Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

AAAAA STEP 2 > DIT > Flashcards

DIT Flashcards

1
Q

What is maintenance therapy for MS?

A 
Interferon B
Glatiramer
Natalizumab
Dimethyl Fumarate
Teriflunomide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for syringomyelia?

A

Surgical Decompression and shunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What kind of vision loss is seen in MS?

A

Central vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What pupillary defect is seen in MS?

A

Marcus Gunn pupil: no constriction of either pupil when light is shone into the affected eye. But pupils constrict when light shone in non affected eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What bug causes food poisoning resulting from reheated rice?

A

Bacillus Cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is RPR included in the dementia workup?

A

neurosyphilis can cause dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the primary step causing the symptoms in Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

A

Inflammation and fibrosis of the arachnoid granulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drugs can cause delirium?

A 
Antihistamines
Alcohol/ drugs of abuse
Anticholinergics
Benzos
Glucocorticoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What medications are used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s dementia?

A 
Cholinesterase inhibitors
Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
Memantine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MLD: Pt in a coma with large and non reactive pupils

A

Uncal herniation - CN III involvement below the midbrain, supratentorial mass effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MLD: pt in a coma with small and reactive pupils

A

Thalamic involvement, possible tentorial herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MLD: pt in coma, immobile but reactive eyes

A

Metabolic cause, benzo overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cause of syncope: Positive tilt test after taking blood pressure medication

A

Orthostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cause of syncope: prolonged loss of consciousness

A

Cerebrovascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What measurements indicate a positive tilt test (3)

A
  1. Increase in HR by >/=20 BPM
  2. Decrease in systolic >/= 20 mmHg
  3. Decrease in diastolic >/= 10 mmHg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the best empiric antibiotic treatment for infective endocarditis?

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment of narcolepsy?

A
  1. Regular sleep schedule
  2. Improve daytime sleepiness: modafinil, armodafinil, amphetamines
  3. Reduce REM: venlafaxine, fluoxetine, atomoxetine
  4. Severe symptoms: Sodium oxybate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is treatment for restless leg syndrome?

A

Pramipexole/Ropinirole first line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What neoplasms commonly metastasize to CNS?

A 
"Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia"
Lungs
Breast
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney
GI tract - esp colon cancer.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the next step once a brain tumor has been identified on CT/ MRI of head?

A

Full body scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the main symptom difference between encephalitis and meningitis?

A

Encephalitis presents with focal neurological defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What treatment should not be given to someone with presumed Guillain Barre?

A

Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the treatment for Bell’s palsy?

A

Oral Glucocorticoids
Valacyclovir for severe treatment
Eye care - to prevent corneal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for essential tremor?

A

Alcohol, Propranolol, Benzos, Primidone, thalamotomy, deep brain stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is athetosis?

A

Snake like movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the treatment for dystonia?

A

Levodopa
Carbidopa
Botulinum toxin
Diphenhydramine can be used for acute dystonic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment for hemiballismus

A

Halloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an early manifestation of cataracts?

A

Nearsightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What accumulates in the retina of dry atrophic armd?

A

Drusen – cellular debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is presentation and diagnosis of Dry ARMD?

A

Gradual loss of vision, diagnose with slit lamp exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is presentation and diagnosis of Wet ARMD?

A

Sudden loss of vision and diagnose with fluorescein angiography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is seen in funduscopic exam of Central Retinal Artery Occlusion and Central Retinal Vein Occlusion?

A

Artery: pale retina with cherry red spot
Vein: retinal edema, retinal hemorrhages, venous dilation, cotton wool spots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the treatment for dry age-related macular degeneration?

A

Supportive Care
Smoking Cessation
Antioxidant Supplements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the best initial test to assess stable angina?

A

Exercise stress test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the gold standard test to assess the degree of coronary artery occlusion?

A

Coronary angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are deposits in the periphery of the corneas due to hypercholesterolemia called?

A

Acrus senilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At what LDL level should we start high intensity statin therapy?

A

LDL > 190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who should be started and moderate intensity statins?

A

Diabetes Type 1/2 and between 40-75 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What 10 year ASCVD risk score warrants high intensity statins?

A

> 7.5% in someone between 40-75 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

According to 2013 AHA/ ACC guidelines, which patients should be on statin therapy? (4)

A
  1. Clinical ASCVD: ACS, MI, Stable/ Unstable Angina, Stroke/ TIA, PAD
  2. LDL > 190
  3. DM 1/2 between 40-75 yo
  4. 10 year ASCVD > 7.5% between 40-75%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which agents are used in pharmacological stress test for ischemic heart disease?

