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Large Animal Medicine II > Large Animal Medicine II Final Exam > Flashcards

Large Animal Medicine II Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Swine karyotype is

A

2n= 38

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2
Q

Now, daily growth of grower finisher pigs went up to

A

950-1200 g/day

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3
Q

In swine medicine, method to optimize health, welfare, and production in a population of animals through the systematic analysis of relevant data and through regular objective observations such that informed timely decisions are made to improve herd management over time.

A

Herd Health Management approach (HHM)

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4
Q

Herd health management is based mainly on

A

Prevention. Based on identification of risk factors for disease

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5
Q

Sows produce colostrum containing that has this to enhance uptake of intact immunoglobulins

A

anti-trypsin factor

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6
Q

T/F stomach pH in piglets is close to neutral making young piglets susceptible for enteral infections

A

True

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7
Q

In piglets 2-10 days old, diarrhea, low mortality. Multifocal suppurative and erosive colitis. Confirmed by ELISA of fresh feces. Tx with virginiamycin and tylosin in piglets

A

Clostridium difficile associated enterotoxemia

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8
Q

Causes enterotoxemia in piglets 2-10 days old. Minimal gross lesions but multifocal suppurative enteritis with large Gram + rods. Isolation and genotyping of a beta 2 toxin is warranted. Tx with bacitracin in sows and salinomycin in piglets. Vaccination is available

A

Clostridium perfringins type A associated enterotoxemia

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9
Q

Piglets 1 day to 2-4 weeks old postweaning. Virulence includes fimbria, enterotoxins, endotoxins, and capsules. Dams are carriers. Poor sanitiation and chilling play role. Severity is related to dose ingested and immunity from colostrum. Can survive in contaminated buildings and keep infecting. Shivering, watery diarrhea, and vomiting occur. Dx with culture and PCR. Tx with antimicrobials. Practice good sanitation and vaccination twice before farrowing

A

E. coli (Enteric colibacilloisis)

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10
Q

Acute and fatal entertoxemia of recently weaned pigs. Characterized by edema, sudden death, and neuro signs such as paddlinging and squealing.

A

Edema disease (colibacilosis)

Several serotypes of E. coli

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11
Q

Usually in confinement raised 1-3 weeks old nursing piglets. When unexposed pigs are placed in contaminated area. Carrier sows are the source. Signs are yellow pasty diarrhea, dehydration, rough hair coat. No response to antimicrobials. Tx with Toltrazuril

A

Coccidiosis (Isospora suis)

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12
Q

Usually in piglets 1-6 weeks old. Diarrhea, vomiting, non fatal. Enteritis with moderate villous atrophy. Dx with ELISA or FAT of feces.

A

Rotaviral enteritis

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13
Q

All age groups susceptible but mostly piglets <4 weeks old. Acute form with high mortalitiy and endemic form is less serious. Dx with FAT or IHC on intestine of acutuely affected pigs or PCR of feces.

A

Transmissible gastroenteritis

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14
Q

Most important strep infection in pigs. Usually nursing or recently weaned piglets. Septicemia, meningitis, polyarthritis, bronchopneumonia. Zoonotic. Isolated from nasal cavity and tonsils of pigs. Eliminate stress and overcrowding. Vaccinate sows. Tx with antibiotics

A

Streptococcus suis

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15
Q

Syndrome usually within 3 days of farrowing and causes inadequate milk production. Hypogalactia, weakness, anorexia, sternal recumbancy, resistent to allow nursing. Cause unknown. Resolved by proper sanitiation, exercise, and nutrition

A

Hypogalactia or Mastitis, Metritis, Agalactia (MMA)

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16
Q

In pigs mastitis is most commonly

A

Enviornmental

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17
Q

Dermatitis usually seen in 4-12 week old piglets. Reddened raised ring shaped lesions usually on ventral abdomen. Dx with exam and no treatment required. Non pruritic and no affect on pigs. Cause unknown

A

Pityriasis rosea

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18
Q

Abnormalitiy of neonatal pigs with lateral extension of the hind legs with inability to adduct legs. Myovibrillar hypoplasia related to delayed development. Genetic disposition, slippery floors, and PSS are causes. Tx by tying legs together

A

Splay leg

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19
Q

Inheritied condition. Abscence of discrete areas of skin. Hydroureter and hydronephrosis also seen with condition. Fetuses may be aborted or born.

