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AAAAA STEP 2 > LAST REVIEWS! > Flashcards

LAST REVIEWS! Flashcards

1
Q

How can you tell the difference between HOCM murmur and Aortic Stenosis Murmur

A

HOCM gets louder with valsalva, decreases preload, therefore increased left ventricular outflow obstruction

AS gets softer with valsalva decreased preload, less blood to go through stenosis.

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2
Q

What is the treatment for acute decompensated CHF presenting with pulmonary edema?

A 
NOLIP
Nitrates
Oxygen
Loop diuretics
Ionotropic Drugs
Positioning

**on test – loop diuretics!

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3
Q

What specific beta blockers reduce mortality in CHF patients?

A

Bisoprolol
Carvedilol
Extended-release metoprolol

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4
Q

Which two types of medications are most likely used to treat Prinzmetal angina?

A

CCB

Nitrates

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5
Q

What happens to HR in neurogenic shock?

A

Decreased

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6
Q

What are the two most common sites to place a pulmonary artery catheter?

A

Right IJ

Left Subclavian

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7
Q

How many criteria do you need for diagnosis of rheumatic fever? What are the criteria?

A

2 major or 1 major and 2 minors.

Major = Jones
Minor = Peace
Previous rheumatic fever
ECG with PR prolongation
Arthralgias
CRP and ESR elevation
Elevated Temperature
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8
Q

What 4 conditions need endocarditis prophylaxis prior to surgery/dental procedure?

A

Prosthetic cardiac valve
Previous infective endocarditis
Congenital heart disease
Cardiac transplantation with cardiac valvulopathy

Meds: amoxicillin – 2 g given 30-60 minutes prior to procedure

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9
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of endocarditis?

A

2 major, 1 major 3 minor, 5 minor

Major = BE
Minor = FIVE PM
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10
Q

U waves are indicative of what abnormalities?

A

Hypokalemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperthyroid

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11
Q

Top 5 treatments for PSVT?

A
  1. carotid massage
  2. Valsalva maneuver
  3. IV adenosine
  4. CCB
  5. BB
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12
Q

MAT treatment

A

CCB
BB blockers
Correct electrolyte abnormalities

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13
Q

AF Management:

A

Evaluate for thrombus with TEE
Anticoagulate
Rhythm control w/ sotalol / amiodarone
Rate control w/ BB

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14
Q

A FLUTTER management:

A

Rate control/rhythm control

Cardioversion if hemodynamically unstable

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15
Q

V TACH treatment:

A

Electrocardioversion if hemodynamically unstable

Antiarrhythmic medication of hemodynamically stable

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16
Q

V FIB TX

A

CPR, immediate electrical cardioversion

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17
Q

What should be the goal BP initially when treating hypertensive urgency?

A

BP to 160/100

Reduce MAP no more than 25% in first 2-3 hours

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18
Q

What is cilostazol used for?

A

Improves blood flow to LE and decreases claudication.

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19
Q

What is the treatment for Henoch-Schonlein Purpura?

A

Supportive Care

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20
Q

What is tx for hiatal hernia?

A

PPI/ Dietary Modification

Nissen Fundoplication if refractory to tx

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21
Q

What type of gastric cancer involves all layers of the stomach?

A

Linitis Plastica

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22
Q

All patients who present with likely acute upper GI hemmorhage need what diagnostic study?

A

EGD esophagogastroduodenoscopy

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23
Q

Tropical Sprue or Celiac disease?

  1. Megaloblastic anemia
  2. Iron deficiency
A
  1. TS

2. CD

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24
Q

TX for Tropical Sprue?

A

Tetracycline
Folic acid
possibly B12

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25
Q

Stool osmotic gap calculation and results meaning:

A

Stool osmotic gap = 290 - 2(Na +K in stool)

> 125 = osmotic diarrhea

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26
Q

Where is the most common site for a carcinoid tumor?

A

Ileum

27
Q

What is the best radiological test for Acute cholangitis?

A

ERCP (on gallbladder issue where US is not best diagnostic radiological test)

28
Q

What viral infection is likely to more likely to cause fulminant hepatic failure in pregnant women?

A

Hepatitis E

29
Q

in Hepatitis B, what is indicated when HEP B DNA level is high?

