory neurons pass into the nasal cavity
    C. Absence of sense of smell
    D. Unilateral foul-smelling rhinorrhea
A

A. Physically cleanses inspired air

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14
Q
  1. Rhinovirus is known as the pathogen that:
    A. Physically cleanses inspired air
    B. Through which olfactory neurons pass into the nasal cavity
    C. Absence of sense of smell
    D. Unilateral foul-smelling rhinorrhea
    E. Causes 50% of common colds
A

E. Causes 50% of common colds

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15
Q
  1. A nasal foreign body commonly presents with:
    A. Physically cleanses inspired air
    B. Through which olfactory neurons pass into the nasal cavity
    C. Absence of sense of smell
    D. Unilateral foul-smelling rhinorrhea
A

D. Unilateral foul-smelling rhinorrhea

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16
Q
  1. At birth, which two sinuses are large enough to acquire sinusitis?
    A. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses
    B. Sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses
    C. Sphenoid and maxillary sinuses
    D. Frontal and maxillary sinuses
    E. Frontal and ethmoid sinuses
A

A. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses

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17
Q
  1. The bony framework or vault of the nose is formed by:
    A. Paired nasal bones
    B. Frontal process of maxilla
    C. Nasal process of frontal bone
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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18
Q
  1. The cartilaginous vault of the nose consists of:
    A. Upper lateral cartilage
    B. Lower cartilage
    C. Nasal septum
    D. All of the above
    E. A and B
A

D. All of the above

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19
Q
  1. The roof of the nasal cavity is formed by:
    A. Cribriform plate
    B. Undersurface of the sphenoid bone
    C. Nasal area of the frontal bone
    D. Nasal bones
    E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

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20
Q
  1. Scroll-like structures in the lateral wall of the nose that form boundaries for nasal meatal passages and are invested by respiratory epithelium are called:
    A. Nasal septum
    B. Posterior nares
    C. Turbinates
    D. Paranasal sinuses
    E. Columellae
A

C. Turbinates

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21
Q
  1. The pathogenesis of ___ is believed to involve neurovascular autonomic disturbances in regulating the tonus of nasal mucosal vessels. Symptoms include nasal obstruction, watery rhinorrhea, and sneezing.
    A. Allergic rhinitis
    B. Vasomotor rhinitis
    C. Nasal polyps
    D. Rhinitis medicamentosa
    E. Atrophic rhinitis
A

B. Vasomotor rhinitis

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22
Q
  1. The respiratory function of the nose includes:
    A. Humidification
    B. Temperature control
    C. Cleansing and filtration
    D. Antibacterial/antiviral activity
    E. AOTA
A

E. AOTA (All of the Above)

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23
Q
  1. Functions of the paranasal sinuses include:
    A. Lightening of the skull weight
    B. Providing bumper-like protection to the face in trauma
    C. Voice resonation
    D. Contributing to olfaction
    E. AOTA
A

E. AOTA (All of the Above)

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24
Q
  1. The epithelial lining of the nose is composed of:
    A. Predominantly pseudostratified columnar
    B. Stratified squamous in vestibule and nares
    C. Nonciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing serous glands and bipolar cells in the roof
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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25
Q
  1. Damage to the olfactory epithelium may cause abnormal perception of smell/hyposmia due to:
    A. Drugs
    B. Viral infections
    C. Radiotherapy
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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26
Q
  1. Herniations of intracranial contents through bony defects are called:
    A. Cephalocele
    B. Frontobasal dysraphia
    C. Dorsal nasal fistula
    D. Nasal dermoid
    E. Septal subluxation
A

A. Cephalocele

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27
Q
  1. All of the following are etiologic agents of acute sinusitis EXCEPT:
    A. Rhinovirus
    B. Influenza virus
    C. Rotavirus
    D. Coronavirus
A

C. Rotavirus

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding nasal polyposis?
    A. Chronic inflammation
    B. Examination shows mast cells, eosinophils, and increased histamine
    C. Hypersensitivity to acetylsalicylic acid
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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29
Q
  1. The most common site of complications of sinusitis, particularly due to proximity of the ethmoid sinus and thin, dehiscent lamina papyracea, is:
    A. Brain
    B. Orbital region
    C. Nasal cavity
    D. Frontal sinus
A

B. Orbital region

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30
Q
  1. Complications of allergic rhinitis include:
    A. Obstructive sleep apnea
    B. Rhinosinusitis and nasal polyps
    C. Otitis media
    D. AOTA
    E. A & B
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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31
Q
  1. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include:
    A. Watery nasal discharge
    B. Mucopurulent nasal discharge
    C. Nasal stuffiness
    D. Headache
    E. A, C, D only
A

E. A, C, D only

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32
Q
  1. Symptoms of allergic rhinosinusitis include:
    A. Watery nasal discharge
    B. Mucopurulent nasal discharge
    C. Nasal stuffiness
    D. Headache
    E. A, C, D only
A

E. A, C, D only

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33
Q
  1. Pre-exposed antibody IgE binds to the surface of:
    A. Mast cells
    B. Basophils
    C. Eosinophils
    D. None of the above
    E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

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34
Q
  1. Overuse of alpha-adrenergic agonists as decongestants often causes a rebound effect. This condition is called:
    A. Rhinitis medicamentosa
    B. Vasomotor rhinitis
    C. Atrophic rhinitis
    D. Allergic rhinitis
A

A. Rhinitis medicamentosa

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35
Q
  1. The recommended drug treatment for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis is:
    A. Antihistamine (H1 blocker)
    B. Topical corticosteroids
    C. Antihistamine (H1 blocker) + topical corticosteroids
    D. Oral decongestants
A

