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0 - Ophthalmology > . > Flashcards

. Flashcards

1
Q

How many pairs of pharyngeal (branchial) outpouchings are present during embryological development?

A

5

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2
Q

Which anatomical structure contains the superior, middle, and inferior constrictors?

A

Pharynx

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3
Q

The superior, middle, and inferior pharyngeal constrictors are derived from which branchial arch?

A

3rd-4th

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4
Q

The mandible is derived from which branchial arch?

A

1st

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5
Q

The lateral outpouchings of the foregut in the region of the primitive pharynx are called:

A

Pharyngeal pouch

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6
Q

The first pharyngeal pouch initially becomes elongated and is then incorporated into the temporal bone to form the epithelial lining of the:

A

Middle ear

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7
Q

The thymus develops from which pharyngeal pouch?

A

3rd

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8
Q

The 4th to 5th pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the:

A

Superior parathyroid

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9
Q

The precursor of ____ forms a ventral diverticulum of endodermal tissue on the floor of the pharynx between the 1st and 2nd arches. It can also be found between the tuberculum impar and copula.

A

C. Thyroid gland

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10
Q

The persistence of a connection between the thyroid diverticulum and the floor of the pharynx gives rise to:

A

B. Thyroglossal duct cyst

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11
Q

The duct of the submandibular gland that opens on either side of the tongue frenulum is called:

A

B. Wharton’s duct

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12
Q

Continually but slowly growing palatal bone and horizontal process in the midline of the mandible is called:

A

C. Torus mandibularis

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13
Q

Papillae that function as licking elements and receptors of texture and pressure sensations are called:

A

A. Filiform papillae

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14
Q

Papillae identified as little round smooth nibs found in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and functioning as taste buds for salty and sweet foods are called:

A

B. Fungiform papillae

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15
Q

V-shaped papillae located near the sulcus terminalis of the tongue are called:

A

C. Vallate papillae

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16
Q

Papillae located in the posterolateral part of the tongue are called:

A

D. Foliate papillae

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17
Q

The anterior pillar of the oropharynx is formed by which muscle?

A

B. Palatoglossus

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18
Q

Bony overgrowth that causes difficulty in wearing dentures is called:

A

C. Torus mandibularis

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19
Q

Papillae responsible for taste function are:

A

B. Fungiform papillae

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20
Q

Papillae responsible for licking function are called:

A

A. Filiform papillae

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21
Q

The space that lies between the teeth and lips is called the:

A

B. Vestibule

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22
Q

The muscle that lies underneath the floor of the mouth is the:

A

B. Mylohyoid

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23
Q

The muscle that protrudes the tip and depresses the tongue is called the:

A

B. Genioglossus

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24
Q

The motor nerve fiber supply to the tongue is provided by:

A

D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)

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25
Q

The muscle that elevates the soft palate is called:

A

A. Levator veli palatini

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the nasopharynx?

A

D. Palatine tonsil

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27
Q

The superior interdigitation of the superior constrictor muscle is called:

A

A. Passavant’s ridge

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28
Q

The palatoglossus muscle represents the posterior border of the oral cavity.

A

A. True

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29
Q

The genioglossus muscle depresses the tongue as a whole.

A

A. True

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30
Q

Crenated tongue is the result of compression of the tongue adjacent to the teeth.

A

A. True

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31
Q

The hypopharynx is related to structures including the epiglottis and esophagus.

A

A. True

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32
Q

Foliate papillae are parallel mucosal folds located in the most anterior lateral aspect of the tongue.

A

B. False

33
Q

The nasopharynx is the area above and posterior to the hard palate, communicating with the choanae and Eustachian tube.

A

A. True

34
Q

The innervation of the papillae that divides the anterior ⅔ and posterior ⅓ of the tongue is provided by Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal).

A

A. True

35
Q

Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by multiple telangiectatic lesions in the skin and mucosa.

A

A. True

36
Q

Synonyms for fissured tongue include plicated tongue and scrotal tongue.

A

A. True

37
Q

Whitish lesions in children are considered normal. Histological examination shows hyperplastic epithelial growth, which is not considered malignant.

A

A. True

38
Q

Geographic tongue appears as raised red areas with no filiform papillae.

A

A. True

39
Q

Crenated tongue is produced by dental pressure and indentation of the marginal tongue.

A

A. True

40
Q

Black hairy leukoplakia is caused by pigmented hypertrophy of the filiform papillae.

A

A. True

41
Q

Lingual tonsils are subepithelial conglomerations of lymphoid tissue situated in the posterior oropharyngeal aspect of the tongue, which hypertrophy during puberty or post-tonsillectomy.