A

Active viral replication, treatment is indicated when high.

30
Q

What medication is used to kill enteric bacteria that generate ammonia in patients with cirrhosis?

A

Rifaximin

31
Q

What is the treatment for SBP?

A

Cefotaxime or other third generation cephalosporin for at least 5 days.

32
Q

Which vasopressor:

  1. Theoretically causes renal vasodilation
  2. High doses optimize the a1 vasoconstriction?
A
  1. Dopamine

2. Epinephrine/ Dopamine

33
Q

How many symptoms do you need to diagnose SLE?

A

4 out of 11

34
Q

What antibodies are Diffuse Scleroderma associated with?

What about Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

Anti-DNA topoisomerase 1 antibodies (Anti-SCL 70)

Anti-centromere antibodies

35
Q

What antibodies are associated with Mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti-U1-RNP antibodies

36
Q

When is the ulnar claw apparent?

A

When asked to extend fingers, inability to extend 3rd and 4th digit

37
Q

When is the hand of benediction apparent?

A

When median nerve injury farther up the arm, apparent when asked to flex the fingers

38
Q

What is a more common injury at the knee?

A

ACL tear with a lateral meniscus injury

39
Q

What is the cause of back pain that is accompanied by abnormal gait where knees are flexed and hips remain flexed?

A

Spondylolisthesis

40
Q

What is the treatment of Warm agglutinin hemolytic anemia?

A

Glucocorticoids
Rituximab
Splenectomy

41
Q

What is the treatment for Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

Folic acid 1 mg daily
RBC transfusions in cases of extreme anemia
Splenectomy for moderate/severe disease.

42
Q

What test do you use to monitor for Heparin?

A

PTT

43
Q

What test is used to monitor LMWH?

A

Antifactor XA activity, but normally this is not monitored

44
Q

What is the abx tx for patients with meningitis > 1 month old?

A

Ceftriaxone and Vancomycin

add Ampicillin when > 50

45
Q

What is the treatment for renal amyloidosis?

A

Melphalan - suppress bone marrow, Hematopoietic cell transplant

46
Q

Which disease?

Hyaline Casts

A

Normal patients with concentrated urine

47
Q

Which disease?

RBC Casts

A

Glomerular bleeding

48
Q

Which disease?

WBC Casts

A

Tubularinterstitial disease, acute pyelonephritis

49
Q

Which disease?

Epithelial Cell casts

A

Acute Tubular necrosis

AIN

50
Q

Which disease?

Granular Casts

A

ATN

51
Q

What are 4 causes of Normal Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis?

A 
Hypoaldosternoism
Artificial feeding (TPN)
Renal Tubular Acidosis
Diarrhea
52
Q

What happens to potassium level in Fanconi Syndrome?

A

Low Potassium

53
Q

What is the mechanism cause by which HELLP results in low platelets?

A

Systemic inflammation and platelet consumption

54
Q

What happens to lung compliance in ARDS?

A

it significantly decreases

55
Q

What is the most common cause of abnormal hemostasis in patients with CRF?

A

Platelet dysfunction.

56
Q

MLD and cause of patient with painful vesicles, punched out erosions, hemorrhagic crusting along with fever and lymphadenopathy in young child on cheeks.

A

Eczema herpeticum caused by HSV

57
Q

Management of:

LSIL

A

21-24: Repeat Pap in 1 year

> 25: Colposcopy and repeat pap in 1 year

58
Q

Management of HSIL

A

21-24: Colposcopy

> 25: Colposcopy and LEEP

59
Q

Management of ASCUS

A

21-24: Repeat Pap in 1 year

> 25: Colposcopy and HPV test

60
Q

Management of ASC-H

A

21-24: Colposcopy

> 25: Colposcopy

61
Q

Management of AGC

A

21-24: Colposcopy + endocervical sampling

> 25: Colposcopy, Endocervical sampling, Endometrial biopsy > 35 years or risk factors

62
Q

MLD: 2-3 mm yellow pustule with red base arising in the first 24-72 hours, microscopic examination of the pustular contents reveals numerous eosinophils, usually gone by 3 weeks

A

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

63
Q

MLD: Spider-webbing/marbling of the skin

A

Cutis marimorata

AAAAA STEP 2 (4 decks)

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