C. Antihistamine (H1 blocker) + topical corticosteroids

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following causes vasoconstriction and mitigates nasal fullness?
    A. Antihistamine
    B. α-agonist decongestant
    C. Topical anticholinergic
    D. Cromones
A

B. α-agonist decongestant

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following stabilizes mast cells?
    A. Cromones
    B. Antihistamines
    C. β2 agonist
    D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
A

A. Cromones

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38
Q
  1. Which has a local anti-inflammatory effect?
    A. Cromones
    B. Antihistamines
    C. Topical steroids
    D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
A

C. Topical steroids

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39
Q
  1. Which decreases symptoms of sneezing, itching, and rhinorrhea in allergic rhinitis?
    A. Cromones
    B. Antihistamines
    C. β2 agonist
    D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
A

B. Antihistamines

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40
Q
  1. The most frequent cause of acute rhinosinusitis is:
    A. Common cold
    B. Allergic rhinitis
    C. Septal deviation
    D. Vasomotor rhinitis
A

A. Common cold

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41
Q
  1. Chronic nonallergic, noninfectious idiopathic rhinitis is treated by:
    A. Ipratropium bromide
    B. Topical steroids
    C. Antihistamine decongestant
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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42
Q
  1. Symptoms of watery nasal discharge, anosmia, and headache with meningitis as a complication suggest:
    A. Allergic rhinitis
    B. Vasomotor rhinitis
    C. Cerebral rhinorrhea
    D. Sinusitis
A

C. Cerebral rhinorrhea

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43
Q
  1. The principle of Flexible Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS) is to:
    A. Remove nasal polyps
    B. Enlarge tight passages in the middle meatus and sinus ostium to restore ventilation and mucociliary flow
    C. Drain fluid from the frontal sinus
    D. Repair septal deviation
A

B. Enlarge tight passages in the middle meatus and sinus ostium to restore ventilation and mucociliary flow

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44
Q
  1. The most common cause of posterior epistaxis is:
    A. Trauma
    B. Hypertension
    C. Nasal tumors
    D. Allergic rhinitis
A

B. Hypertension

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45
Q
  1. Maxillary sinusitis commonly originates from infection of which set of anterior teeth?
    A. Incisors
    B. Canines
    C. 1st and 2nd molars
    D. Premolars
A

C. 1st and 2nd molars

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46
Q
  1. Presence of rhinitis and eosinophilia on smear but no allergic symptoms is referred to as:
    A. Allergic rhinitis
    B. Eosinophilic non-allergic rhinitis
    C. Vasomotor rhinitis
    D. Atrophic rhinitis
A

B. Eosinophilic non-allergic rhinitis

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47
Q
  1. Crusty mucosa, watery nasal discharge, and foul smell are characteristic of:
    A. Atrophic rhinitis
    B. Vasomotor rhinitis
    C. Hormonal rhinitis
    D. Rhinitis medicamentosa
A

A. Atrophic rhinitis

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48
Q
  1. Rhinitis associated with hyperthyroidism is termed:
    A. Vasomotor rhinitis
    B. Metabolic rhinitis
    C. Hormonal rhinitis
    D. Eosinophilic non-allergic rhinitis
A

B. Metabolic rhinitis

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49
Q
  1. Rebound nasal congestion upon withdrawal of topical decongestants is called:
    A. Rhinitis medicamentosa
    B. Vasomotor rhinitis
    C. Atrophic rhinitis
    D. Hormonal rhinitis
A

A. Rhinitis medicamentosa

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50
Q
  1. A frequent side effect of pregnancy that causes nasal congestion is called:
    A. Eosinophilic rhinitis
    B. Hormonal rhinitis
    C. Vasomotor rhinitis
    D. Metabolic rhinitis
A

B. Hormonal rhinitis

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51
Q
  1. Choanal atresia commonly affects both nasal cavities.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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52
Q
  1. Pre-exposed antibody IgE binds specifically to which cells?
    A. Basophils
    B. Mast cells
    C. Eosinophils
    D. AOTA (All of the Above)
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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53
Q
  1. A feature of the immune system that describes an amplified response to a previously encountered antigen is:
    A. Tolerance
    B. Memory
    C. Hypersensitivity
    D. Specificity
A

B. Memory

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54
Q
  1. A molecule that is specifically recognized by T and B cells is called:
    A. Antibody
    B. Antigen
    C. Histamine
    D. Cytokine
A

B. Antigen

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55
Q
  1. MALT (Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue) includes all the following EXCEPT:
    A. Tonsils
    B. Peyer’s patches
    C. Adrenals
    D. Appendix
A

C. Adrenals

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56
Q
  1. Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies?
    A. T cells
    B. B cells
    C. Null cells
    D. Macrophages
A

B. B cells

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57
Q
  1. Amplifiers and modifiers of the immune system include:
    A. Interferon
    B. Interleukins
    C. Antigen-presenting cells
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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58
Q
  1. Null cells are characterized by:
    A. Producing both B and T cells
    B. Producing neither B nor T cells
    C. Regulating lymphocyte proliferation
    D. Recognizing antigens
A

B. Producing neither B nor T cells

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59
Q
  1. The function of suppressor T cells is to:
    A. Activate immune responses
    B. Regulate proliferation of lymphocytes
    C. Destroy antigens directly
    D. Present antigens to B cells
A

B. Regulate proliferation of lymphocytes

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60
Q
  1. Apoptosis refers to:
    A. Cellular repair process
    B. Programmed cell death
    C. Rapid cell proliferation
    D. Phagocytosis of dead cells
A

B. Programmed cell death

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61
Q
  1. Hydroma is associated with:
    A. Producing monoclonal antibodies
    B. Regulating cell apoptosis
    C. Containing T lymphocytes
    D. Antigen presentation
A