A

Epitheliogenesis imperfecta

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20
Q

Treatment for Erysipelas

A

Penicillin or antiserum

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21
Q

Caused by staphylococcus hyicus. Pigs less than 8 weeks old. Brownish spots with serum or exudate. No pruritis. Isolate affected pigs, and spray pigs with 10% bleach, chlorohexadine, Durvet or dilute iodine

A

Greasy pig disease (Exudative Epidermitis)

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22
Q

Caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae. Mucohemorrhagic diarrhea with marked inflammation limited to the large intestine. Persists in rodents and water. Eradication program in place and replace herds.

A

Swine dysentery and spirochaetal colitis

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23
Q

Results in septicemia, enterocolitis, and asymotimatic swine. Disease is less common but occurs mostly in weaned pigs. Often appears during stressful events. Tx with carbodox, gentamycin, neomycin, and others

A

Salmonellosis

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24
Q

Causes septicaemic salmonellosis in swine. Acute onset of outbreak with acute death loss in a group of apparently thrifty pigs

A

Salmonella chorerasuis

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25
Q

Causes enterocolitic salmonellosis in pigs.

A

Salmonella typhimurium

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26
Q

Obligate intracellular organisim. Causes hyperplasia of crypt enterocytes with inflammation and ulceration in young adults and grower pigs. Outbreaks can be associated with stress. Usually results in subclinical disease. Acute phse can have brown to black diarrhea, and rapid death. Elimination is difficult, vaccinate pigs. Tx with tylosin, tetracycline, linocmycin and others

A

Porcine Proliferative Enteritits

Lawsonia intracellularis

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27
Q

Usually in 6-20 weeks old pigs in USA. Secretes 4 enterotoxins. Trasmission from direct contact, overstocking, stress. Pigs remain carriers. Sudden deaths common. Diarrhea, high temps, cyanosis, chronic cough, stiffness. Control with closed herd and replacement with free farm pigs. Tx is Parenteral with tiamulin, tulathromycin and others

A

Actinobacillas Pleuropneumonia

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28
Q

Caused by toxigenic strains of Bordetella bronchisepticica and Pasteurella multicodia (type D). Snuffling, sneezing, snorting, and nosebleeds. Atrophy of turbinates in nose. Transmitted in dust and with poor ventilation. Pigs may have dirty face from obstructed tear ducts. Improve husbandry to treat and vaccinate.

A

Atropic Rhinitis

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29
Q

Post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome. Usually nursing and growing pigs. Lyphocytic depletion in lymph nodes with histiocytic infiltration. In utero infection possible. Can cause repro failure and abortion. Almost all herds in USA are seropositive. Gradual wasting, unthriftiness, rough coat, pallor, diarrhea, icterus, death. Control with quarantine and disinfection. Euthanize affected pigs. No treatments

A

Porcine cirovirus type 2

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30
Q

Viral disease in pigs characterized by repro failure and respiratory disease in pigs of any age. Most economically significant disease in swine in the USA. Persists in long term carrier pigs which become immune and keep shedding. Virus is highly infectious.

A

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS)

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31
Q

Coronavirus. Acute outbreaks of severe diarrhea, vomiting, and high morbidity. Short icubation period. Not a foreign animal disease in the USA. Dx with ELISA, PCR, and EM. Control with biosecurity and vaccines. Tx with supportive therapy and clean enviornment.

A

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea

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32
Q

Occurs as result of deficiency in pregnant sow, or genetic defect in synthesis. Leads to weak or dead piglets, mucinous edema, thick skin, enlarged goiter.

