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Assistive Technologies > LE Orthosis > Flashcards

LE Orthosis Flashcards

1
Q

Principles of LE orthosis

A

Used only as indicated and as long as necessary
Allow joint movement
Must be functional

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2
Q

Where should an orthotic ankle joint be centered?

A

Tip of the medial mallelous

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3
Q

Where should an orthotic knee joint be centered

A

over the prominence of the medial femoral condyle

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4
Q

Positioning of an orthotic hip joint

A

Allows patient to sit upright @ 90 degrees

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5
Q

Foundation for most LE orthoses

A

Shoes

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6
Q

function of shoes

A

transfer weight to the ground
protection from terrain and weather

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7
Q

shoes have the greatest WB on what parts of the foot?

A

slightly lateral to the ball of the foot
posterolateral edge of the heel

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8
Q

parts of a shoe

A

upper
sole
heel

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9
Q

upper is divided into three parts which are:

A

vamp
quarter
tongue

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10
Q

anterior aspect of the upper part of a shoe

A

vamp

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11
Q

posterior aspect of the upper part of the shoe

A

quarter

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12
Q

open lace

A

blucher

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13
Q

closed lace

A

balmoral

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14
Q

recommended for individuals c limited manual dexterity

A

strap

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15
Q

recommended for a more precise adjustment

A

lace

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16
Q

distinguished by a separation between the anterior margins of the lace

A

blucher

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17
Q

lace stay is continuous with the vamp

A

balmoral

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18
Q

important feature of a blucher

A

permits substantial adjustability

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19
Q

in what conditions are blucher laces recommended

A

for edematous pts c paralyzed toes

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20
Q

advantages of blucher lace

A

ease of donning
greater foot entry space and adjustability

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21
Q

where are low quarter shoes terminated at

A

below the malleoli

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22
Q

advantages of low quarter shoes

A

does not restrict foot or ankle motion

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23
Q

advantages of high quarter shoes

A

covers both malleolus
provides foot stability
can accommodate pes equinus

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24
Q

advantages of a broad and low heel

A

provides the greatest stability
distributes the weight between the back and the front of the foot

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25
Q

indications of high heels

A

heel pain
achilles tendinitis
rigid pes equinus

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26
Q

disadvantages of high heels

A

puts stress on metatarsals and knees

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27
Q

what does high heels promote?

A

knee flexion and hip flexion

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28
Q

height of heel that aids transition through the stance phase

A

1 in (2.54 cm)

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29
Q

what does a higher heel do?

A

places ankle in greater plantarflexion and forces the tibia forward

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30
Q

protects the toes from stubbing and
vertical trauma

A

Toe boxing

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31
Q

condition for using toe boxing

A

should be high enough to
accommodate hammer toes or similar deformity

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32
Q

longitudinal plate that reinforces the sole
between the anterior border of the heel and the
widest part of the sole at the metatarsal heads

A

Shank

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33
Q

stiffens the quarter and generally
terminates at the anterior border of the heel

A

Counter

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34
Q

anterior border of the heel

A

breast

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35
Q

posterior border of the heel

A

pitch

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36
Q

widest area of the foot

A

ball

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37
Q

how much should be the allowance from the longest toe for a shoe to be well-fitted?

A

1/2 inch

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38
Q

requirements of a well-fitted shoe

A

1/2 inch allowance from the longest toe
Widest part of the shoe corresponds c the broadest part of the foot
Snug from heel to ball of the foot
Quarters don’t gap excessively

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39
Q

Reduce load on painful heel

A

Heel-spur insert orthosis

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40
Q

feature of a heel-spur insert orthosis

A

has a concave relief to minimize pressure on the tender area

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41
Q

prevent depression of the subtalar joint and flattening of the arch

A

Longitudinal arch support

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42
Q

what is flattening of the arch called?

A

pes planus

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43
Q

provides minimum support to the medial longitudinal arch

A

Scaphoid pad

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44
Q

where is the scaphoid pad positioned?

A

medial border of the insole with the apex between the sustentaculum tali and the navicular tuberosity

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45
Q

used to relieve pain and activity limitation associated c pes cavus

A

insert orthoses

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46
Q

Transfers weight from metatarsal head to
the metatarsal shaft

A

Metatarsal pad

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47
Q

Indications for using metatarsal pad

A

reduce plantar
pressure; particularly in pts c
diabetic neuropathy

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48
Q

where are metatarsal pads placed?

A

apex should be under the metatarsal shafts

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49
Q

Alters alignment of the rearfoot

A

Heel wedge/post

50
Q

What are the two types of wedges?

A

medial and lateral

51
Q

medial heel wedge corrects…

A

pronation
eversion
pes varus
pes planus
flat foot

52
Q

lateral heel wedge corrects…

A

supination
inversion
pes varus
pes cavus
clubfoot

53
Q

Anterior border of medial side is extended
forward

A

Thomas heel

54
Q

Indication for using thomas heel

A

Pes valgus

55
Q

Transfers stress from MTP joints to MTP shafts

A

Metatarsal bar

56
Q

How is the metatarsal bar positioned?

A

posterior to the MTP heads

57
Q

Indication of using MTP bar

A

metatarsalgia

58
Q

Reduces the distance the wearer must travel during the stance phase

A

Rocker bar/bottom

59
Q

What does the rocker bar do?