A. Producing monoclonal antibodies

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62
Q
  1. The term ‘Cluster of Differentiation’ (CD) refers to:
    A. Immune system regulation
    B. Nomenclature system for monoclonal antibodies that recognize specific cell surface antigens
    C. Pathway of antibody production
    D. Identification of lymphocyte subclasses
A

B. Nomenclature system for monoclonal antibodies that recognize specific cell surface antigens

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63
Q
  1. Antigen-presenting cells include all the following EXCEPT:
    A. Macrophages
    B. Dendritic cells
    C. B lymphocytes
    D. Mast cells
A

D. Mast cells

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64
Q
  1. Which T lymphocytes are involved in tissue rejection?
    A. Helper T cells
    B. Suppressor T cells
    C. Cytotoxic T cells
    D. Memory T cells
A

C. Cytotoxic T cells

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65
Q
  1. IgG is described as:
    A. The antibody involved in allergic reactions
    B. The most abundant and major antibody in circulation
    C. Abundant in secretions
    D. Contained in mast cells
A

B. The most abundant and major antibody in circulation

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66
Q
  1. IgE is associated with:
    A. Secretions in mucosal surfaces
    B. Containment in mast cells, basophils, and allergic reactions
    C. Phagocytosis of antigens
    D. Neutralizing toxins
A

B. Containment in mast cells, basophils, and allergic reactions

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67
Q
  1. Phagocytosis is the process by which:
    A. Cells engulf and digest foreign particles
    B. B cells produce antibodies
    C. Cytokines are released to regulate immunity
    D. T cells destroy infected cells
A

A. Cells engulf and digest foreign particles

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68
Q
  1. IgA is most abundant in:
    A. Circulating blood
    B. Secretions such as saliva, tears, and mucus
    C. Mast cells and basophils
    D. Lymph nodes
A

B. Secretions such as saliva, tears, and mucus

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69
Q
  1. Apoptosis can be defined as:
    A. Programmed cell death
    B. Antibody production
    C. Cell proliferation
    D. Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
A

A. Programmed cell death

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70
Q
  1. Acute otitis media and bacterial sinusitis share the same most frequent pathogens. Which are they?
    A. H. influenzae
    B. Strep. pneumoniae
    C. E. coli
    D. AOTA
A

B. Strep. pneumoniae

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71
Q
  1. The main causes of antibiotic resistance include:
    A. Indiscriminate use of antibiotics, especially for viral infections
    B. Use of antibiotics in animal feeds
    C. Incomplete treatment/inability to treat bacterial infections
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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72
Q
  1. Factors to consider when giving antibiotics to patients undergoing head and neck surgery include:
    A. Efficacy against microorganisms likely to cause infectious complications in particular anatomic sites
    B. Safety profile
    C. Cost
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following are effective in treating candidiasis?
    A. Gentamycin
    B. Nystatin
    C. Itraconazole
    D. All of the above
    E. B & C
A

D. All of the above

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74
Q
  1. Which drugs are used to treat chickenpox, herpes zoster, and severe recurrent herpes simplex?
    A. Acyclovir
    B. Valacyclovir
    C. Amantadine
    D. All of the above
    E. A & B
A

D. All of the above

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75
Q
  1. Nystatin is effective for the treatment of:
    A. Oral candidiasis
    B. Vaginal candidiasis
    C. Topical fungal infections
    D. AOTA (All of the above)
A

D. AOTA (All of the above)

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76
Q
  1. Tonsillitis is commonly caused by:
    A. Mixed anaerobic and aerobic bacteria
    B. S. pneumoniae
    C. H. influenzae
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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77
Q
  1. Bacterial sore throat is characterized by:
    A. Fever
    B. Severe erythema and exudates
    C. Lymphadenopathy
    D. AOTA
    E. A and B only
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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78
Q
  1. Which drug is active against protozoal and anaerobic bacterial infections?
    A. Metronidazole
    B. Fluconazole
    C. Cotrimoxazole
    D. Amphotericin
    E. Polymyxin B
A

A. Metronidazole

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79
Q
  1. This antibiotic group inhibits growth by disrupting metabolism, is mostly unaffected by β-lactamases, and can cause photosensitivity, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and hemolytic anemia:
    A. Chloramphenicol
    B. Sulfonamides
    C. Quinolones
    D. Erythromycin
    E. Metronidazole
A

B. Sulfonamides

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80
Q
  1. Which antibiotics are used to treat Pseudomonas infections in the head and neck?
    A. Fluoroquinolones
    B. Amoxicillin
    C. Imipenem
    D. Sultamicillin
    E. Ceftriaxone
A

A. Fluoroquinolones

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81
Q
  1. Which of the following are considered ceruminolytics?
    A. Glycerin
    B. Mineral oil
    C. Coconut oil
    D. AOTA (All of the Above)
    E. A & B only
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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82
Q
  1. Rhinitis medicamentosa is characterized by:
    A. Rebound congestion
    B. Prolonged use of nasal decongestants
    C. A form of vascular atony
    D. AOTA (All of the Above)
    E. A & B only
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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83
Q
  1. The drug of choice for allergic rhinitis that relieves symptoms such as sneezing and mucosal edema while decreasing basophils and eosinophils is:
    A. Antihistamine
    B. Topical nasal steroids
    C. Ipratropium bromide
    D. Oral decongestants
    E. Mucolytics
A

B. Topical nasal steroids

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84
Q
  1. Indications for nasal topical steroids include:
    A. Allergic rhinitis
    B. Chronic sinusitis
    C. Otitis externa
    D. AOTA (All of the Above)
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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85
Q
  1. The topical antibiotic treatment for impetigo is:
    A. Mupirocin
    B. Fusidic acid
    C. Gentamycin
    D. AOTA (All of the Above)
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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86
Q
  1. Signs and symptoms of Meniere’s disease include:
    A. Hearing loss
    B. Vertigo
    C. Tinnitus
    D. AOTA (All of the Above)
A

