Last minute useful Flashcards

1
Q

A 45-year-old man presents with dizziness and right-sided hearing loss. Which one of the following tests would most likely indicate an acoustic neuroma?

Jerky nystagmus

Left homonymous hemianopia

Tongue deviated to the left

Fasciculation of the tongue

Absent corneal reflex

A

Loss of corneal reflex - think acoustic neuroma

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2
Q

You review a 24-year-old woman in the high dependency unit. She is moaning but unable to form words, and appears to open her eyes when you speak to her. She is unable to follow commands but withdraws from a painful stimulus. What is her GCS?

5

7

9

10

12

A

9

GCS: Motor (6 points) Verbal (5 points) Eye opening (4 points).

Can remember as ‘654…MoVE’

  • Best eye response: 3 (opens to voice)
  • Best verbal response: 2 (incomprehensible sounds)
  • Best motor response: 4 (withdraws from pain)
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3
Q

screening test for CF

A

Immunoreactive tryspin (IRT)

Trypsinogen normally produced in pancreas and carried to small intestine where it changes from inactive ‘proenzyme’ to active ‘enzyme’ trypsin.
Blocked pancreatic ducts in CF impede passage of trypsinogen into gut and result in build up in the blood. Can be detected and measured as IRT levels increase.
Best screening test for CF, but several other causes for raised IRT.

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4
Q

recurrent UTI investigations

A

Should be investigated for underlying cause and renal damage
Investigation cause:
1) US scans

  • All children under 6 months with their first UTI should have an abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeks, or during the illness if there are recurrent UTIs or atypical bacteria
  • Children with recurrent UTIs should have an abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeks
  • Children with atypical UTIs should have an abdominal ultrasound during the illness

2) Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)

  • Used to investigate atypical or recurrent UTIs in children <6 months or when family history of VER or poor urinary flow on US
  • Involves: catheterising child, injecting contrast into bladder and taking X-rays to determine whether contrast is refluxing into ureters
    o Children given prophylactic antibiotics for 3 days before

3) Investigating renal damage: DMSA (Dimercaptosuccinic acid) scan

  • Used 4-6 months after illness
  • Involves injecting radioactive material (DMSA) and using a gamma camera to assess how well material is taken up by the kidneys
  • If patches of kidney doesn’t take up material -> indicates scarring due to previous infection
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5
Q

Type of Cerebral Palsy

A

Spastic: hypertonia (increased tone) and reduced function resulting from damage to upper motor neurones

Dyskinetic: problems controlling muscle tone, with hypertonia and hypotonia, causing athetoid movements and oro-motor problems. This is the result of damage to the basal ganglia.

Ataxic: problems with coordinated movement resulting from damage to the cerebellum

Mixed: a mix of spastic, dyskinetic and/or ataxic features

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6
Q

null value for risk ratio

A

0

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7
Q

null value for odds ratio

A

1

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8
Q
A

Answer: b
An odds ratio of less than the null value of 1.0 indicates that being a gym member might be a protective factor against depression (but note that the confidence interval spans the null value of 1).

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9
Q

interpret

A

Example interpretation

6 out of the 7 RCTs had an OR > 1.00 indicating greater odds for survival amongst patients taking aspirin after MI
Only 1 RCT (the largest) had a statistically significant result, but its OR was less than the other RCTs with an OR > 1.00
Pooled estimate OR = 1.11 (95% CI: 1.04 to 1.19) leads to the conclusion that aspirin increases the chance of surviving after a MI (p<0.05)

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10
Q

cervical screening

A

25 -50 every 3 years
>50 every 5 years

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11
Q

breast cancer screening

A

50-70 every 3 years

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12
Q

bowel cancer screening

A

60-74 every 2 years

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13
Q

Trotters syndrome

A

nasopharyngeal malignancy
1) Unilateral conductive hearing loss
2) Trigeminal neuralgia
3) Defective mobility of the soft palate

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14
Q

tests for myeloma

A

BLIP
- bence jones in the urine
- serum Light chain
- serum Immunoglobulin
- serum protein electrophoresis

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15
Q

symptoms of myeloma

A

Calcaemia
Renal failure
Anaemia
Bone invasion (raindrop skull)

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16
Q

management of essential thrombocythaemia

A

Low risk of developing blood clots

  • Low dose aspirin

High risk of developing blood clots

  • Low dose aspirin
  • Oral chemo such as hydroxycarbamide
  • Anagrelide
  • Interferon alpha
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17
Q

presentation of polycythaemia vera

A

Presentation of PV

Thrombosis e.g. stroke/ MI
Viscosity symptoms
o Headache
o Drowsiness
o Transient visual disturbances
Pruritis- esp after warm bath
Skin- plethoric complexion
Pain in stomach due to enlarged spleen
High BP
Gout

18
Q

management of polycythaemia vera

A

Low risk for blood clots
- Venesection (remove around a pint)
Once a week to begin with
- Low dose aspirin
Thin blood

High risk of clots
- Venesection
- Low dose aspirin
- Chemotherapy
–> Small increase in risk of developing leukaemia
–> E.g. hydroxycarbamide
- Targeted treatment if chemo does work
–>Peginterferon alfa 2a
–> Busulfan
- Allopurinol
- Radiotherapy

19
Q

ASD poor prognostic marker

A

cognitive : IQ<50
behavioural: no speech by 5

20
Q

role of the health visitor

A

offer support and ecourgaement to famility through the early years from birth

monitor progress, advise, useful resources and refer to GP

21
Q

managing refeeding

A

B vitamins
slow reintroduction of food

22
Q

AF tests

A

echocardiogram
24hr tape
pulse oximtry overnight
TFT

23
Q

most important drug for AF

A

anticoagulation

24
Q

apixiban MOA

A

anticoagulant inhibits factor Xa (like rivaroxaban)

25
Q

endocrine conditions which cause weight loss

A

addisons and thryotoxocosis

26
Q

subdural management

A

1) stop blood thinners
2) contact neurosurgeons
3) contact haematology

27
Q

AF scoring systems

A

CHADS2VASC
HASBLED

28
Q

CHADS2VASC

A

risk of thromboembolic stroke

29
Q

HASBLED

A

risk of major bleeding

30
Q

signs of AN

A

dry skin
lanugo
parotid swelling
hypithermia
loss of muscle mass
resting bradycardia
peripheral oedema

31
Q

poor prognosis for breast cancer

A

large primary tumour
axillary lymph spread
ER and HR receptor negative
BRCA 1/2

32
Q

when to screen for BRCA

A

close family member BC before 40
one male relative with BC

33
Q

types of gastric cancer

A

adenocarcinoma
lymphoma
carcinoid
Squamous

34
Q

cause of vision loss in TA

A

vasculitis of posterior ciliary artery rlading to narrowing of artery causing ischaemia to the optic nerve and retina

35
Q

dopamine receptor agonists

A

cabergoline
bromocriptine

36
Q

causes of frequent otitis media with effusion

A

adenoids enlargement

37
Q

procedure for recurret otitis media with effusion

A

myringotomy

removal of adenoids

38
Q

gram negative is which colour

A

pink

  • chlamydia
  • gonorrhea (diplococci)
39
Q

gram positive

A

purple

40
Q

schneiders first rank

A

1) 3rd person auditory hallucinations
2) delcuisonal perception
3) passivity phenomenon
4) thought insertion, withdrawal, broadcast

41
Q

signs of TA

A
  • jaw claudicayion
  • tenderness over temples
  • fever
  • occipital headacche
  • focal tenderness
  • sore thorat
  • cough
  • vision loss
  • eight loss
  • night sweats