. Flashcards

1
Q

How many pairs of pharyngeal (branchial) outpouchings are present during embryological development?

A

5

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2
Q

Which anatomical structure contains the superior, middle, and inferior constrictors?

A

Pharynx

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3
Q

The superior, middle, and inferior pharyngeal constrictors are derived from which branchial arch?

A

3rd-4th

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4
Q

The mandible is derived from which branchial arch?

A

1st

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5
Q

The lateral outpouchings of the foregut in the region of the primitive pharynx are called:

A

Pharyngeal pouch

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6
Q

The first pharyngeal pouch initially becomes elongated and is then incorporated into the temporal bone to form the epithelial lining of the:

A

Middle ear

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7
Q

The thymus develops from which pharyngeal pouch?

A

3rd

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8
Q

The 4th to 5th pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the:

A

Superior parathyroid

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9
Q

The precursor of ____ forms a ventral diverticulum of endodermal tissue on the floor of the pharynx between the 1st and 2nd arches. It can also be found between the tuberculum impar and copula.

A

C. Thyroid gland

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10
Q

The persistence of a connection between the thyroid diverticulum and the floor of the pharynx gives rise to:

A

B. Thyroglossal duct cyst

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11
Q

The duct of the submandibular gland that opens on either side of the tongue frenulum is called:

A

B. Wharton’s duct

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12
Q

Continually but slowly growing palatal bone and horizontal process in the midline of the mandible is called:

A

C. Torus mandibularis

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13
Q

Papillae that function as licking elements and receptors of texture and pressure sensations are called:

A

A. Filiform papillae

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14
Q

Papillae identified as little round smooth nibs found in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and functioning as taste buds for salty and sweet foods are called:

A

B. Fungiform papillae

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15
Q

V-shaped papillae located near the sulcus terminalis of the tongue are called:

A

C. Vallate papillae

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16
Q

Papillae located in the posterolateral part of the tongue are called:

A

D. Foliate papillae

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17
Q

The anterior pillar of the oropharynx is formed by which muscle?

A

B. Palatoglossus

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18
Q

Bony overgrowth that causes difficulty in wearing dentures is called:

A

C. Torus mandibularis

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19
Q

Papillae responsible for taste function are:

A

B. Fungiform papillae

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20
Q

Papillae responsible for licking function are called:

A

A. Filiform papillae

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21
Q

The space that lies between the teeth and lips is called the:

A

B. Vestibule

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22
Q

The muscle that lies underneath the floor of the mouth is the:

A

B. Mylohyoid

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23
Q

The muscle that protrudes the tip and depresses the tongue is called the:

A

B. Genioglossus

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24
Q

The motor nerve fiber supply to the tongue is provided by:

A

D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)

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25
Q

The muscle that elevates the soft palate is called:

A

A. Levator veli palatini

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the nasopharynx?

A

D. Palatine tonsil

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27
Q

The superior interdigitation of the superior constrictor muscle is called:

A

A. Passavant’s ridge

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28
Q

The palatoglossus muscle represents the posterior border of the oral cavity.

A

A. True

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29
Q

The genioglossus muscle depresses the tongue as a whole.

A

A. True

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30
Q

Crenated tongue is the result of compression of the tongue adjacent to the teeth.

A

A. True

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31
Q

The hypopharynx is related to structures including the epiglottis and esophagus.

A

A. True

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32
Q

Foliate papillae are parallel mucosal folds located in the most anterior lateral aspect of the tongue.

33
Q

The nasopharynx is the area above and posterior to the hard palate, communicating with the choanae and Eustachian tube.

34
Q

The innervation of the papillae that divides the anterior ⅔ and posterior ⅓ of the tongue is provided by Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal).

35
Q

Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by multiple telangiectatic lesions in the skin and mucosa.

36
Q

Synonyms for fissured tongue include plicated tongue and scrotal tongue.

37
Q

Whitish lesions in children are considered normal. Histological examination shows hyperplastic epithelial growth, which is not considered malignant.

38
Q

Geographic tongue appears as raised red areas with no filiform papillae.

39
Q

Crenated tongue is produced by dental pressure and indentation of the marginal tongue.

40
Q

Black hairy leukoplakia is caused by pigmented hypertrophy of the filiform papillae.

41
Q

Lingual tonsils are subepithelial conglomerations of lymphoid tissue situated in the posterior oropharyngeal aspect of the tongue, which hypertrophy during puberty or post-tonsillectomy.