D. AOTA (All of the Above)

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87
Q
  1. Which vasodilating agent is used for the treatment of vertigo?
    A. Cinnarizine
    B. Furosemide
    C. Betahistine
    D. A & B
A

C. Betahistine

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88
Q
  1. What is the supportive treatment for Meniere’s disease?
    A. B vitamins
    B. Low-salt diet
    C. No caffeine
    D. No monosodium glutamate (MSG)
    E. All of the above
A

E. All of the Above

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89
Q

Pre-exposed IgE binds to the surface of:

A. Allergens
B. Basophils
C. Mast cells
D. Eosinophils
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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90
Q

The only immunologically specific cells of the immune system are:

A. T and B lymphocytes
B. NK cells
C. Macrophages
D. Interferons

A

A. T and B lymphocytes

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91
Q

Characteristic of the immune system that pertains to an amplified response upon second exposure:

A. Specificity
B. Memory
C. Replicability
D. Transferability

A

B. Memory

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92
Q

Any molecule that can be specifically recognized by T cells, B cells, or both is called:

A. Antigen
B. Antibody
C. Hapten
D. Helper T cell

A

A. Antigen

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93
Q

A specific immunoglobulin (Ig) produced by B cells that recognizes and binds to specific molecules identified as nonself is called:

A. Antigen
B. Antibody
C. Hapten
D. Helper T cell

A

B. Antibody

94
Q

Non-specific immune amplifiers and modifiers include:

A. PMNs and monocytes
B. Antigen-presenting cells
C. Interferons
D. Interleukins
E. All of the above

A

: E. All of the above

95
Q

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Waldeyer’s ring
B. Peyer’s patches of the small intestine
C. Appendix
D. Adrenals
E. Mucosal lining of the urogenital system

A

D. Adrenals

96
Q

A specific immunoglobulin (Ig) produced by B cells that recognizes and binds to specific molecules (antigens) identified as nonself is called:

A. Antigen
B. Antibody
C. Hapten

A

B. Antibody

97
Q

Null cells are defined as cells that are:

A. Neither B nor T cells
B. Specific for antigen recognition
C. Part of the adaptive immune system
D. Only natural killer (NK) cells

A

A. Neither B nor T cells

98
Q
  1. The system of nomenclature based on the computer correlation of groups of monoclonal antibodies that recognize specific cell surface antigens is called:

A. Cluster of Differentiation
B. Major Histocompatibility Complex
C. Monoclonal Immunotyping
D. Antigenic Clustering

A

A. Cluster of Differentiation

99
Q
  1. T suppressor cells regulate the proliferation of:

A. Neutrophils
B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Eosinophils

A

C. Lymphocytes

100
Q
  1. IgA is an immunoglobulin that is abundant in:

A. Blood plasma
B. Seromucous secretions
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph nodes

A

B. Seromucous secretions

101
Q
  1. The process of engulfing and internalizing particles by a cell is called:

A. Phagocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Pinocytosis

A

A. Phagocytosis

102
Q
  1. The external ear consists of:

A. Auricle
B. Auricle and external auditory canal
C. External auditory canal
D. Tympanic membrane

A

B. Auricle and external auditory canal

103
Q
  1. The middle ear comprises:

A. Tympanic membrane
B. Tympanic cavity
C. Intra-mural muscles
D. Air cells of the temporal bone
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

104
Q
  1. The membranous labyrinth is divided into:

A. Vestibular labyrinth
B. Cochlea
C. Vestibulocochlear nerve
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

105
Q
  1. The two primary functions of the middle ear are:

A. Impedance matching, minimizing loss in sound vibration transmission
B. Equalization of static air pressure
C. Ventilation
D. Resonance of sound
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

106
Q
  1. The tympanic cavity and mastoid air cells of the middle ear communicate with the nasopharynx via the:

A. Eustachian tube
B. Round window
C. Oval window
D. Attic
E. Aditus and antrum

A

A. Eustachian tube

107
Q
  1. The external ear develops from which germ layers?

A. Ectoderm and mesoderm
B. Endoderm and ectoderm
C. Mesoderm and endoderm
D. Ectoderm and endoderm

A

A. Ectoderm and mesoderm

108
Q
  1. The auditory canal develops as a:

A. Mesenchymal outgrowth
B. Depression in the epidermis
C. Extension of the tympanic membrane
D. Cavitation in the pharyngeal arch

A

B. Depression in the epidermis

109
Q
  1. The tympanic membrane consists of how many layers?

A. 2 layers: epidermal and mesenchymal
B. 3 layers: epidermal, mesenchymal, ectodermal
C. 2 layers: mesodermal and ectodermal
D. 3 layers: epidermal, endodermal, mesenchymal

A

B. 3 layers: epidermal, mesenchymal, ectodermal

110
Q
  1. The auditory ossicles originate from which embryologic tissue?

A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesenchymal tissue
D. Neural crest cells

A

C. Mesenchymal tissue

111
Q
  1. The tympanic cavity and Eustachian tube originate from which embryologic structure?

A. First pharyngeal cleft
B. First pharyngeal pouch
C. Second pharyngeal arch
D. Second pharyngeal pouch

A

B. First pharyngeal pouch

112
Q
  1. The promontory found in the medial wall of the middle ear corresponds to which part of the cochlea?

A. Basal turn
B. Apical turn
C. Middle turn
D. Helicotrema

A

A. Basal turn

113
Q
  1. What contributes significantly to the impedance matching of the ear?

A. Area ratio (tympanic membrane: footplate)
B. Lever ratio (malleus: incus)
C. Resonant frequency
D. Static pressure

A

A. Area ratio (tympanic membrane: footplate)

114
Q
  1. The tympanic membrane consists of _______ and the pars flaccida.

A. Pars tensa
B. Umbo
C. Lamina propria
D. Stria vascularis

A

A. Pars tensa

115
Q
  1. Which is true of the basilar membrane?

A. Separates scala vestibuli and scala media
B. Separates scala tympani and scala media
C. Thicker at apex
D. Thicker at base