A

Iodine Deficiency

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33
Q

Colostrum and milk from sow only provide ____ daily iron requirement to piglet

A

15-20%

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34
Q

T/F Iron dextran can be administered to piglets in neck muscles parenterally after 7 days of age

A

False

THE MEAT!!!

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35
Q

Observed in 2-4 month old pigs. Usually in pigs not allowed access to soil or not supplemented. Most often caused by consumption of excessive calcium. Skin lesions and reduced growth rate are signs.

A

Zinc responsive dermatosis (Parakeratosis)

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36
Q

Disease of growing bones. Usually caused by dietary deficiency of vit D or phosphorus. Control with balanced diet

A

Rickets

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37
Q

Lesion of mature bones. Occurs in profilic sows that mobilize minerals for high milk production. Often results in fractures in latter part of nursing. Control with balanced diet and exercise

A

Osteoporosis

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38
Q

Causes mulberry heart disease (sudden death), Hepatosis dietetica, and white muscle disease

A

Vit E and Selenium deficiency

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39
Q

Caused by fungus growing on peanuts, corn, wheat, and other grains. Young nursing pigs or weaned growers at risk mostly. Toxins reduce growth rate and are immunosuppresive. Causes hepatotoxicosis, fibrotic liver, and ascitis.

A

Alfotoxicosis

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40
Q

Fungus in many grasses and cereal grains. Alkaloids are cause of disorder. Toxins result in ischemic necrosis, dry gangrenous sloughing, and reduced litter and mammary size.

A

Ergotism

Claviceps purpurea

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41
Q

Toxic compound produced by fungus. Cytotoxic to many cell types and strongly immunosuppressive. In moldy caked feed. Causes crusting and ulceration of the skin on the snout, lips, and prepuce.

A

Fumonisin

Fusarium species

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42
Q

In moldy corn and other cereals. Has estrogenic effect resulting in vulvovaginitis and precocius mammary development. Passed to offspring in milk. Can effect boars also

A

Zearalenone (F-2)

Fumonisin toxicosis

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43
Q

Acute and characterized by meningeoencephalitis, polyserositis, polyarthritis and bacterial pneumonia. Sporadic occurance usually 3 week -4 month old piglets. Stressful events and enviornment predispose. Can be isolated from nasal cavity of normal pigs. CNS signs, sudden death, joint issues. Tx antibiotics and sulfonamides.

A

Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser’s disease)

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44
Q

Widespread chronic respiratory disease with coughing and reduced feed efficiency. Pigs at weaning are more commonly affected. Can be part of a respiratory complex. Carrier swine are common. Tx with lincomycin and others.

A

Mycoplasmal pneumonia (Enzootic pneumonia)

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45
Q

Cause of mycoplasmal pneumonia in pigs

A

mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

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46
Q

Viral disease in swine, sudden onset of fever, discharge, weakness, and paroxysmal coughing. Course is 5-7 days. H1N1 is common serotype. Vaccinate, maintain closed herd, and use antimirobials for secondary infections

A

Swine influenza

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47
Q

Growth cartilage disease in rapidly growing pigs. Cause unknown. Abnormal gait and lameness with pathologic bone/cartilage lesions. Common sites are femoral condyle, humeral condyle/head, scapula, lumbar vertebrae. Genetics plays a role. Results in sows being culled

A

Osteochondrosis

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48
Q

Occurs in pigs either from water deprivation or ingestion of too much salt. Signs worsened by sudden access to water. Blindness, deafness, head pressing, dog sitting, and paddling. Results in meningeal and cerebral perivascular cuffing by eosinophils in the brain. Pigs usually die reguardless of treatment.

A

Salt poisoning

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49
Q

Referrs to destruction of part or all of the pars esophagea with bleeding. Pigs 8 weeks and older (mostly in pigs 120lbs to market weight). Unknown risk factors. Usually dead with pallor and melena. Tx with Vit K and hematinics.