A

Dobutamine (classic)
Adenosine
Dypyridamole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What non MI causes can cause an increase in cardiac enzymes?

A
  1. CHF
  2. myocarditis
  3. Rapid AFIB
  4. Sepsis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What leads signify the anterior wall?

A

V2, V3, V4, V5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the three treatment for Stable Angina?

A

B-blockers
Calcium Channel Blockers
Nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

For patients with ACS, what anticoagulation should be given to those undergoing PCI? What about those not undergoing PCI?

A

PCI: unfractionated heparin

not undergoing PCI: Enoxaparin (LMWH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What should be avoided in non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?

A

Fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What should be avoided in Prinzmetal angina?

A

Non selective B-blockers and triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common cause of death in patients with an acute MI?

A

Arrhythmias - Ventricular fibrilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What cardiac auscultation findings are considered benign when there is no evidence of disease?

A
  1. Split S1
  2. Split S2 on inspiration
  3. S3 heart sound in patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How long after the onset of an MI does troponin I begin to rise, and for how long does the level remain elevated?

A

Begins to rise: after 4 hours

Stays elevated: 1 week - 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is Fick’s principle?

A

CO = (rate of O2 consumption)/ (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is normal range for LV ejection fraction?

A

55-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A patient with AIDS and signs and symptoms concerning for meningitis. What specific CSF prep should be ordered in addition to usual CSF studies?

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

Order india ink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the four most common sequelae of meningitis in children?

A
  1. Hearing loss
  2. intellectual disability
  3. Seizure D/O
  4. Spastic Paralysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the first line treatment for open angle glaucoma?

A

Prostaglandins - increase outflow of aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Staph Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What should never be prescribed to someone with corneal abrasion?

A

Topical anesthetic or topical steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the major exam finding in open-angle glaucoma?

A

Cup to disk ratio > 50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the empiric treatment for a brain abscess?

A

IV ABX - dependent on source
Steroids if mass effect
Drain by needle aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What type of diuretic is Bumetinide?

A

Loop diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of diuretic is Metolazone?

A

Thiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What type of diuretic is Torsemide?

A

Loop Diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of diuretic should be used in conjunction with loop or thiazide diuretics to retain K+?

A

K+ sparing diuretics – amiloride/ triamterene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What type of diuretic should be used to treat edema associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Loop diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the most likely cause of secondary hypertension in a pt with hyperkalemia?

A

Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What type of renal pathology has Linear pattern of IgG deposition and Anti-GBM antibodies, hematuria, hemoptysis?

A

Goodpasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What two classes of drugs dilate both veins and arteries?

A

Calcium channel blockers

Nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What cardiac abnormalities are associated with ADPKD?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which antihypertensive classes should first be considered in a patient with Heart Failure?

A

Ace Inhibitors
Beta Blockers
Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What test is used for screening diabetic patients for kidney damage?

A

Microalbumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What volume status would you expect to find in a patient with hyponatremia due to hypothyroidism?

A

Euvolemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the common causes of SIADH?

A 
NSAIDS
malignancy SCLC
HIV/AIDS
Head Trauma
Pneumonia (lung disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus? (4)

A
  1. amilioride
  2. increase fluid take
  3. Thiazides
  4. indomethacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What medications can rapidly correct hyperkalemia? (3)

A
  1. Insulin + glucose
  2. Beta agonists
  3. Calcium bicarbonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

Diarrhea
Renal Tubular Acidosis
TPN
Hypoaldosteronism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the treatment of uric acid stones?

A

Can be dissolved with medical therapy:

  1. Potassium Citrate
  2. Sodium Bicarbonate
  3. Sodium Citrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which antihypertensive class should be considered first in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy?

A

Beta blocker
Ace I
ARB
CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the underlying cause of urge urinary incontinence?

A

Uninhibited bladder contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the most common treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis? (3)

A
  1. Alpha blockers
  2. 5 alpha reductase inhibitors
  3. Antibioitics - ciprofloxacin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the GNRH analogues used for metastatic prostate cancer called?

A

Leuprolide

Goserelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is required for diagnosis of menopause?

A

Amenorrhea > 1 year in woman over 40 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

As periods become less frequent during perimenopause, what hormonal changes are occurring?