A

B. Separates scala tympani and scala media

116
Q
  1. The cone of light is noted over the:

A. Posterosuperior quadrant
B. Posteroinferior quadrant
C. Anterosuperior quadrant
D. Anteroinferior quadrant

A

D. Anteroinferior quadrant

117
Q
  1. The promontory found in the medial wall of the middle ear corresponds to which part of the cochlea?

A. Basal turn
B. Apical turn
C. Middle turn
D. Helicotrema

A

A. Basal turn

118
Q
  1. What contributes significantly to the impedance matching of the ear?

A. Area ratio
B. Lever ratio
C. Resonant frequency
D. Static pressure

A

A. Area ratio

119
Q
  1. Within the _______ are thousands of hair cells that project into the neuroepithelium, responsible for converting mechanical force into electrochemical impulses interpreted as sound.

A. Organ of Corti
B. Basilar membrane
C. Scala media
D. Cochlear duct

A

A. Organ of Corti

120
Q
  1. Within the ___ are thousands of hair cells that project into the neuroepithelium. Hair cells are responsible for converting mechanical force into an electrochemical impulse interpreted as sound.

A. Organ of Corti
B. Basilar Membrane
C. Reissner’s Membrane
D. Spiral Ganglion

A

A. Organ of Corti

121
Q
  1. The central auditory system begins in the brainstem at the ___ where the cochlear nerve terminates.

A. Superior olivary complex
B. Inferior colliculus
C. Lateral colliculus
D. Auditory cortex
E. Cochlear nucleus

A

E. Cochlear nucleus

122
Q
  1. The membranous labyrinth, which contains vestibular receptors, consists of:

A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canals
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

D. All of the above

123
Q
  1. The otolithic organs with vestibular nerve afferents respond to linear acceleration and tilt of the head relative to gravity.

A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canals
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

124
Q
  1. The bony enlargement of the semicircular canal containing the hair cells of the cristae (neuroepithelium) is called:

A. Ampulla
B. Cupula
C. Hair bundles
D. Promontory

A

A. Ampulla

125
Q
  1. The sense of balance involves the complex interaction of the following systems:

A. Labyrinth/peripheral vestibular system
B. Visual system
C. Somatosensory and proprioception
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

D. All of the above

126
Q
  1. The borders of the external ear include:

A. Temporal bone
B. Mastoid bone
C. TMJ, parotid membrane, and tympanic membrane
D. All of the above
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

127
Q
  1. Vertigo is a hallucination or illusion of movement.

A. True
B. False

128
Q
  1. Vertigo can have both peripheral and central causes.

A. True
B. False

129
Q
  1. Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo (BPV) is treated using the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

A. True
B. False

130
Q
  1. Vertigo in perilymphatic fistula is triggered by sound, pressure changes, and physical straining.

A. True
B. False

131
Q
  1. Vestibular neuritis is likely caused by a viral infection and is benign and self-limited.

A. True
B. False

132
Q
  1. BPV is caused by vertigo due to displacement of calcium debris (otoliths) from the utricle to the posterior semicircular canal.

A. True
B. False

133
Q
  1. Meniere’s disease presents with recurrent attacks of vertigo lasting more than 20 minutes.

A. True
B. False

134
Q
  1. Meniere’s disease is associated with auditory symptoms like hearing loss, tinnitus, and ear fullness, and it is bilateral in approximately one-third of cases.

A. True
B. False

135
Q
  1. Migraine headaches may present as benign recurrent vertigo, also referred to as a migraine equivalent.

A. True
B. False

136
Q
  1. Otitis externa refers to a spectrum of external ear inflammation, and 90% of cases are caused by bacteria.

A. True
B. False

137
Q
  1. Risk factors for otitis externa include water in the ear canal, ear manipulation, and seborrhea.

A. True
B. False

138
Q
  1. Nystagmus is defined as a repetitive, uncontrolled movement of the eyes.

A. True
B. False

139
Q
  1. Acute Otitis Media (AOM) presents with symptoms of pinna pain, erythema, and swelling of the external ear canal, with 90% of cases being bacterial.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False
Note: These symptoms describe otitis externa rather than AOM.

140
Q
  1. Cholesteatoma is composed of keratinizing squamous epithelium occurring in the middle ear, mastoid bone, and temporal bone.

A. True
B. False

141
Q
  1. Otomycosis is caused by Candida albicans and Aspergillus niger.

A. True
B. False

142
Q
  1. Otomycosis presents with pruritus, scaling, and black and white mycotic debris.

A. True
B. False

143
Q
  1. Malignant otitis externa is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, leading to osteomyelitis of the skull base and is common in immunocompromised and elderly diabetic patients.

A. True
B. False

144
Q
  1. Acute Otitis Media (AOM) presents with otalgia, fever, conductive hearing loss, and otorrhea if the tympanic membrane is perforated.

A. True
B. False

145
Q
  1. Labyrinthitis presents with signs and symptoms of nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and vertigo.

A. True
B. False

146
Q
  1. On otoscopy, the hyperemia stage is characterized by erythematous swelling. The next stage is exudative, followed by suppuration and perforation with mucous discharge.

A. True
B. False

147
Q
  1. Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM), with or without cholesteatoma, lasts for how long?

A. 1 month or longer
B. 2 months or longer
C. 3 months or longer
D. 6 months or longer

A

C. 3 months or longer

148
Q
  1. Vestibular neuritis is defined as inflammation of the vestibular nerve and presents with dizziness, vertigo, and no hearing loss.