A

Gastric ulcers

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50
Q

Whipworm. Feeder/finishers and mature swine. Mucois or mucohemorrhagic diarrhea with loss of condition. Located in large intestine. No eggs until 8 weeks post infection. Can diagnose early with histopathology or mucosal scrapings

A

Trichuris suis

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51
Q

Maintenance animal or FMD. Carried in pharyngeal tissue 4-6 months

A

Sheep and Goat

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52
Q

Animal amplifier for FMD. No carrier status

A

Pigs

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53
Q

Species indicator for FMD. Carried in pharyngeal tissue 6-24 months

A

Cattle

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54
Q

Highly infectious often fatal swine disease caused by flavivirus. Loss of appetite, weakness, fever, leukopenia. Spread between animals.

A

Classical swine fever

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55
Q

Acute highly contagious fatal disease in swine caused by double stranded DNA Asfivirus. Warthog reservoirs. No vaccine. Incubation 5-19 days. High fever, erythema, cyanosis, bloody diarrhea, abortion, death.

A

African Swine Fever

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56
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is caused by a

A

Rhabdovirius

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57
Q

Vesicular exanthema is caused by a

A

Calicivirus

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58
Q

Swine vesicular disease is caused by a

A

Picornavirirus and enterovirus

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59
Q

When immobilizing a deer with-hold food and water for

A

24 hour for food

12 hour for water

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60
Q

Combination of drugs for immobilizing deer

A

Telazol and Xylazine

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61
Q

Federal interstate regulations for moving deer

A

Must have negative TB test, no signs of CWD, USDA eartage, and Current CVI health paper

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62
Q

To certify deer herd Brucellosis free must

A

Test whole herd twice every 9-15 months, then every 3 years to maintain free. All animals entering must be negative 30 days before entering herd.

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63
Q

In deer caused by Orbivirus. Transmitted by Culicoides (midges). Peracute disease results in dead animals. Acute has swollen tongue, foaming from mouth, ataxia. Chronic form included laminitis and weight loss. Treat with steroids, antibiotics, and supportive care but prognosis is usually poor to grave

A

Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease

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64
Q

Causes abortions in free ranging deer. Difficult to diagnose without signs. Tx with tetracycline, blood transfusion, and fluids

A

Leptospirosis (L. pomona)

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65
Q

Cause of lymphadenopathy, respiratory disease, and emaciation in deer. Dx with cervical or comparative test. No treatment to be attempted. Public health concern.

A

Tuburculosis (mycobacterium bovis)

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66
Q

Infection in young deer (12-18 months). Signs include chronic weight loss and unthrifty appearnece, diarrhea, and hyproteinemia. Dx with fecal culture (gold standard) and ELISA. No treatment

A

Johnes Disease (Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis)

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67
Q

Gram negative anaerobic bacteria. In soil worldwide. One of the major causes of disease/death in deer. Stress and overcrowding are predisposing factors. Common forms are as lumpy jaw and pneumonia.

A

Necrobacillosis

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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68
Q

In deer necrosis of the pharynx and larynx in young animals.

A

Diptheria

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69
Q

Most common respiratory isolates in deer pneumonia. Early detection is key to treatment. Necropsy should be priority

A

Trueperella, Fusobacterium, Pasteurella, Biberstenia, Mycoplasma

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70
Q

Most common clostridial disease in deer. Causes myconecrosis, enteritis, hemorrhagic bowel. Originated from contaminated colostrum and environment. Concern following reproductive procedures.