A

A. True

42
Q

Lingual linea alba is a white linear area of keratinization in the lateral aspect of the tongue formed by friction and molding of the most lateral aspect of the tongue.

A

A. True

43
Q

Fordyce spots are large tubulovesicular sebaceous glands commonly present in the lips.

A

A. True

44
Q

Stomatitis nicotina presents as grayish-white lesions that are thickened and umbilicated.

A

A. True

45
Q

Epulis fissuratum is a sessile inflammatory lesion of the maxillary alveolar edge, which is seen as a product of chronic dental trauma.

A

A. True

46
Q

Leukoplakia are white lesions seen in the oral cavity with 5 to 10% malignant potential.

A

A. True

47
Q

Lichen planus is an immunologic disorder with lymphocyte infiltration in the basal layer of the epithelium.

A

A. True

48
Q

Aphthous stomatitis is a painful and debilitating oral mucosal ulceration that usually heals within 10-14 days.

A

A. True

49
Q

Inflammation of the salivary ejector in Wharton’s duct results in cessation of saliva flow into the oral cavity and retention of saliva in the involved gland.

A

A. True

50
Q

Sialolithiasis may cause retention of saliva and secondary infection of the gland.

A

A. True

51
Q

Peritonsillar abscess causes the bulging of the anterior pillar and soft palate with deviation and edema of the uvula.

A

A. True

52
Q

Ranula are obstructions of the ducts or canaliculi of exocrine glands seen in the sublingual gland.

A

A. True

53
Q

The sensation of pain, touch, and temperature is transmitted by the lingual nerve, and the motor function of the tongue is innervated by the lingual nerve to the chorda tympani.

A

B. False

54
Q

Periodontitis is a chronic degenerative destruction of the periodontal structure.

A

A. True

55
Q

Erythema multiforme are rapidly progressive lesions that contain a necrotizing center.

A

B. False

56
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by parotid gland swelling with associated keratoconjunctivitis and xerostomia.

A

A. True

57
Q

Herpes simplex is a vesicular eruption with a dermatomal distribution.

A

A. True

58
Q

Candida is part of normal flora but can become opportunistic.

A

A. True

59
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma comprises 80% of upper aerodigestive cancers.

A

A. True

60
Q

The frenulum is located anteroinferiorly and connects to the floor of the mouth and gingiva.

A

A. True

61
Q

Pott’s disease primarily affects which space in the neck?

A

B. Prevertebral space

62
Q

Which structures are enclosed in the middle deep cervical fascia?

A

D. All of the above

63
Q

The superficial cervical fascia contains which of the following?

A

D. All of the above

64
Q

The deep cervical layer consists of which structure?

A

D. All of the above

65
Q

The parapharyngeal space is a potential space shaped like:

A

C. An inverted pyramid

66
Q

The masticator space extends from the angle of the mandible superiorly to the skull base and over which muscle?

A

A. Temporalis muscle

67
Q

The canine space is the potential space between which two muscles?

A

A. Levator anguli oris and levator labii superioris

68
Q

The mental space is a potential space for the spread of abscesses from which location?

A

B. Teeth

69
Q

Which of the following are borders of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

D. All of the above

70
Q

Which structure can become secondarily involved with any deep neck space infection by direct spread?

A

C. Carotid sheath

71
Q

What are the complications of deep neck infections?

A

D. AOTA (All of the above)

72
Q

Does the superficial cervical fascia (SCF) include the Superficial Musculoaponeurotic System (SMAS) that extends from the epicranium to the axilla and chest?

A

A. True

73
Q

What structures compose the deep cervical fascia superficial layer?

A

E. All of the above

Structures include Sternocleidomastoid (SCM), Trapezius, Parotid, and Posterior triangle structures.

74
Q

What divisions compose the deep cervical fascia middle layer?

A

C. Both A and B

A. Muscular division (Infrahyoid strap muscles) and B. Visceral division (Pharynx, Larynx, Esophagus, Thyroid).

75
Q

What are the amplifiers and modifiers of the immune system?

A

D. All of the above

Includes Antigen-presenting cells (APCs), Interleukins, and Interferons.

76
Q

Which characteristic of the immune system pertains to an amplified response to a second exposure?

A

B. Memory

77
Q

What are the boundaries of the peritonsillar space?

A

Medially: Capsule of the palatine tonsil, Laterally: Superior pharyngeal constrictor, Superiorly: Anterior tonsillar pillar, Inferiorly: Posterior tonsillar pillar.

78
Q

What are the typical presentations of a retropharyngeal abscess?

A

F. All of the above

Includes Dysphagia, Difficulty breathing (DOB), Stridor, Croupy cough, and Torticollis.

0 - Ophthalmology (7 decks)

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