A. True
B. False

149
Q
  1. The external ear consists of the:

A. Auricle
B. Auricle and external auditory canal
C. External auditory canal

A

B. Auricle and external auditory canal

150
Q
  1. The middle ear comprises:

A. Tympanic membrane, ossicles
B. Tympanic cavity
C. Intra-auricular muscles
D. Air cells of the temporal bone
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

151
Q
  1. The membranous labyrinth is divided into the:

A. Vestibular labyrinth and cochlea
B. Cochlea and semicircular canals
C. Endolymphatic sac and cochlea
D. Utricle and saccule

A

A. Vestibular labyrinth and cochlea

152
Q
  1. The two main functions of the middle ear include:

A. Impedance matching and minimizing loss in sound vibration transmission
B. Equalizing static pressure and sound filtering
C. Sound amplification and resonance
D. None of the above

A

A. Impedance matching and minimizing loss in sound vibration transmission

153
Q
  1. The auditory ossicles originate from:

A. Ectodermal tissue
B. Endodermal tissue
C. Mesenchymal origin
D. Neural crest cells

A

C. Mesenchymal origin

154
Q
  1. The tympanic cavity and Eustachian tube develop from the:

A. First pharyngeal cleft
B. First pharyngeal pouch
C. Second pharyngeal arch
D. Neural crest cells

A

B. First pharyngeal pouch

155
Q
  1. The promontory found in the medial wall of the middle ear corresponds to which part of the cochlea?

A. Basal turn
B. Apical turn
C. Middle turn
D. Helicotrema

A

A. Basal turn

156
Q
  1. What contributes significantly to the impedance matching of the ear?

A. Areal ratio (tympanic membrane: footplate)
B. Lever ratio (malleus: incus)
C. Resonant frequency
D. Static pressure

A

A. Areal ratio (tympanic membrane: footplate)

157
Q
  1. The tympanic membrane consists of two portions: the pars flaccida and the:

A. Pars tensa
B. Umbo
C. Lamina propria
D. Epitympanic recess

A

A. Pars tensa

158
Q
  1. True regarding the basilar membrane:

A. Separates scala vestibuli and scala media
B. Separates scala tympani and scala media
C. Thicker at the apex
D. Thinner at the base

A

B. Separates scala tympani and scala media

159
Q
  1. The cone of light is noted over the:

A. Posterosuperior quadrant
B. Posteroinferior quadrant
C. Anterosuperior quadrant
D. Anteroinferior quadrant

A

D. Anteroinferior quadrant

160
Q
  1. True of the pars flaccida (Shrapnell’s membrane) of the tympanic membrane:

A. It is part of the tympanic cavity’s superior region
B. It attaches to the handle of the malleus
C. It is thicker than the pars tensa
D. It contains a high concentration of keratin

A

B. It attaches to the handle of the malleus

161
Q
  1. The Eustachian tube is tested by which maneuver?

A. Pushing the tragus into the ear canal
B. Opening and closing the mouth
C. Asking the patient to inhale with the nose closed
D. Swallowing with the nose pinched (Toynbee Maneuver)

A

D. Swallowing with the nose pinched (Toynbee Maneuver

162
Q
  1. ___ resembles intracellular fluid in electrolyte composition and is contained within a closed system in the cochlea and vestibular labyrinth.

A. Perilymph
B. Endolymph
C. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
D. Synovial fluid

A

B. Endolymph

163
Q
  1. The membranous labyrinth, which contains vestibular receptors, consists of:

A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canals
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

D. All of the above

164
Q
  1. The otolithic organs with vestibular nerve afferents respond to linear acceleration and tilt of the head relative to gravity.

A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canals
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

E. A and B

165
Q
  1. The borders of the external ear include:

A. Temporal lobe of the brain
B. Mastoid process of the temporal bone
C. Temporomandibular joint, parotid gland, and tympanic membrane
D. All of the above
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

166
Q
  1. Rhinion is the point of articulation of the nasal bone and frontal bone.

A. True
B. False

167
Q
  1. The mesodermal frontonasal process gives rise to the nasal septum and primitive palate (premaxilla).

A. True
B. False

168
Q
  1. The nasal septum divides the nose into right and left nasal cavities.

A. True
B. False

169
Q
  1. The ostiomeatal unit includes the maxillary ostium/infundibulum, ethmoid infundibulum, frontoethmoidal complex, uncinate process, hiatus semilunaris, ethmoidal bulla, and middle meatus.

A. True
B. False

170
Q
  1. The inferior meatus contains the opening of the nasolacrimal duct.

A. True
B. False

171
Q
  1. The paranasal sinuses are:

A. Medial to the ethmoids and separate them from the orbit
B. Air-filled spaces lined by respiratory epithelium on either side of the head
C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses
D. Posterosuperior to the sphenoid sinus
E. Largest of the paranasal sinuses

A

B. Air-filled spaces lined by respiratory epithelium on either side of the head

172
Q
  1. The lamina papyracea is:

A. Medial to the ethmoid and separates them from the orbit
B. Lateral wall of the nasal cavity
C. Posterior to the maxillary sinus
D. Inferior to the frontal sinus

A

A. Medial to the ethmoid and separates them from the orbit

173
Q
  1. The maxillary sinuses are:

A. Located posterosuperior to the sphenoid
B. Medial to the orbit
C. Lined with squamous epithelium
D. The largest of the paranasal sinuses

A

D. The largest of the paranasal sinuses

174
Q
  1. The pituitary gland is located:

A. Superior to the cribriform plate
B. Anterior to the ethmoid sinuses
C. Medial to the lamina papyracea
D. Posterior to the sphenoid sinus

A

D. Posterior to the sphenoid sinus

175
Q
  1. The frontal sinuses are:

A. Medial to the ethmoid sinuses
B. Posterior to the sphenoid sinus
C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses
D. Superior to the maxillary sinuses