42
Q

Lingual linea alba is a white linear area of keratinization in the lateral aspect of the tongue formed by friction and molding of the most lateral aspect of the tongue.

43
Q

Fordyce spots are large tubulovesicular sebaceous glands commonly present in the lips.

44
Q

Stomatitis nicotina presents as grayish-white lesions that are thickened and umbilicated.

45
Q

Epulis fissuratum is a sessile inflammatory lesion of the maxillary alveolar edge, which is seen as a product of chronic dental trauma.

46
Q

Leukoplakia are white lesions seen in the oral cavity with 5 to 10% malignant potential.

47
Q

Lichen planus is an immunologic disorder with lymphocyte infiltration in the basal layer of the epithelium.

48
Q

Aphthous stomatitis is a painful and debilitating oral mucosal ulceration that usually heals within 10-14 days.

49
Q

Inflammation of the salivary ejector in Wharton’s duct results in cessation of saliva flow into the oral cavity and retention of saliva in the involved gland.

50
Q

Sialolithiasis may cause retention of saliva and secondary infection of the gland.

51
Q

Peritonsillar abscess causes the bulging of the anterior pillar and soft palate with deviation and edema of the uvula.

52
Q

Ranula are obstructions of the ducts or canaliculi of exocrine glands seen in the sublingual gland.

53
Q

The sensation of pain, touch, and temperature is transmitted by the lingual nerve, and the motor function of the tongue is innervated by the lingual nerve to the chorda tympani.

54
Q

Periodontitis is a chronic degenerative destruction of the periodontal structure.

55
Q

Erythema multiforme are rapidly progressive lesions that contain a necrotizing center.

56
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by parotid gland swelling with associated keratoconjunctivitis and xerostomia.

57
Q

Herpes simplex is a vesicular eruption with a dermatomal distribution.

58
Q

Candida is part of normal flora but can become opportunistic.

59
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma comprises 80% of upper aerodigestive cancers.

60
Q

The frenulum is located anteroinferiorly and connects to the floor of the mouth and gingiva.

61
Q

Pott’s disease primarily affects which space in the neck?

A

B. Prevertebral space

62
Q

Which structures are enclosed in the middle deep cervical fascia?

A

D. All of the above

63
Q

The superficial cervical fascia contains which of the following?

A

D. All of the above

64
Q

The deep cervical layer consists of which structure?

A

D. All of the above

65
Q

The parapharyngeal space is a potential space shaped like:

A

C. An inverted pyramid

66
Q

The masticator space extends from the angle of the mandible superiorly to the skull base and over which muscle?

A

A. Temporalis muscle

67
Q

The canine space is the potential space between which two muscles?

A

A. Levator anguli oris and levator labii superioris

68
Q

The mental space is a potential space for the spread of abscesses from which location?

69
Q

Which of the following are borders of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

D. All of the above

70
Q

Which structure can become secondarily involved with any deep neck space infection by direct spread?

A

C. Carotid sheath

71
Q

What are the complications of deep neck infections?

A

D. AOTA (All of the above)

72
Q

Does the superficial cervical fascia (SCF) include the Superficial Musculoaponeurotic System (SMAS) that extends from the epicranium to the axilla and chest?

73
Q

What structures compose the deep cervical fascia superficial layer?

A

E. All of the above

Structures include Sternocleidomastoid (SCM), Trapezius, Parotid, and Posterior triangle structures.

74
Q

What divisions compose the deep cervical fascia middle layer?

A

C. Both A and B

A. Muscular division (Infrahyoid strap muscles) and B. Visceral division (Pharynx, Larynx, Esophagus, Thyroid).

75
Q

What are the amplifiers and modifiers of the immune system?

A

D. All of the above

Includes Antigen-presenting cells (APCs), Interleukins, and Interferons.

76
Q

Which characteristic of the immune system pertains to an amplified response to a second exposure?

77
Q

What are the boundaries of the peritonsillar space?

A

Medially: Capsule of the palatine tonsil, Laterally: Superior pharyngeal constrictor, Superiorly: Anterior tonsillar pillar, Inferiorly: Posterior tonsillar pillar.

78
Q

What are the typical presentations of a retropharyngeal abscess?

A

F. All of the above

Includes Dysphagia, Difficulty breathing (DOB), Stridor, Croupy cough, and Torticollis.