A

Clostridum perfringens type A

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71
Q

In poultry blood is usually used for

A

Serology

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72
Q

In poultry swabs are usually used for

A

Bacterial isolation

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73
Q

Normal chicken heart rate

A

220-360 bpm

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74
Q

Normal chicken respiratory rate

A

12-37 rpm

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75
Q

Small pale and shrunken comb in chickens

A

Out of lay

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76
Q

Most common protozoan parasite in chickens. Causes bloody diarrhea, predisoposes to clostridium enteritis, and economic losses. Amprolium for prevention and control

A

Coccidosis

Eimeria tenella, acervulina, macima

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77
Q

Black head, liver lesions, cecal sores

A

Histomonus meliagridis

78
Q

Treatment for external parasites in chickens

A

Permethrin powdering or dusting. Minimum of two treatments 7 day interval

79
Q

Three forms of vitamin E deficiency in chickens

A

Encephalomalacia, exudative diathesis, muscular dystrophy

80
Q

Reportable chicken diseases

A

Infectious laryngotracheitis, Exotic Newcastle Disease, Highly Pathogenic Influenza

81
Q

Normal alpaca crias should weigh at least ____ and normal llama crias should weigh at least ___ lbs

A

12 and 18 lbs

82
Q

The stomach of a south american camelid has

A

3 compartments

83
Q

In llama practice, zinc deficiency skin disease may be a real probem. This problem may be brough about by excessive ____ intake

A

Calcium (alfala hay)

84
Q

Alpacas are mainly kept for

A

FIber or wool

85
Q

Rabies in camelids is usually manifested as the ____ form

A

Furious

86
Q

Restraight method in this picture

A

Midline catch

87
Q

This has been identified as being the cause of beserk male syndrome in llamas

A

Human imprinting

88
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning camelid restraint and handling is most correct?

  • The rule of restraint with llamas is “the more, the better”
  • Restraint for collection of a blood sample from a llama requires two people
  • Llamas are not group animals. You must handle them by themselves
  • Minimal restraint is preferred for all llama-handling procedures
  • Diversionary restraint is preferred for all injections
A

Minimal restraint is preferred for all llama handling procedures

89
Q

The term used to describe the normal recumbent position of a camelid is

A

Cush

90
Q

What would be the best sample to submit for an internal parasite check on a llama herd?

  • A sample from the communal dung pile
  • A sample from the stall of each llama
  • A sample from each individual animal collected from the rectum
  • A catch sample from individual animals
  • A mixed sample from the dung piles and the stalls
A

A sample from each individual animal collected from the rectum

91
Q

A yearling llama with an atypical infection or infections might also be suspected of having

  • Meningeal worm infestation
  • Zinc deficiency
  • Vit B deficiency
  • Immunideficiency syndrome
  • Vit A deficiency
A

Immunodeficiency syndrome

92
Q

A 3 day old female alpaca is presented in respiratory distress. The crias cheeks flare and the distress is more pronounced during nursing. When the animal gasps and inhales milk, what is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Lung lobe torsion
  • Wry face
  • Diaphragmatic hernia
  • Choanal atresia
  • Mitral stenosis
A

Choanal atresia

93
Q

Identify the animal

A

Alpaca

94
Q

T/F 25% of camelids in the US are estimated to be infected with Mycoplasma haemolamae

A

True

95
Q

T/F sheep and goats are the species most susceptible to meningeal worm infection

A

False

Deer

96
Q

Oldest domestic farm animal.

A

Goats

97
Q

Kept for fiber and mohair. Long hair coat. Very susceptible to parasites

A

Angora

98
Q

Usually kept as pets. Dual purpose breed. Horned

A

African Pigmy goat

99
Q

Milk goat. Breed year round. Has high butterfat.

A

Dwarf nigerian goat

100
Q

All purpose goat. Hornless. Low milk yield but high butter fat

A

Nubian

101
Q

Horned. Good milker with large udder and well placed teats.

A

Alpine goat

102
Q

Goat

A

Olberhasli

103
Q

High butter fat, cheese goat

A

LaMancha

104
Q

Noted for excellent udder confirmation and high milk production. Short and long haired types

A

Toggenberg

105
Q

Both sexes are horned. Largest milk yield

A

Saanen

106
Q

Duel purpose goat. Non seasonal breeders. Cross between Nubian and Pygmy

A

Kinder

107
Q

South African breed. Early maturing. Highly resistant to parasites. Meat goat

A

Boer

108
Q

Parasite resistant. Meat goat from New Zealand. Aggressive forager and breeder. Good producer

A

Kiko

109
Q

Prized for wool. Tall for walking.

A

Merino

110
Q

Known for wool and meat. Very tall.

A

Rambouillet

111
Q

No horns or wool on face. Most common breed in North America. Scrapes as a genetic condition. Big butts- callipyge and spider leg gene issue

A

Suffolk

112
Q

Best for farm flock protection. Produce meat. Adapted to wet climates. Good quality wool

A

Southdown

113
Q

Can lamb anytime of year. Strong fiber fleece. Good meat quality

A

Dorset

114
Q

Lean meat. Heavy muscled.

A

Texel

115
Q

Wool on face. Larger and coarser than Southdown

A

Hampshire

116
Q

Cold climate adapted. Ewes tend to lamb in litters. Strong wool

A

Romanov

117
Q

Wooless rat tail sheep. Milk sheep.

A

Friesan

118
Q

Multihorned sheep. Wool, meat, hides, and pets. Hardy resistant animals

A

Jacob

119
Q

Tolerate heat well. Resistant. Hair instead of wool, breed all year round.

A

Barbados Black Belly

120
Q

Usually resistant.

A

Virgin Island White Sheep

121
Q

No fleece, lose wool naturally. Good for pasture management.

A

Karahdin

122
Q

T/F Sheep with a relatively high blood glucose during pregnancy toxemia, it is a good prognositc indicator.

A

False

Bad indicator

123
Q

Risk factors for hypocalemia in sheep/goats

A

Forced exercise (long distance walking)

Feed deprivation

Grazing philodendron

Feed lot sheep on high magnesium diets

124
Q

T/F Pregnancy toxemia is a very high differential for hypocalcemia in a ewe in late gestation

A

True

125
Q

Presentation for sheep/goat with hypomagnesemia

A

Laterally recumbant, extreme muscle tetany or paddling. Turned out on lush green pasture

126
Q

Type of coccidiosis in sheep/goat < 3 weeks old

A

Cryptosporidium

Zoonotic

127
Q

Type of coccidiosis in sheep/goat > 3 weeks old

A

Eimeria

Not zoonotic

128
Q

Oocysts greater than ____ is diagnostic for coccidiosis in sheep/goats

A

>5000/gram of feces

129
Q

Treatment and prevention of menigeal worm

A

High levels of fenbendazole and prevent with Ivermectin monthly.

Can cause resistance to other parasites so be careful

130
Q

T/F Dogs have the potential for spreading tapeworm cysts to sheep

A

True

Taenia hydagenita

131
Q

Causes swayback in sheep. Limp, straight, steely wool.

A

Copper deficiency

132
Q

Sheep very susceptible. Signs include anemia and grinding teeth. More common than deficiency

A

Copper toxicosis

133
Q

Related to vit B12 deficiency and heavy GI parasite loads. Signs are poor growth and productivity, lacrimation with wool matted to face, and anemia.

A

Cobalt deficiency

134
Q

State most likely to cause Iodide toxicosis in sheep/goats

A

South Carolina

135
Q

Dams infected 60-90 days before parturition have weak, poor doing lambs. If 10-30 days priorwill have normal lambs but persistant carriers.

A

Enzootic abortion of ewes (EAE)

136
Q

Carried by most sheep. May cause weak lambs. More an issue in goats

A

Q fever

137
Q

Infectious noncontagious orbivious transmitted by Culicoides. Ewes infected during or shortly after breeding may have dummy lambs related to cerebellar hypolasia. No disease in goats

A

Bluetongue

138
Q

Rapid death, bloody diarrhea, hemorrhagic enteritis in sheep/goats

A

Clostridium type C

139
Q

Rapid death, slobbering, occurs in vaccinated flock

A

Clostridium type A

140
Q

Sudden death related to grain overload in sheep and goats

A

Clostridium perfringens Type D

141
Q

Bacterial disease caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. Common in sheep/goats. Causes significant economic loss. Treatment is ineffective. Organism stays for life

A

Caseous lymphadenitis

142
Q

Presentation of caseous lymphadenitis more common in goats. Superficial or SC abscesses in lymphnodes.

