LE1 - Optha Flashcards
Colored halos seen around a point of light could be caused by:
Choices:
a) Corneal edema
b) Corneal abrasion
c) Corneal pannus
d) None of the above
a) Corneal edema
Rationale:
Colored halos around lights are commonly seen in conditions that affect the cornea and lead to edema, causing light to scatter.
Hollenhorst plaque seen in retinal vein occlusions is a:
Choices:
a) Cholesterol embolus
b) Calcific embolus
c) Fibrin embolus
d) None of the above
a) Cholesterol embolus
Rationale:
Hollenhorst plaques are typically cholesterol emboli originating from carotid artery disease.
A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in a 6-year-old boy with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat-topped cobblestone papillae raised areas in palpebral conjunctiva is:
Choices:
a) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
b) Trachoma
c) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
d) None of the above
c) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
Rationale:
Vernal keratoconjunctivitis is a seasonal allergic condition commonly affecting children and characterized by the described symptoms and findings.
The following organisms can present with a palpable preauricular lymph node and eye discharge EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Chlamydia trachomatis
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c) Adenovirus
d) None of the above
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Rationale:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae does not typically cause palpable preauricular lymph nodes.
All of the following can be caused by chlamydial infection EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Inclusion conjunctivitis
b) Lymphogranuloma venereum
c) Trachoma
d) Neither
d) Neither
Rationale:
Chlamydial infections can cause inclusion conjunctivitis, lymphogranuloma venereum, and trachoma.
Which of the following is an example of a normal optic nerve?
c) Option 3
Rationale:
A normal optic nerve head should have a clear margin, a pink color, and a central cup. Option 3 in the image provided appears to match these criteria.
A white opacity caused by a scar or corneal infiltrate is called a:
Choices:
a) Corneal leukoma
b) Pannus
c) Keratic precipitates
d) Corneal edema
a) Corneal leukoma
Rationale:
A corneal leukoma is a dense white opacity on the cornea resulting from scarring.
A major risk for the development of bacterial keratitis is:
Choices:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Age
c) Contact lens wear
d) None of the above
c) Contact lens wear
Rationale:
Contact lens wear is a significant risk factor for developing bacterial keratitis due to potential contamination and improper hygiene.
The most common ophthalmic manifestation in thyroid-associated orbitopathy is:
Choices:
a) Proptosis
b) Lid retraction
c) Conjunctivitis
d) Chemosis
b) Lid Retraction
• Lid retraction is the most common and characteristic feature of thyroid-associated orbitopathy. • It results from the increased sympathetic tone and fibrosis of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle and Müller’s muscle. • Clinical Features: • The upper eyelid is higher than normal when the eyes are in the primary position, which gives the eyes a “staring” appearance. • It can cause exposure of the cornea, leading to dryness and discomfort. • The sclera is visible above the corneal limbus.
Other Manifestations
• Proptosis (Choice a): • Also known as exophthalmos, it is a forward protrusion of the eye. While common in TAO, it is not as frequently the first or most prominent sign as lid retraction. • Conjunctivitis (Choice c): • Inflammation of the conjunctiva can occur secondary to exposure and dryness but is not the most common initial presentation. • Chemosis (Choice d): • Refers to swelling (edema) of the conjunctiva. It can occur in severe cases of TAO but is less common as an initial finding compared to lid retraction.
A 60-year-old male came into the clinic because he cannot see the side mirror properly whenever he drives. One of his siblings is experiencing the same symptoms. The appropriate diagnostic work-ups/examinations for this condition is/are:
Choices:
a) Perimetry
b) Tonometry
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
Rationale:
Perimetry (visual field testing) and tonometry (measuring intraocular pressure) are both important in diagnosing conditions like glaucoma, which can cause peripheral vision loss.
The most common cause of chronic proptosis in an adult is:
Choices:
a) Orbital pseudotumor
b) Orbital varix
c) Thyroid-associated orbitopathy
d) Orbital tumor
c) Thyroid-associated orbitopathy
Rationale:
Thyroid-associated orbitopathy, also known as Graves’ orbitopathy, is the most common cause of chronic proptosis in adults due to inflammation and tissue expansion within the orbit.
Pharyngoconjunctival fever (PCF) is an acute and highly infectious illness characterized by fever, pharyngitis, acute follicular conjunctivitis, and enlarged preauricular adenopathy. This is most frequently associated with:
Choices:
a) Adenovirus types 3 and 7
b) Adenovirus types 1 and 21
c) Enterovirus 70
d) Coxsackie A24
a) Adenovirus types 3 and 7
Rationale:
Pharyngoconjunctival fever is most frequently associated with adenovirus types 3 and 7, which cause the characteristic symptoms of this condition.
A 45-year-old farmer presents with a wing-like structure found at the nasal side of the cornea at the palpebral fissure. What is your diagnosis?
Choices:
a) Pterygium
b) Episcleritis
c) Pinguecula
d) None of the above
a) Pterygium
Rationale:
A pterygium is a wing-like fibrovascular growth on the conjunctiva that extends onto the cornea, typically found on the nasal side.
The pupil in an eye with iridocyclitis typically is somewhat bigger than the other eye due to reflex spasm of the iris sphincter muscle.
Choices:
a) True
b) False
b) False
Rationale:
The pupil in an eye with iridocyclitis is typically smaller due to reflex spasm of the iris sphincter muscle, not bigger.
Which of the following statements is true?
Choices:
a) All of the above
b) Episcleritis blanches with 10% Phenylephrine drops
c) Episcleritis is an inflammation of the superficial episcleral layer of the eye
d) Episcleritis is relatively common, benign, and self-limiting
a) All of the above
Rationale:
Episcleritis is an inflammation of the superficial episcleral layer, is relatively common, benign, self-limiting, and blanches with 10% Phenylephrine drops.
Optic neuritis is commonly associated with what medical condition?
Choices:
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Takayasu’s arteritis
d) None of the above
b) Multiple sclerosis
Rationale:
Optic neuritis is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis, an autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system.
A 75-year-old male came in due to a “salmon patch” appearance in the bulbar conjunctiva for almost 2 years. Your most likely diagnosis will be:
Choices:
a) Conjunctival squamous papilloma
b) Chalazion
c) Conjunctival lymphoma
d) None of the above
c) Conjunctival lymphoma
Rationale:
A “salmon patch” appearance in the bulbar conjunctiva is characteristic of conjunctival lymphoma.
A technique used to differentiate angle-closure glaucoma from open-angle glaucoma by viewing the anatomical angle formed between the eye’s cornea and iris is:
Choices:
a) Perimetry
b) Gonioscopy
c) Fluometry
d) Tonometry
b) Gonioscopy
Rationale:
Gonioscopy is a technique used to view the anatomical angle formed between the eye’s cornea and iris, helping differentiate angle-closure glaucoma from open-angle glaucoma.
Causes of acute visual loss, EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Vitreous hemorrhage
b) Central retinal artery occlusion
c) Retinitis pigmentosa
d) Migraine
c) Retinitis pigmentosa
Rationale:
Retinitis pigmentosa is a chronic, progressive condition leading to visual loss over time, not typically associated with acute visual loss.
A degenerative lesion of the bulbar conjunctiva that occurs adjacent to the limbus in the interpalpebral zone, most often nasally, is:
Choices:
a) Conjunctival granuloma
b) Chalazion
c) Phlyctenulosis
d) Pinguecula
d) Pinguecula
Rationale:
A pinguecula is a degenerative lesion of the bulbar conjunctiva that occurs adjacent to the limbus, most often nasally, in the interpalpebral zone.
Acute painful vision loss could be due to the following, EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Angle closure glaucoma
b) Corneal disease
c) Diabetic retinopathy
d) Anterior uveitis
c) Diabetic retinopathy
Rationale:
Diabetic retinopathy typically causes painless vision loss, not acute painful vision loss.
Vision Loss Associated with Pain
- Corneal Disease• Conditions: Corneal abrasions, corneal edema, contact lens overwear.
• Symptoms: Acute vision loss due to compromised cornea.
• Diagnosis: Fluorescein staining, slit lamp examination. - Acute Glaucoma• Cause: Sudden rise in intraocular pressure.
• Symptoms: Vision loss due to corneal edema; referred pain in the forehead or brow.
• Diagnosis: Slit lamp examination, tonometry. - Anterior Segmental Inflammation• Condition: Iritis/iridocyclitis.
• Symptoms: Pain, especially with iris movement; patients avoid light due to discomfort.
• Diagnosis: Slit lamp examination.
Patient is a 75-year-old female with uncontrolled diabetes for 3 years who came to the clinic complaining of this pattern of vision loss. What will be your working impression?
Choices:
a) Glaucoma
b) Cataract
c) Maculopathy
d) None of the above
c) Maculopathy
Rationale:
Uncontrolled diabetes can lead to diabetic maculopathy, a condition affecting the macula and causing central vision loss.
Indication for surgery in this eye condition includes:
Choices:
a) Induced astigmatism of more than -2.50 D Cylinder
b) Excessive tearing
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
Rationale:
Indications for surgical excision of a pterygium include significant astigmatism (more than -2.50 D Cylinder) and bothersome epiphora (excessive tearing). The provided image and information confirm these indications.
The majority of the aqueous humor flows out of the angle of the anterior chamber through which channel?
Choices:
a) Trabecular meshwork
b) Uveoscleral outflow
c) Both
d) Neither
a) Trabecular meshwork
Rationale:
The majority of the aqueous humor flows out through the trabecular meshwork, which is located at the angle of the anterior chamber.
Treatment for allergic conjunctivitis:
Choices:
a) Cetirizine 10 mg tablet
b) Olopatadine eyedrops
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
True of Giant Cell Arteritis:
Choices:
a) Symptoms include headache and pain over the temples
b) Treatment is typically with high doses of steroids
c) Both
d) None of the above
c) Both
Rationale:
Giant cell arteritis typically presents with symptoms like headache and pain over the temples, and treatment often involves high doses of steroids.
The classical triad of symptoms of vision loss, periocular pain, and dyschromatopsia is typically seen in:
Choices:
a) Retrobulbar neuritis
b) Optic neuritis
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
Rationale:
The classical triad of symptoms—vision loss, periocular pain, and dyschromatopsia—is typically seen in both retrobulbar neuritis and optic neuritis. Both conditions involve inflammation of the optic nerve and can present with these symptoms. The provided information confirms that these symptoms are associated with optic nerve diseases, including retrobulbar optic neuritis and optic neuritis.
True of Giant Cell Arteritis EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) It typically occurs in those over the age of 50
b) Mainstay of management is corticosteroid
c) It is a vasculitis involving medium-sized vessels
d) Headache is the most common symptom
e) None of the above
c) It is a vasculitis involving medium-sized vessels
Rationale:
Giant cell arteritis is a vasculitis involving large and medium-sized vessels, not exclusively medium-sized vessels.
Ankyloblepharon is an adhesion between:
Choices:
a) Upper eyelid and lower eyelid
b) Iris and lens
c) Bulbar conjunctiva and palpebral conjunctiva
d) None of the above
a) Upper eyelid and lower eyelid
Rationale:
Ankyloblepharon is defined as an adhesion between the upper and lower eyelids. This condition often results from chronic inflammation and scarring, as seen in diseases like cicatricial pemphigoid. The provided information confirms this definition.
Cicatricial pemphigoid is a chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by subepithelial blistering that leads to scarring. It primarily affects mucous membranes, including the conjunctiva of the eyes, which can result in blindness if untreated.
Ankyloblepharon is a condition where the eyelids are partially or completely fused together. This can be congenital or acquired due to trauma or inflammation.
Symblepharon is the adhesion of the eyelid to the eyeball, usually due to inflammation or injury. This can limit eye movement and cause discomfort or vision problems.
Drusen is a characteristic finding of:
Choices:
a) Diabetic retinopathy
b) Hypertensive retinopathy
c) Glaucoma
d) Age-related macular degeneration
d) Age-related macular degeneration
Rationale:
Drusen are yellow deposits under the retina and are characteristic findings in age-related macular degeneration.
Painless acute vision loss without clear media can be caused by:
Choices:
a) Macular disease
b) Vitreous hemorrhage
c) Both
d) Neither
b) Vitreous hemorrhage
Explanation:
Painless acute vision loss without clear media is typically due to conditions where the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) is not transparent, obstructing the view to the retina. Vitreous hemorrhage is a condition where blood accumulates in the vitreous humor, which leads to such vision loss without a clear media.
Macular disease, on the other hand, usually involves clear media but results in central vision loss due to retinal issues, not because the media itself is unclear. Therefore, the correct answer is b) Vitreous hemorrhage.
What is not a typical exam finding in conjunctivitis?
Choices:
a) Red conjunctiva
b) Subepithelial corneal infiltrate
c) Anterior chamber cell and flare
d) Eyelid erythema
c) Anterior chamber cell and flare
Rationale:
Anterior chamber cell and flare are typical findings in uveitis, not conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis usually presents with red conjunctiva, possible subepithelial corneal infiltrates, and eyelid erythema.
All of the statements are true regarding the aqueous humor outflow EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Uveoscleral outflow constitutes the majority of the mechanism of how the aqueous humor exits the eye
b) Trabecular outflow constitutes the minority of the mechanism of how the aqueous humor exits the eye
c) Both
d) Neither
C. Neither
Rationale: The majority of aqueous humor outflow in the eye occurs through the trabecular meshwork pathway, not the uveoscleral pathway. The trabecular outflow accounts for around 85-90% of aqueous humor drainage, while the uveoscleral pathway constitutes the minority (approximately 10-15%) of outflow. Therefore, both statements A and D are incorrect.
It is when an eyelid turns in toward the eye with the lashes contacting the globe surface.
Choices:
a) Entropion
b) Ectropion
c) Ptosis
d) Lagophthalmos
a) Entropion
Rationale:
Entropion is the condition where the eyelid turns inward toward the eye, causing the lashes to contact the globe surface.
Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:
Choices:
a) Dry eye syndrome
b) Glaucoma
c) Uveitis
d) Corneal abrasion
a) Dry eye syndrome
Rationale:
Schirmer’s test measures tear production and is used to diagnose dry eye syndrome.
The diagnostic gold standard for Giant cell arteritis is:
Choices:
a) Temporal artery biopsy
b) Lumbar tap
c) MRI
d) None of the above
a) Temporal artery biopsy
Rationale:
The diagnostic gold standard for Giant cell arteritis is a temporal artery biopsy.
The presence of symblepharon can be seen in:
Choices:
a) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
b) Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
Rationale:
Symblepharon, or adhesions between the conjunctiva of the eyelid and the eyeball, can be seen in both Stevens-Johnson syndrome and ocular cicatricial pemphigoid.
Monocular loss of vision developing over hours to days with no abnormalities seen in ophthalmic examination, associated with pain on movement of eyes, is typically seen in:
Choices:
a) Optic neuritis
b) Retrobulbar neuritis
c) Papilledema
d) None of the above
b) Retrobulbar neuritis
Rationale:
Retrobulbar neuritis is characterized by monocular loss of vision developing over hours to days, with no abnormalities seen in the ophthalmic examination, and associated with pain on eye movement.
A scanty, white, stringy discharge can be seen in:
Choices:
a) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) / Dry eye syndrome
b) Allergic conjunctivitis
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
Explanation:
- Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) / Dry eye syndrome can present with a scanty, white, stringy discharge due to the chronic dryness and irritation of the eyes.
- Allergic conjunctivitis also often presents with a stringy, white discharge due to the allergic reaction and inflammation of the conjunctiva.
Therefore, the correct answer is c) Both.
The treatment for a branch-like lesion (dendritiform) in the cornea is:
Choices:
a) Ganciclovir
b) Nystatin
c) Albendazole
d) Polymyxin
a) Ganciclovir
Rationale:
A branch-like (dendritiform) lesion in the cornea is typically caused by herpes simplex virus, and the treatment is antiviral therapy with ganciclovir.
All of the following can be signs of red eye except:
Choices:
a) Reduced visual acuity
b) Halos of light
c) Conjunctival hyperemia
d) Ciliary flush
b) Halos of light
Rationale:
Halos of light are typically associated with corneal edema or acute angle-closure glaucoma, not a red eye. Reduced visual acuity, conjunctival hyperemia, and ciliary flush are signs of red eye.
Ciliary flush is manifested in which photo?
Choices:
a) Option 1
b) Option 2
a) Option 1
Rationale:
Ciliary flush is characterized by a ring of redness around the cornea, typically more intense near the limbus. The image in Option 1 shows this characteristic redness around the corneal margin, indicative of ciliary flush.
A scanty, white stringy discharge could be secondary to:
Choices:
a) Allergic conjunctivitis
b) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
The following are some of the causes of an acute painful red eye EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Scleritis
b) Iritis
c) Subconjunctival hemorrhage
d) None of the above
c) Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Rationale:
Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically presents as a painless red eye, whereas scleritis and iritis are associated with acute painful red eye.
Ankyloblepharon refers to the adhesion of the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva. TRUE or FALSE?
Choices:
a) True
b) False
b) False
Rationale:
Ankyloblepharon refers to the adhesion between the upper and lower eyelids, not the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva.
Cycloplegic drugs are given to uveitis patients to avoid the adhesion of iris structures and lens capsule. This is referred to as:
Choices:
a) Posterior synechia
b) Peripheral anterior synechia
c) Iris bombe
d) None of the above
a) Posterior synechia
Rationale:
Cycloplegic drugs are given to prevent posterior synechia, which is the adhesion of the iris to the lens capsule in uveitis patients.
Which of the following terms refers to the presence of red blood cells in the anterior chamber?
A. Hypopyon
B. Keratitis
C. Hyphema
D. Synechia
c) Hyphema
Rationale:
The presence of red blood cells in the anterior chamber is referred to as hyphema.
Foreign body sensation can be produced by all of the following EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Trichiasis
b) Viral conjunctivitis
c) Contact lens wear
d) None of the above
d) None of the above
Rationale:
Foreign body sensation can be produced by trichiasis, viral conjunctivitis, and contact lens wear, so there is no exception among the choices.
Disc swelling, venous engorgement, cotton wool spots, and diffuse retinal hemorrhages are characteristic findings in:
Choices:
a) Central retinal artery occlusion
b) Papilledema
c) Central retinal vein occlusion
d) None of the above
c) Central retinal vein occlusion
Rationale:
Disc swelling, venous engorgement, cotton wool spots, and diffuse retinal hemorrhages are characteristic findings in central retinal vein occlusion.
Cherry-red spot is seen in:
Choices:
a) Central retinal artery occlusion
b) Central retinal vein occlusion
c) Papilledema
d) None of the above
a) Central retinal artery occlusion
Rationale:
A cherry-red spot is seen in central retinal artery occlusion.
Prolonged use of topical corticosteroids can cause:
Choices:
a) Corneal damage
b) Cataract
c) Both
c) Both
Rationale:
Prolonged use of topical corticosteroids can cause both corneal damage and cataract formation.
Management of central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) includes the following, EXCEPT:
Choices:
a) Ocular massage
b) Intravenous acetazolamide
c) Both
d) Neither
b) Intravenous acetazolamide
Rationale:
While ocular massage, medications to lower intraocular pressure, vasodilators, and paracentesis of the anterior chamber are mentioned as part of the management for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), intravenous acetazolamide is not typically included in the standard management protocol. Acetazolamide is usually administered orally for lowering intraocular pressure.
Functional disorder is defined as loss of vision with organic basis. TRUE or FALSE?
Choices:
a) True
b) False
b) False
Rationale:
A functional disorder is defined as a loss of vision without an organic basis. An organic disorder has a physical basis, which contradicts the definition of a functional disorder.
The color of the fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:
Choices:
a) Magenta
b) Purple
c) Green
d) Yellow
c) Green
Rationale:
Fluorescein staining in corneal ulcers appears green under cobalt blue light.
The relative normal intraocular pressure (mmHg) is:
Choices:
a) 22-30
b) 10-21
c) 5-11
d) None of the above
b) 10-21
Rationale:
The normal intraocular pressure (IOP) range is typically 10-21 mmHg.
A 72-year-old male farmer who has been experiencing chronic eye redness for 2 years. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Choices:
a) Pinguecula
b) Conjunctival lymphoma
c) Pterygium
d) Conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma
d) Conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma
Rationale:
The image and patient history of chronic eye redness in a 72-year-old male farmer suggest a more serious condition than benign growths like pinguecula or pterygium. Conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma can present with persistent redness, irritation, and sometimes a visible lesion, fitting the clinical presentation shown in the image.
By referring to the photo shown, which of the following is NOT true of papilledema?
Choices:
a) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
b) Elevated disc
c) Normal retinal veins
d) Microvascular congestion on the disc
c) Normal retinal disc
Rationale:
In papilledema, the optic disc is elevated and its margins are indistinct, there is microvascular congestion, and flame-shaped hemorrhages can be present. A normal retinal disc is not a characteristic finding of papilledema.
Feathery edges (satellite lesions) of corneal infiltrate is normally seen in:
Choices:
a) Fungal keratitis
b) Acanthamoeba keratitis
c) Herpes simplex keratitis
d) None of the above
a) Fungal keratitis
Rationale:
- Fungal keratitis: This condition is known for its characteristic feathery edges and satellite lesions in the corneal infiltrate. The branching, feathery appearance of the infiltrate is due to the fungal hyphae invading the corneal tissue.
- Acanthamoeba keratitis: This type of keratitis is usually associated with ring-shaped stromal infiltrates and severe pain. It is often related to contact lens use and can have a prolonged course with various clinical presentations, but feathery edges are not typical.
- Herpes simplex keratitis: This type of keratitis typically presents with dendritic or geographic ulcers on the cornea, which are distinct from the feathery edges seen in fungal keratitis. The ulcers caused by herpes simplex virus have a branching, linear appearance with terminal bulbs, not the feathery pattern.
- None of the above: This option is incorrect because feathery edges are specifically indicative of fungal keratitis, not seen in other types of keratitis listed.
An elevation in the intraocular pressure is not necessarily present in the diagnosis of glaucoma. TRUE or FALSE?
Choices:
a) True
b) False
a) True
Rationale:
Glaucoma can be diagnosed based on optic nerve damage and visual field loss, even if intraocular pressure is within the normal range (normal-tension glaucoma).
A patient manifesting with eye redness and a moderate amount of eye pain with a history of granulomatosis with polyangiitis can be associated with which clinical picture?
a) Option 2
Rationale:
The provided image shows a severe redness and violaceous hue typical of scleritis, which is associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). Scleritis involves deeper scleral tissues and is often painful, which matches the clinical presentation. Option 1 depicts these characteristics clearly, while Option 2 is more consistent with episcleritis, which involves superficial inflammation and is less severe.
Trantas dots can be seen in Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis. These characteristic cells are composed of:
Choices:
a) Neutrophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Macrophages
d) Lymphocytes
b) Eosinophils
Rationale:
Trantas dots in Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis are composed of eosinophils.
Cycloplegic drugs are given to uveitis patients to avoid the adhesion of iris structures and lens capsule. This is referred to as:
Choices:
a) Posterior synechia
b) Peripheral anterior synechia
c) Iris bombe
d) None of the above
a) Posterior synechia
Rationale:
Cycloplegic drugs are given to prevent posterior synechia, which is the adhesion of the iris to the lens capsule in uveitis patients.
Symptom of retinal detachment:
Choices:
a) Curtaining of vision
b) Tunneling of vision
c) Wavy vision
d) None of the above
a) Curtaining of vision
Rationale:
• Curtaining of vision (choice a) is a classic symptom of retinal detachment. Patients often describe it as a shadow or curtain coming down over their field of vision, typically starting from the periphery and moving inward. • Tunneling of vision (choice b) is more characteristic of advanced glaucoma, where peripheral vision is lost, leading to a “tunnel vision” effect. • Wavy vision (choice c), also known as metamorphopsia, is more commonly associated with macular diseases like macular degeneration.
True or false: This diagnostic modality is typically used to diagnose both glaucoma and retinopathy.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Rationale:
The diagnostic modality used to diagnose glaucoma (tonometry, gonioscopy) is different from those typically used to diagnose retinopathy (fundoscopy, OCT).