A

Increase in FSH

Estrogen fluctuates month to month.

83
Q

OCP use decreases the incidence of which types of cancer?

A

Ovarian
Colon
Endometrial

84
Q

What are the four different options for emergency contraception?

A
  1. Levonorgestril
  2. Copper IUD
  3. Ethinyl/ Levonorgestrel Combo
  4. Antiprogestins - Ulipristal/ Mifepristone
85
Q

What medications are effective in the treatment of PMS and PMDD?

A

NSAIDS
exercise/ relaxation
SSRIs
GNRH agonists

86
Q

What is the most common cause of irregular heavy uterine bleeding in a non pregnant, premenopausal woman?

A

Annovulation

87
Q

When is an endometrial biopsy a necessary part of the work up for abnormal uterine bleeding?

88
Q

In which patient populations are triptan drugs contraindicated?

A
  1. Prinzmetal angina
  2. Coronary artery disease
  3. Pregnancy
  4. Sulfa Drug allergy
89
Q

A lesion to which area of the brain is responsible for each of the following clinical scenarios?

  1. Resting Tremor
  2. Intention Tremor
A

Resting: Substantia nigra, Basal Ganglia

Intention: Cerebellar Hemisphere

90
Q

What is the treatment for a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma?

A

Dopamine agonist:
Cabergoline
Bromocriptine

91
Q

A child presents with acute-onset ear pain. Otoscopy reveals large, reddish vesicles on the tympanic membrane. What are the diagnosis, most likely causal organism and treatment?

A

Bullous Myringitis is diagnosis

Org: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Tx: Macrolide: erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin.

92
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

2 out of 3 of the following:

  1. Oligoovulation
  2. Hyperandrogenism
  3. Polycystic ovaries on US (Beads on a string)
93
Q

What is the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss? What is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss?

A

Sensorineural: Presbycusis
Conductive: Otosclerosis

94
Q

A patient is brought into the ER with headache, vomiting, neck pain, and fever. There is progressive muscle weakness. But sensation is intact. CSF analysis shows normal glucose and protein, but CSF lymphocyte count is high. What is diagnosis?

A

Poliomyelitis

95
Q

What type of tumor can be a risk factor for endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer?

A

Estrogen secreting tumor – granulosa cell tumor.

96
Q

What is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of each of the following patients?

46 year old obese woman with PCOS and infrequent but heavy periods.

A

Endometrial Biopsy

97
Q

What is the BP goal for the following:
Ischemic Stroke
Intracerebral hemorrhage
Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Which can be treated with nitroprusside?

98
Q

What is the empiric antibiotic treatment for neonatal meningitis?

A

Ampicillin

Gentamicin

99
Q

What test can be used to distinguish autoimmune hemolytic anemia from other causes of anemia?

A

Direct Coombs test.

100
Q

A patient is found to have an adnexal mass on physical examination. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?

A
  1. Transvaginal U/S

2. Test for tumor markers.

101
Q

What is the classic presentation of ovarian cancer?

A

Usually asymptomatic

  • abdominal pain, ascites, early satiety
  • virilization
  • precocious puberty, AUB
102
Q

What are the drugs notable for causing gynecomastia?

A 
Spironolactone
THC
Alcohol (chronic)
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Estrogen
Digoxin
103
Q

What sign is described by RLQ pain on passive extension of the hip?

A

Psoas sign

104
Q

What condition is suggested by following findings: elevated erythropoietin, elevated hematocrit, normal oxygen saturation?

A

Erythropoietin producing tumor (RCC)

Evaluate with CT scan

105
Q

What is Chadwick sign?

A

Dark bluish red discoloration of the vaginal mucosa in early pregnancy.

106
Q

What are the causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia?

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. Addison’s Disease
  3. Fluid Loss = third spacing, GI causes, skin fluid losses
107
Q

What teratogen is associated with nasal hypoplasia and epiphyseal stippling?

108
Q

A 40 year old G3P2 woman at 11 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Given her age, she is very concerned about the risk of Down syndrome and would like a definitive test immediately. What test should you recommend to this patient?

A

Chorionic venous Sampling.

109
Q

What condition is suggested by 2nd trimester increase in AFP? (3)

A
  1. Multiple gestation
  2. Incorrect dating
  3. Neural tube defect
110
Q

A post-op patient who has been experiencing significant pain develops hyponatremia with a normal volume status. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

SIADH due to stress

111
Q

If viral load of a pregnant HIV patient is > 1000 copies ml at time of delivery what shoudl be done?