A

External

143
Q

Presentation of caseous lymphadenitis more common in sheep. Difficult to diagnose. Chronic wasting and other signs. “Thin ewe syndrome”

A

Internal (visceral)

144
Q

How to definitively diagnose Caseous Lymphadenitis

A

Bacterial cuture. Submit pus.

145
Q

Chronic multisystemic disease of goats caused by nononcogenic retrovirus. Primarily dairy goats. Polyarthritis is common presentation. Transmission via infected colostrum and poor milking. Dx with serological testing

A

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE)

146
Q

Contagious and zoonotic caused by parapoxvirus. Incubation is 3-8 days. May lead to secondary bacterial infections. Causes lesions on mouth, coronary bands, and gentials

A

Contagious Ecthyma (ORF)

147
Q

Contagious, chronic, and fatal. Primarily affects the small intesting. Caused by mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis (MAP). No vaccine.

A

Johnes disease

148
Q

Caused by clostridium. Problem in young rams. Results in swollen head, neck and eyelids. Treatment unrewarding. Prevention with vaccine is key

A

Malignant edema

149
Q

Infectious non contagious arthropod born virus. Late summer early fall most likely. More common in sheep. Various signs and cyanosis.

A

Bluetongue virus

150
Q

Caused by clostridium perfringens type D in sheep/goats. Rapid onset of depression, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, pulpy kidney, and other signs. Vaccinate and supportive treatment

A

Enterotoxemia

151
Q

Cardiotoxic plants in sheep/goats

A

Oleander, Foxglove, Lily of the Valley, Yew, Cowdriosis

152
Q

Caused by Ehrlichia ruminatium, transmitted by Amblyoma ticks. Causes muffled heart sounds, high fever, colapse. Tx Tetracycline.

A

Cowdriosis

Heartwater

153
Q

Common in wethers on high protein diets becasue increases urea content of urine. Bacteria hydrolyze urea into ammonia which is cytotoxic

A

Ulcerative posthitis

C. renale

154
Q

Soil dwelling bacteria. Saw horse stance, 3rd eyelid protrusion, hyperesthetic in small ruminants. Vaccinate

A

Clostridium tetani

155
Q

Causes Club Lamb Fungus (ringworm), Easily spread, self limiting and treat with lime sulfur dip. Zoonotic

A

Trichophyton spp.

156
Q

How much colostrum should be made and consumed in small ruminants

A

10% BW, within 24 consume 2-4 oz every 3-4 hours. Within 4 hours is best

157
Q

When to castrate lamb/kid

A

1-4 weeks of age

Give tetanus antitoxin or booster

158
Q

When to dehorn sheep/goats

A

3 days- 3 weeks of age.

159
Q

When in CD&T vaccination administered in small ruminants

A

1 and 2 months of age

6 months

Annually

1 month before parturition

160
Q

In small ruminants toxic plants are most often associated with

A

Vomiting

161
Q

Toxic in sheep/goats. Acts on the ANS and stimulates vagus nerve and vomiting center. Projectile vomiting results. Use drench with charcoal and others to tx

A

Ericaceae family

Rhododendrons, Laurels, Azaleas

162
Q

Prinicple toxin in Ericaceae family plants

Rhododendrons and azaleas

A

Grayanotoxin

Andromedotoxin

163
Q

Fatal degenerative disease in small ruminants. Affected under natural conditions. Signs rarely seen before 2.

A

Scrapie

164
Q

May be unilateral or bilateral, thought to be associated with type D/B retrovirus. Contagious neoplasm in small ruminants

A

Enzootic nasal tumor, Adenocarcinoma

165
Q

Inflammation of the paranasal sinuses. Infrequent in sheep/goats. Most often frontal and maxillary sinuses. Often secondary to dehorning or tooth issues

A

Sinusitis

166
Q

Due to trauma from dosing equipment in small ruminants. Organisms include Antinomies, Fusobacterium, and Corynebacterium

A

Pharyngitis

167
Q

Pneumonic form most common in small ruminants. LPS and endotoxin are virulence factors. Treat with long acting oxytetracycline, Pen G. Vaccinate before animal goes to feedlot

A

Mannheimia haemolytica pneumonia

168
Q

Serotype that infects sheep is related to but different than cattle. See coughing, serous nasal discharge, ocular discharge. More common in lambs < 1 year old.

A

Parainfluenza Type 3

169
Q

In sheep/goats and predisposes to secondary bacterial infection. Signs include anorexia, pyrexia, conjunctivitis, and cough. No vaccine

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

170
Q

Causes enzootic pneumonia in sheep. Seen intensively in reared lambs raised in poor ventilation. Older animals are the reservior. Involved in coughing syndrome

A

Mycoplasma ovipneumonia

Sheep Mycoplasma

171
Q

Causes contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP). Only goats are affected. Highly contagious, Seen in Africa and Asia

A

Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. Capripneumoniae

172
Q

Chronic progressive pneumonia caused by ovine retrovirus. Usually infected as a lamb. Long incubation and seen in sheep > 4years old mostly. Udder involvements, arthritis, and ill thrift. Similar to CAE

A

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP)

173
Q

Most common method of diagnosis for OPP

A

AGID (prone to false negative results)

Can do ELISA and PCR

174
Q

Primary agent of foot scold in sheep/goats. Gram - Bacteria

A

Dichchelobacter nodosus

175
Q

This bacteria can increase the susceptibility of the small ruminant hoof to foot rot

A

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

176
Q

Sheep most susceptiblet to foot rot

A

Merino.

Also dairy goats over meat or fiber

177
Q

Seen in all ages of goats but most common in young kids and yearling dairy breeds. Septicemia, fever, anorexia, and course 4-10 days ending in death

A

Mycoplasma arthritis

178
Q

Occurs predominantly in neonates as a sequela to omphalophlebitis or bacteremia. Common isolates are arcanobacterium, staph, strep, e.coli. Hot, swollen, painful joints. Treatment is difficult. Prognosis guarded

A

Bacterial Polyarthritis

Joint ill

179
Q

Black leg in sheep. Animals usually found dead or recumbent. Treatment depending on timing, and with penicillin.

A

Clostridium chauvoei

180
Q

Bentleg or bowie in sheep are caused by

A

Phosphorus defeciency

181
Q

Epiphystis in young growing goats is caused by excessive

A

Calcium

182
Q

Characteristic most associated with the guernsey breed of diary cattle

A

A2/A2 milk

183
Q

Following disease with similar clinical presentation pattern to transmissible gastrointestinal enteritis in pigs but pathogen is unrelated and no cross protection

A

Porcine epidemic diarrhea

184
Q

Apart from intestinal parasites which is likely to cause anemia in the adult llama

A

Mycoplasmosis

185
Q

Vaccine most likely to cause tissue reaction in the llama

A

Clostridial 7-way

186
Q

What percent of llama diet should be crude fiber on dry matter basis

A

25%

187
Q

T/F Milk fever occurs as a result of ionized calcium depletion at calving time

A

True

188
Q

Vaccination protocol most suitable for controlling neonatal diarrhea due to e.coli

A

Vaccinate sows at farrowing

189
Q

Wooden tongue in cattle is caused by

A

Actinobacillus

190
Q

Ideal calving interval for dairy operation in the Midwest USA is

A

365 days

191
Q

What disease symptom is assiciated with mycoplasma haemolamae in alpacas

A

Anemia

192
Q

This problem would be accompanied by a leukopenia

A

Fatty liver disease

Large Animal Medicine II (3 decks)

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