A

C. Located anterior to and above the ethmoid sinuses

176
Q
  1. Through which structure do olfactory neurons pass into the nasal cavity?

A. Ethmoidal air cells
B. Cribriform plate
C. Sphenoid sinus
D. Lamina papyracea

A

B. Cribriform plate

177
Q
  1. The absence of the sense of smell is termed:

A. Anosmia
B. Hyposmia
C. Ageusia
D. Dysgeusia

A

A. Anosmia

178
Q
  1. The mucociliary apparatus:

A. Produces mucus to trap particles
B. Physically cleanses inspired air
C. Warms and humidifies air
D. Facilitates olfactory sensation

A

B. Physically cleanses inspired air

179
Q
  1. Rhinovirus causes approximately what percentage of common colds?

A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%

180
Q
  1. Unilateral foul-smelling rhinorrhea is commonly caused by:

A. Sinusitis
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Nasal foreign body
D. Nasal polyp

A

C. Nasal foreign body

181
Q
  1. _____ is located between the posterior border of the lateral cartilage, is the narrowest part of the upper respiratory tract, and is the posterior border of the nasal vestibule.

A. Nasal valve or limen nasi
B. Choanae
C. Nasal septum
D. Ostiomeatal unit

A

A. Nasal valve or limen nasi

182
Q
  1. By about the 20th week in utero, failure of resorption of the nasal epithelial plug gives rise to:

A. Choanal atresia
B. Ostiomeatal unit
C. Choanae
D. Columella
E. Zygomatic arch

A

A. Choanal atresia

183
Q
  1. The nasal vestibule and the anterior portion of the nasal cavity contain the following EXCEPT:

A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Vibrissae
C. Sweat glands
D. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium with mucous glands
E. Sebaceous glands

A

D. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium with mucous glands

184
Q
  1. The paired posterior openings through which the nasal cavities communicate with the nasopharynx are called:

A. Vestibule
B. Choanae
C. Columella
D. Ostiomeatal unit
E. Infundibulum

A

B. Choanae

185
Q
  1. Which sinus arises from the upper anterior area of the middle meatus and as an upgrowth of one of the anterior group of ethmoid air cells?

A. Maxillary sinus
B. Ethmoid sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus

A

C. Frontal sinus

186
Q
  1. At birth, which two sinuses are large enough to acquire sinusitis?

A. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses
B. Sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses
C. Sphenoid and maxillary sinuses
D. Frontal and maxillary sinuses
E. Frontal and ethmoid sinuses

A

A. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses

187
Q
  1. The bony framework or vault of the nose is formed by:

A. Paired nasal bones
B. Frontal process of the maxilla
C. Nasal process of the frontal bone
D. All of the above
E. B and C only

A

D. All of the above

188
Q
  1. The cartilaginous vault of the nose consists of:

A. Upper lateral cartilage
B. Lower cartilage
C. Nasal septum
D. All of the above
E. A and B

A

D. All of the above

189
Q
  1. The roof of the nasal cavity is formed by:

A. Cribriform plate
B. Undersurface of the sphenoid bone
C. Nasal area of the frontal bone
D. Nasal bones
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

190
Q
  1. Scroll-like structures in the lateral wall of the nose that form boundaries for nasal meatal passages and are invested by respiratory epithelium are called:

A. Nasal septum
B. Posterior nares
C. Turbinates
D. Paranasal sinuses
E. Columellae

A

C. Turbinates

191
Q
  1. The pathogenesis of ___ is believed to involve neurovascular autonomic disturbances in regulating the tonus of nasal mucosal vessels. Symptoms include nasal obstruction, watery rhinorrhea, and sneezing.

A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Vasomotor rhinitis
C. Nasal polyps
D. Rhinitis medicamentosa
E. Atrophic rhinitis

A

B. Vasomotor rhinitis

192
Q
  1. The respiratory functions of the nose include:

A. Humidification
B. Temperature control
C. Cleansing and filtration
D. Antibacterial/antiviral activity
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

193
Q
  1. Functions of the paranasal sinuses include:

A. Lightening of the skull weight
B. Providing bumper-like protection to the face in trauma
C. Voice resonation
D. Contributing to olfaction
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

194
Q
  1. The epithelial lining of the nose includes:

A. Predominantly pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium in the vestibule and nares
C. Nonciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with serous glands and bipolar cells in the roof
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

A

D. All of the above

195
Q
  1. Damage to the olfactory epithelium may cause abnormal perception of smell (hyposmia) due to:

A. Drugs
B. Viral infections
C. Radiotherapy
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

196
Q
  1. Herniations of intracranial contents through a bony defect in the skull are called:

A. Cephalocoele
B. Meningocele
C. Encephalocele
D. Hydrocephalocele

A

A. Cephalocoele

197
Q
  1. The following are etiologic agents of acute rhinosinusitis EXCEPT:

A. Rhinovirus
B. Influenza virus
C. Rotavirus
D. Coronavirus

A

C. Rotavirus

198
Q
  1. Pathogenesis of nasal polyps includes:

A. Chronic infection
B. History of asthma
C. Hypersensitivity to acetylsalicylic acid
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

199
Q
  1. The most common site of complication of sinusitis, particularly due to the thin and delicate lamina papyracea that separates the ethmoid sinus, is the:

A. Frontal sinus
B. Orbital region
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus

A

B. Orbital region

200
Q
  1. Symptoms of acute rhinosinusitis include:

A. Watery nasal discharge
B. Mucopurulent nasal discharge
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Headache
E. B, C, D only

A

E. B, C, D only

201
Q
  1. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include:

A. Watery nasal discharge
B. Mucopurulent nasal discharge
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Headache
E. A, C, D only