A

Intrapartum IV zidovudine and C section.

112
Q

What are the management options for an intrauterine fetal demise?

A

Expectant
Dilation and evacuation
Medical induction: Misoprostol/ Oxytocin.

113
Q

What type of acute kidney injury should be suspected in a patient with FENa

A

Prerenal

  • Dehydration
  • Blood loss
114
Q

What are the components of a biophysical profile? (5)

A
  1. Nonstress test
  2. Amniotic Fluid
  3. Fetal breathing
  4. Fetal Movement
  5. Fetal Tone
115
Q

What is the most likely associated heart sound in acute pericarditis?

A

Friction rub

116
Q

The recipient twin in twin-twin transfusion syndrome is at risk for what complications?

A

Polyhydramnios
Polycythemia
Volume Overload
HF

117
Q

What is the most common cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

Kidney Disease

Lupus Nephritis

118
Q

What laparoscopic findings may be seen in endometriosis?

A

Chocolate cysts/ powder burn lesions

119
Q

What is the next step in the evaluation of a patient with a Pap test that shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance? (ASCUS?)

A

colposcopy

25 +,

120
Q

What are the cardinal movements of labor?

A 
Engagement
Descent
Flexion
Internal rotation
Extension
External rotation
Expulsion
121
Q

What medications are commonly used in the management of uterine tony?

A

Oxytocin
Methylergonovine
Misoprostol
Carboprost

122
Q

What is the treatment for the organism which is most commonly implicated in postpartum mastitis?

A

Dicloxicillin for Staph Aureus

123
Q

What would you expect to see on EGD and biopsy of the lower esophagus in a patient with Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Columnar cells lining distal esophagus

intestinal metaplasia

124
Q

Child development, weight expectancy changes for:
4 months
12 months
24 months

A

4 months - double
12 months - triple
24 months - quadruple

125
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for macular degeneration?

A

antioxidants

126
Q

What are the differences in the clinical features of a branchial cleft cyst and a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

Branchial: Lateral, doesn’t move w/ swallowing
Thyroglossal: Midline neck, moves w/ swallowing.

127
Q

If a female child is in the 80th percentile for height and the 25th percentile for head circumference, what chromosomal abnormality should you most likely suspect?

A

Triple X

47 XXX

128
Q

What genetic disorder: elfin facial features, cardiac defects?

129
Q

What genetic disorder: Happy mood, inappropriate laughter, ataxic gait?

130
Q

What is the most likely primary bone tumor associated with Bony Spur arising from the metaphysis of a long bone?

A

Osteochondroma

131
Q

What are the causes of physiologic jaundice? (3)

A
  1. Increased RBCs at birth and fragile fetal RBCs lead to increased heme breakdown and increased bilirubin
  2. Natural deficiency of UDP glucuronyslyltransferase, leads to decreased conjugation of bilirubin
  3. Increased enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin.
132
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment in a patient with cauda equina syndrome?

A

Surgical decompression

133
Q

What is the possible complication of not treating scaphoid fracture?

A

Nonunion and avascular necrosis

134
Q

How do you confirm the diagnosis of pertussis?

A

Clinical diagnosis, confirm w/ nasopharyngeal swab w/ PCR assay.

135
Q

What treatment is available for Lyme disease, particularly for pregnant women and children?

A

Amoxicillin

Cefuroxime

136
Q

What are some causes of desquamation of the hands and the feet?

A 
Scarlet fever
Kawasaki Disease
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Stevens Johnson
Mercury Toxicity
137
Q

What is the cause of erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

Maternal Antibodies against Fetus RH positive RBCs

138
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate? Severe cases?

A

Mild: Phototherapy
Severe: Exchange transfusion

139
Q

What medications are often used to treat spasticity in cerebral palsy?

A

Dantrolene, Botulinum toxin, Baclophen, Benzos, PT, bracing, surgery, speech therapy

140
Q

What is the next step in management of a patient who has aspirated an object that cannot be dislodged and is now having difficulty moving air and is becoming hypoxic?

A

Heimlich maneuever

Emergency trach

141
Q

What is the Parkland burn formula?

A

4 mL x kg of patient X % BSA burned

142
Q

What is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity after four hours?

A

N- acetyl cysteine

will have best results if treated within 8 hours

143
Q

What are the primary symptoms associated with MILD theophylline toxicity?