A

Shifts load from MTP joints to MTP shafts and improves late stance phase

60
Q

Indication for using rocker bar/bottom

A

Pts c difficulty in push-off

61
Q

Raises one foot in order to shift balance

A

Shoe lifts

62
Q

Indication for using shoe lifts

A

LLD

63
Q

Components of an AFO

A

foundation
ankle control
foot control
superstructure

64
Q

provides good control of the foot and is removable and lightweight

A

insert foundation

65
Q

a u-shaped traditional foundation for AFO

A

stirrup foundation

66
Q

a type of stirrup that provides maximum stability of the orthosis on the shoe

A

solid stirrup

67
Q

three segments of a split stirrup

A

central portion
medial angled side piece
lateral angled side piece

68
Q

advantages of a split stirrup

A

simplifies donning as the wearer can detach uprights from the shoe

69
Q

a dorsiflexion assist

A

posterior leaf spring

70
Q

indication for using a posterior leaf spring

A

weak dorsiflexion, foot drop

71
Q

when is posterior leaf spring not indicated?

A

when a pt has medio-lateral ankle instability

72
Q

bulkier than the posterior leaf spring

A

Klenzak joint/Dorsiflexion spring assist

73
Q

mechanism of a Klenzak joint

A

coiled spring compresses in stance and
rebounds during swing.

74
Q

advantage of a Klenzak joint

A

the tightness of the coil can be adjusted

75
Q

prevents toe dragging and controls knee buckling

A

Plantarflexion Resistance/Posterior Stop

76
Q

indications for using for a Posterior Stop

A

weak dorsiflexors

77
Q

what does a Posterior Stop promote?

A

dorsiflexion due to weak pre tibials

78
Q

the triceps surae is made up of

A

Gastrocnemius (medial and lateral)
Soleus

79
Q

Indication for using Dorsiflexion resistance/Anterior stop

A

pts c paralysis of the triceps surae

80
Q

what does an Anterior Stop do?

A

controls genu recurvatum and buckling
promotes plantarflexion and knee extension

81
Q

function of a posterior pin

A

limits plantarflexion

82
Q

function of a posterior spring

A

assists dorsiflexion

83
Q

function of an anterior pin

A

limits dorsiflexion

84
Q

function of an anterior spring

A

assists plantarflexion

85
Q

indication for using a posterior pin

A

plantar spasticity, toe dragging, pain c ankle motion

86
Q

indication for using a posterior spring

A

flaccid PF, knee hyperextension

87
Q

indications for using an anterior pin

A

weak PF, weak knee extensors, pain c ankle motion

88
Q

Limits all foot and ankle motions

A

Plastic Solid AFO

89
Q

Indications for using Plastic Solid AFO

A

hemiplegia
spastic diplegia

90
Q

resists/assists both PF and DF

A

Bi-channel adjustable ankle locks

91
Q

medial T-strap

A

valgus correction strap

92
Q

posting for medial T-strap

A

lateral

93
Q

lateral T-strap

A

varus correction strap

94
Q

posting for lateral T-strap

A

medial

95
Q

Able to offset/unload weight from knee area

A

Superstructure

96
Q

components of a superstructure

A

two uprights
shell
band/brim

97
Q

Reduce amount of weight transmitted through
the foot

A

Patellar tendon bearing-brim

98
Q

Indication for patellar tendon bearing-brim

A

post-op pain

99
Q

Imposes posteriorly directed force providing
extension moment in the stance without
preventing flexion during swing

A

Floor reaction orthosis

100
Q

what does floor reaction orthosis promote?

A

places foot in slight PF

101
Q

controls motion in all planes

A

spiral AFO

102
Q

disadvantages of spiral AFO

A

cannot accommodate fluctuating leg volume

103
Q

components of an orthosis with knee flexion instability

A

solid heel
AFO in fixed DF
Anterior trim line on AFO

104
Q

components of an orthosis with knee extension stability

A

cushioned heel
AFO in fixed PF
posterior trim line
Posterior offset knee jt

105
Q

Components of KAFO

A

Knee control
Knee cap
Genu Valgum/Varus correction
Superstructure

106
Q

Stabilizes the knee in extension during the
early stance phase of gait.

A

Offset knee jt

107
Q

How is a offset knee jt positioned?

A

posterior to the midline of the leg

108
Q

contraindication for using an offset knee jt

A

knee flexion contracture

109
Q

most common knee control and is manually and gravity manipulated

A

Drop ring lock

110
Q

Drop ring lock knee control is challenging for pts who have

A

Limited hand function

111
Q

What should be done to provide maximum stability when using drop ring lock?

A

lock medial and lateral joints

112
Q

contraindication for using drop ring lock

A

knee flexion contracture

113
Q

Provides simultaneous locking of both
uprights

A

Pawl lock c bail release

114
Q

Pawl lock c bail release is used for pts who have

A

dexterity problems

115
Q

how is the pawlock unlocked?

A

pulling up of bails

116
Q

disadvantages of using pawlock

A

increases energy expenditure

117
Q

Allows joint locking at different angles of knee
flexion

A

Serrated knee lock

118
Q

Indication of serrated knee lock

A

Pts c knee extension contracture

119
Q

Provides sagittal knee stability

A

knee cap

120
Q

disadvantages of knee cap

A

may restrict sitting

121
Q
A

Assistive Technologies (8 decks)

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