A

E. A, C, D only

202
Q
  1. Symptoms of allergic rhinosinusitis include:

A. Watery nasal discharge
B. Mucopurulent nasal discharge
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Headache
E. A, C, D only

A

E. A, C, D only

203
Q
  1. Pre-exposed antibody IgE binds to the surface of:

A. Mast cells
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

204
Q
  1. Overuse of alpha-adrenergic agonists as decongestants can result in rebound symptoms commonly known as:

A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Vasomotor rhinitis
C. Rhinitis medicamentosa
D. Chronic rhinitis

A

C. Rhinitis medicamentosa

205
Q
  1. The drug treatment for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis includes:

A. Antihistamine (H1 blocker) alone
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Antihistamine (H1 blocker) + topical corticosteroids
D. Cromones

A

C. Antihistamine (H1 blocker) + topical corticosteroids

206
Q
  1. ______ stabilizes mast cells to prevent mediator release in allergic conditions.

A. Cromones
B. Antihistamines
C. Beta-2 antagonists
D. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A

A. Cromones

207
Q
  1. ______ provides a local anti-inflammatory effect in nasal conditions.

A. Cromones
B. Antihistamines
C. Topical steroids
D. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A

C. Topical steroids

208
Q
  1. ______ is considered a local anti-inflammatory treatment.

A. Cromones
B. Antihistamines
C. Topical nasal steroids
D. Beta-2 agonists
E. NSAIDs

A

C. Topical nasal steroids

209
Q
  1. ______ decrease symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and rhinorrhea in allergic rhinitis.

A. Cromones
B. Antihistamines
C. Beta-2 agonists
D. NSAIDs

A

B. Antihistamines

210
Q
  1. The most common cause of acute rhinosinusitis is:

A. Rhinovirus
B. Bacterial infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Allergic reaction

A

A. Rhinovirus

211
Q
  1. The principle of ______ is to enlarge tight passages in the middle meatus and ostium of the maxillary sinus and, if necessary, the frontal sinus, thus restoring normal ventilation and mucociliary flow.

A. Flexible endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)
B. Caldwell-Luc surgery
C. Ethmoidectomy
D. Lateral rhinotomy

A

A. Flexible endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)

212
Q
  1. The most common cause of posterior epistaxis is:

A. Hypertension
B. Angiofibroma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Trauma

A

A. Hypertension

213
Q
  1. Presence of discharge and eosinophils in a smear without allergic symptoms is referred to as:

A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Eosinophilic non-allergic rhinitis
C. Atrophic rhinitis
D. Vasomotor rhinitis

A

B. Eosinophilic non-allergic rhinitis

214
Q
  1. Crusty mucosa, watery nasal discharge, and foul-smelling odor are characteristic of:

A. Atrophic rhinitis
B. Rhinitis medicamentosa
C. Vasomotor rhinitis
D. Hormonal rhinitis

A

A. Atrophic rhinitis

215
Q
  1. Rebound effect upon withdrawal of topical decongestants is referred to as:

A. Atrophic rhinitis
B. Vasomotor rhinitis
C. Rhinitis medicamentosa
D. Metabolic rhinitis

A

C. Rhinitis medicamentosa

216
Q
  1. Rhinitis present in hyperthyroidism is classified as:

A. Atrophic rhinitis
B. Metabolic rhinitis
C. Vasomotor rhinitis
D. Hormonal rhinitis

A

B. Metabolic rhinitis

217
Q
  1. Frequent rhinitis associated with pregnancy is referred to as:

A. Hormonal rhinitis
B. Metabolic rhinitis
C. Atrophic rhinitis
D. Allergic rhinitis

A

A. Hormonal rhinitis

218
Q
  1. Choanal atresia commonly affects both nasal cavities.

A. True
B. False

219
Q
  1. Pre-exposed antibody IgE binds to the surface of:

A. Allergens
B. Basophils
C. Mast cells
D. Eosinophils
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

220
Q
  1. Any molecule that can be specifically recognized by T and B cells is called an:

A. Antigen
B. Antibody
C. Hapten
D. Cytokine

A

A. Antigen

221
Q
  1. Inverting papillomas are translucent, soft intranasal masses in both nasal cavities.

A. True
B. False

222
Q
  1. Management of inverting papillomas involves the use of topical nasal steroids.

A. True
B. False

223
Q
  1. Mucous retention cysts of the maxillary sinus are not true cysts.

A. True
B. False

224
Q
  1. The maxillary sinus is the most common site of sinus malignancies.

A. True
B. False

225
Q
  1. Sinus malignancies are treated with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy.

A. True
B. False

226
Q
  1. CT is the method of choice for viewing the paranasal sinuses.

A. True
B. False

227
Q
  1. MRI is valuable in the evaluation of tumors of the sphenoid cavity.

A. True
B. False

228
Q
  1. Axial and coronal cuts are the best views for CT imaging during endoscopic sinus surgery.

A. True
B. False

229
Q
  1. Sinonasal neoplasms rarely develop symptoms early because:

A. The paranasal sinuses are air-filled structures with significant potential space
B. More than 80% of neoplasms in this region are epidermal in origin
C. Approximately 25% of all sinonasal tumors are benign
D. A significant number of tumors involve more than one site

A

A. The paranasal sinuses are air-filled structures with significant potential space

230
Q
  1. Radiographic evaluation of the nose and paranasal sinuses showing erosion, remodeling, expansion, and calcifications is best performed with:

A. MRI
B. CT
C. X-ray
D. Soft tissue lateral view of the nose

231
Q
  1. The functions of the nose include respiration, olfaction, and voice phonation.

A. True
B. False

232
Q
  1. The maxillary and ethmoidal paranasal sinuses are present at birth.

A. True
B. False

Ophthalmology (9 decks)

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