A

Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
Vomiting

144
Q

What is the antidote for aspirin?

A

Charcoal
Dialysis
Sodium Bicarbonate

145
Q

What should a patient be examined for who presents with increased troubled night vision?

146
Q

What classic toxic ingestion management options should not be chose in patients presenting with alkaline fluid ingestion?

A 
These should not be done:
Charcoal
Neutralization
NG Tube
Inducing vomiting
147
Q

What is the antidote for Arsenic?

A

Dimercaprol, Succimer, Pencillamine

148
Q

What is Cushing’s Triad?

A

Hypertension
Bradycardia
Bradypnea

149
Q

In patients with cerebral palsy, what therapies are used to alleviate contractures and improve function?

A 
PT
Bracing
Surgery
Dantrolene
Baclofen
Benzos
Botulinum Toxin
150
Q

What childhood psych d/o: 7 yo avoids going to school to stay home with parent?

A

Separation Anxiety

151
Q

What is the antidote for antimuscarinic/anticholinergic agents?

A

Physostigmine

152
Q

At what point do patients with chronic COPD qualify for home O2?

153
Q

What is the treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Pirfenidone, nintedanib, sildenafil, corticosteroids, antibiotics, lung transplant.

154
Q

What is the treatment of an MI due to cocaine overdose?

A
  1. Benzodiazapine - Lorazepam

2. CCB

155
Q

How is A-a gradient calculated?

A

ATM(713) x FIO2 (0.21) - (PaCO2/0.8 - PaO2)

156
Q

What are the findings of pulmonary edema on chest x-ray?

A

Kurly B lines
Cepahlization of blood vessels
Diffuse interstitial fluid

157
Q

Which vasodilators are used in the treatment of primary pulmonary hypertension?

A

CCB
Endothelin Receptor antagonists
Cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Prostanoids

158
Q

Who should be given PPSV23 alone?

A 
Patients 19-64 with:
Cigarette smoking
Alcoholism
Cronic heart disease
chronic lung disease
chronic liver disease
DM
159
Q

Who should be given PCV 13 and PPSV 23?

A 
Age >65
CSF leak
Asplenia
Cochlear implant
Immunocompromise: cx, HIV, renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, immunosuppressive medication, immunodeficiency or transplant
160
Q

What are the two most common causes of atypical pneumonia in young adults?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Chlamydia Trachomatis

161
Q

What type of pneumonia is associated with currant jelly sputum?

A

Klebsiella

162
Q

What is the antidote for tPA?

A

aminocaproic acid

163
Q

What induction agents are commonly used in intubation?

A

Sedatives: Etomidate, Propofol, midazolam, ketamine

Paralytics: Succinylcholine, Rocuronium

164
Q

When does the onset of gestational diabetes occur?

A

During third trimester

165
Q

What two tests can confirm diagnosis of DKA?

A
  1. Check ABG

2. Check urine/serum for ketones

166
Q

What serum electrolytes are commonly low in patients with DKA?

A 
Potassium
Phosphorus
Mg
Ca2+
Pseudohyponatremia
167
Q

At what percentage stenosis should symptomatic patients get surgery (endarderectomy)?

A

Symptomatic patients w/ 70-99 percent stenosis

symptomatic men w/ 50-69 percent stenosis

168
Q

Which organism is known for causing infections in burn victims?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

169
Q

What is the treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A 
VEGF inhibitors
PRP
Corticosteroid injections
Vitrectomy
Photocoagulation
170
Q

At what point do patients with chronic COPD qualify for home oxygen? (4)

A
  1. PaO2 less than 88 percent
  2. Pulmonary HTN
  3. Peripheral Edema
  4. Polycythemia
171
Q

Which chemotherapeutic agent is a mainstay of the treatment for choriocarcinoma?

A

Methotrexate

172
Q

What are four clinical features of streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Fever
Lymphadenopathy
Tonsillar Exudates
Absence of rhinorrhea/cough

173
Q

During the second stage of labor, a woman develops a fever, tachycardia and uterine tenderness. The fetus is also noted to have tachycardia. What is the most likely diagnosis? What is the most appropriate management?

A

Chorioamnionitis

IV abx: amp + gent

174
Q

What should be suspected in a trauma patient with blood at the urethral meatus or a high riding prostate?

A

Urethral injury/ bladder rupture

175
Q

What thyroid abnormalities might you expect to find during early pregnancy?

