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Large Animal Medicine II > Large Animal Medicine II Exam II > Flashcards

Large Animal Medicine II Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

“…For the prevention of infection with…”

A

Prevents all colonization and replication

Ex: spirovac for lepto

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2
Q

“… for the prevention of disease due to…”

A

Efficacy >80%

Bovishield for PI prevention

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3
Q

“….As an aid in the prevention of disease due to…”

A

Produces clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals. Most common claim

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4
Q

“…..as an aid in the control of disease due to….”

A

Alleviates disease severity and duration

ex: Salmonella SRP vaccine

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5
Q

Vaccine with less adverse reactions but possibility for shedding of virus. More closely mimics natural infection

A

Modified Live vaccine

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6
Q

Primary goal of vaccines in breeding herds

A

Maintain solid herd immunity to prevent pathogens.

Secondary: Boost innate immunity for calves

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7
Q

Goals of vaccines in replacement heifers

A

Two fold goal: Protect against prevalent threats. Provide basis for solid herd immunity.

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8
Q

Vaccine goals for market calves

A

Immune protection to prevalent disease challenge.

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9
Q

FDA licensed vaccines for almost ____ bovine pathogens

A

50

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10
Q

Minimal vaccine profile

A

Respiratory
7 way clostridial
Consider Lepto
+/- Brucella

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11
Q

You must give 2 doses of killed vaccines ____ weeks apart

A

2-4

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12
Q

_____ of individuals will not respond to vaccination.

A

10-15%

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13
Q

Calf immune systems are not mature until

A

4-5 months

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14
Q

T/F If you vaccinate a calf less than 5 months old protection will carry into adulthood

A

False

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15
Q

Animals mount a better immune response to killed vaccines or MLV?

A

MLV

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16
Q

T/F MLVs will give longer, stronger, and usually cheaper protection compared to killed vaccines

A

True

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17
Q

T/F Milk production will be effected by vaccination

A

True

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18
Q

Dont give more than 2 of these vaccines at once

A

Gram negative (endotoxin)

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19
Q

The effect of lameness on a dairy cattle herd is seen first in

A

Decreased milk production

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20
Q

The most common site for a lesion on the foot of a dairy cow is in zone

A

3

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21
Q

The average toe length for an adult dairy cow is

A

7.5 cm

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22
Q

Infectious pododermatitis occurs because of

A

Compromised epithelium

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23
Q

16 month old show steer presents with a grade 4/5 lameness due to foot rot. He is champion quality and the terminal show is in 12 days. Which of the following treatment in appropriate mg/kg dose and route is best?

  • Ceftiofur crystalline free acid
  • Florfenicol
  • Oxytetracycline
  • Tilmicosin
A

Ceftiofur crystalline free acid

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24
Q

Foot rot in sheep is

A

Contagious and effects the sole

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25
Q

Dealing with digital dermatitis and heel erosions requires

A

Management to enhance the enviornment

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26
Q

When would most cases of foot rot be observed?

  • Wet concrete dairy cow 140 days PP
  • Dry feedlot with 9 weight steers
  • Pastured beef cows 3 weeks post rain
  • Far off dry cows on DCAD ration
A

Pastured beef cows three weeks post rain

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27
Q

THe conformational issue associated with sequalae to solar ulcers is

  • Proximity of coffin joint
  • Attachment of extensor tendon
  • Collateral ligaments of P3
  • Complete lack of solar tubules
A

Proximity to coffin joint

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28
Q

Most economical and comfortable bedding in dairy cattle free stalls is

A

Clean sand

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29
Q

What is most efficacious in controlling diary cattle lameness

A

Free stall management

Want laying for minimum of 10-12 hours a day

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30
Q

Laminitis is most common in

A

Hind limbs.

High concentration diets.
Decreased blood flow disrupts horn production and p3 sinks from edema.

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31
Q

Value of radiograph images in bovine foot disease is to ascertain

A

Accurate prognosis for case

32
Q

Infected mastitis cow gland will have _____ Somatic cell count. Mostly this type of cell ____

A

200,000-1,000,000 cells/mL

PMNs

33
Q

Trace mastitis on CMT has _____ SCC

A

300,000

34
Q

Weak mastitis on CMT has ______ SCC.

A

900,000 SCC

35
Q

Strong CMT result has _____ SCC`

A

8.1 million SCC

36
Q

Which two CMT results are subclinical

A

Trace (300,000) and weak (900,000) SCC

37
Q

Legal SCC limit for Grade A milk

A

750,000 SCC

38
Q

CMT is performed with ____ milk and ____ solution in each dish

A

2cc and equal solution

Rotate and read in 20 seconds

39
Q

Major pathogens for contagious mastitis

A

Strep agalacea, Staph aureus, Mycoplasma bovis

40
Q

Most cases of contagious mastitis are

A

Subclinical and persistent

41
Q

Wall of cow hoof grows

A

5 mm/month

42
Q

Sole of cow hoof grows

A

3mm/month

43
Q

____ of lameness is found in the feet of cows

A

90%

44
Q

____ of lameness results in loss of revenue in cattle farms

A

70%

45
Q

85% of lameness is found in the ___ claw of ___ foot in cattle

A

Lateral claw of hind foot

46
Q

Interdigital foot rot occurs most often in ____ due to interdigital dermis damage and opportunistic invasion

A

Beef cattle

47
Q

Most common bacteria involved in cattle foot rot

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

48
Q

Contagious and epidemic in cattle, painful and environmentally transmitted. Confinement is predisposing factor

A

Digital dermatitis (Hairy heel wart)

49
Q

Treatment for digital dermatitis in cattle

A

Oxytetracycline topical spray. ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT

50
Q

Cause of digital dermatitis in cattle

A

Treponema spp. (Spirochete)

51
Q

Where does issues with claw horn disruption in cattle begin in the foot?

A

Inside hoof at corium

52
Q

Sole ulcers (Rusterholz ulcer) in cattle most often occurs in these claws

A

Lateral claw on hindlimb, medial claw on front feet

53
Q

Treatment of spastic paresis in cattle

A

Tibial neurectomy and cutting part of gastroc

54
Q

Most common stifle issue in cattle

A

Cranial cruciate tear

55
Q

Casts in <150 kg cow should have ___ layers

A

6-8 layers

56
Q

Casts in >150kg cow should have ____ layers

A

10-12 layers

57
Q

Normal USG in cow

A

1.020-1.040

58
Q

Cattle urinate ____ per day

A

10-40mL

59
Q

BUN and CREA values in cattle

A

BUN 10-30

CREA <2

60
Q

T/F Cows with anaplasmosis have hematuria (red urine)

A

FALSE

61
Q

T/F most cystic calculi form in acidic urine

A

FALSE

Alkaline!

62
Q

Single most important factor in urolithiasis

A

Water intake

63
Q

Most common sites for urolithiasis

A

Distal sigmoid flexure and urethral process

64
Q

Cause of contagious bovine pyelonephritis

A

Corynebacterium renale

65
Q

Cause of necrotic posthitis in bulls and steers

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

66
Q

Cause of bovine enzootic hematuria

A

Broken fern

67
Q

Sequalae of chronic suppurative process in kidney. No treatment

A

Amyloidosis

68
Q

Presents as dystocia. Blue tongue and Akbane can cause. Usually cow is asymptomatic.

A

Hydrocephalus

69
Q

Interferes with absorption of CSF at arachnoid villi and CSF pressure results in blindness and seizures. Common in animals on corn stubble in Midwest

A

Vitamin A deficiency

70
Q

Autosomal recessive in Herefords and shorthorns. Can be from BVD 100-120 days in gestation. Calves are blind with no cerebellum

A

Cerebellar abiotrophy

71
Q

Cause of spasmodic paralysis. Moves retrograde up axon and prevents release of GABA. Can only treat before neuronal uptake.

A

Clostridium tentani

72
Q

Found in decaying vegetation. Exotoxins block Ach release and cause flaccid paralysis. No antitoxin or vaccine

A

Clostridium botulinum

73
Q

Migrates up trigeminal nerve and causes neuro condition. Will see circling and dysphagia. Mononuclear inflammation. Tx with Oxytetracycline

A

Listeria monocytogenes

74
Q

Caused by histophilus somni. Death within 36 hours. Pneumonia, neuro, and other signs. Death due to subsequent endothelial cell apoptosis. Neutrophil response seen

A

Thromboembolic Meningoencephalitis (TEME)

75
Q

Cause of brain and pituitary abscesses in cattle. Can be a dehorning complication

A

Trueperella pyogenes.

76
Q

Main isolate in otitis media/interna in cattle

A

Mycoplasma bovis

77
Q

Cause of sway back (enzootic ataxia). Mostly in sheep.

A

Copper deficiency

Large Animal Medicine II (3 decks)

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