A

Increased TBG
Decreased TSH
Increased total T4, normal T4

176
Q

Which three iaotrogenic sources of iodine might cause thyrotoxicosis?

A
  1. Iodine dye
  2. Wrong levothyroxine dose
  3. Amiodarone
177
Q

What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus caused by lithium toxicity

A

Stop lithium
Thiazide diuretics
Add Amiloride

178
Q

What is the next step in management of a newly identified thyroid nodule in a patient with hyperthyroidism?

179
Q

Patients with silicosis are at higher risk for which type of infection?

A

Tuberculosis

180
Q

What is the most common presentation of hyperprolactinemia?

A

Hypogonadism

181
Q

What is the next step in the management of a patient with hyperprolactinemia due to an obvious drug cause?

A

Pituitary MRI

182
Q

What are the symptoms of a basilar artery stroke?

A

Cranial nerve defects
Altered mental status
Contralateral full body weakness

183
Q

What is the rate of transmission of HIV through a needle stick incident? What drugs should be given in case there is appreciable risk of transmission of HIV in this setting?

A

O.3%

Tenofovir + amtricitabine + raltegravir

184
Q

What is the treatment for septic abortion?

A

D&C

Antibiotics - IV broad spectrum - gentamicin and clindamycin

185
Q

Which type of infection may cause peripheral eosinophilia?

A

Parasite infection

186
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with symptoms of hyperthyroidism and:

  1. Palpation of multiple thyroid nodules
  2. History of thyroidectomy or radioablation of thyroid
A
  1. Multinodular goiter

2. Excess thyroid hormone replacement.

187
Q

Which mineralocorticoid medication is used in the treatment of aldosterone deficiencies such as adrenal insufficiency and 21 hydroxylase deficiency?

A

Fludrocortisone

188
Q

What neurotransmitter derangements are seen in patients with depression?

A

Decreased: Serotonin, Dopamine, Norepinephrine

189
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for acromegaly?

A

Somatostatin - octreotide
Cabergoline
Pegvisomant

190
Q

What is the first line treatment for moderate hypercalcemia? (2)

A

Normal Saline Infusion

Loop Diuretics

191
Q

Which antidepressant works well with SSRIs and increases REM sleep

192
Q

What are the levels of Ca2+, Serum Phosphate, Alk Phos, and PTH in :

  1. Hypoparathyroidism
  2. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
A 
Hypoparathyroid: 
Ca = decreased
P = increased
Alk Phos = normal
PTH = decreased

Pseudohypoparathyroidism:
Ca = decreased
P= increased
Alk Phos = normal
PTH = increased
193
Q

Which antidepressant should be considered first for a patient with depression and comorbid neuropathic pain?

A

Duloxetine (SNRI)

194
Q

What drugs can be used in the case of HTN in a patient with cocaine or amphetamine intoxication?

A

Benzos
Antipsychotics
Phentolamine (if really increased BP)

195
Q

What are the most appropriate treatments of OCD?

A

CBT
Exposure, non-response therapy
SSRI

196
Q

A 15 year old girl is brought to the dermatologist for treatment of her acne. What is the causative organism in acne?

A

Propionibacterium acnes

197
Q

What is the treatment for rosacea?

A

Topical: metronidazole, azelaic acid
Systemic: Tetracycline, doxy, minocycline, isotretinoin, laser therapy

198
Q

AN obese 42 year old diabetic woman complains of pruritic rash underneath her breasts. Exam reveals an erythematous, patchy rash underneath large, pendulous breasts. What diagnostic study would be helpful, and what would be seen?

A

KOH prep - pseudohyphae

199
Q

What is the treatment for delirium tremens?

A

Long acting Benzodiazepines - Chlordiazepoxide

200
Q

A patient presents with erythema multiforme. Which medications are most common offenders? (5)

A 
Penicillins
Sulfonamides
OCPs
NSAIDs
anticonvulsants
201
Q

What type of vascular anomaly:

  1. Blue compressible mass that does not regress
  2. Red-pink nodule on a child that is often confused with melanoma
A
  1. Cavernous hemangioma

2. Spitz Nevis

202
Q

Under what circumstances are you allowed to break confidentiality with a patient? (4)

A

Penetrating injury from an assault, discuss with police

Pt danger to self/others

Suspected child/elder abuse

Reportable diseases

203
Q

What is the treatment for seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Selenium Sulfide Shampoo

Topical antifungals

204
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis?

A

Staph Aureus

AAAAA STEP 2 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions