Lange Q&A Flashcards

0
Q

biggest risk factor for suicide

A

prior suicide attempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

narcolepsy triad

A

sleep attacks
cataplexy
hypnopompic/hypnagogic hallucinations or sleep paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what stage of sleep does nightmare disorder occur in

what happens quickly upon arousal

A

latter third of night and during REM sleep

person quickly becomes oriented upon arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what stage of sleep do sleep terrors occur?

A

stages 3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when diagnosing MDD in children, what symptom can substitute for depressed mood?

A

irritable mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • markedly limited vocab
  • making errors in tense
  • difficulty recalling words or producing sentences with developmentally appropriate length or complexity
A

expressive language disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

avg number of words spoken by a 2 year old

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

criteria for schizoaffective disorder

A

presence of psychotic sxs for at least 2 weeks in the absence of mood sxs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how to tx schizoaffective disorder

A

antipsychotic + antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

new mom is sad and always thinks she hears her child crying… what is it? how to tx?

A

postpartum depression with psychotic features

tx with SSRI and APD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bilateral abducens nerve palsy, horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, global confusion, apathy

A

wernicke’s encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

drug to tx delusional disorder

A

antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if someone presents in acute manic state and agitated, what do you give?

A

antipsychotic and benzo

-start mood stabilizers non-emergently as they take a week to take effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

you can get acute stress disorder or PTSD from witnessing something traumatic (life threatening, serious injury, etc)
T/F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which SSRI side effect can persist for the duration of tx?

A

sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what to give in TCA overdose? what do ppl die from?

A

sodium bicarb

cardiac arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pharm management of opiate withdrawal

A

clonidine

methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what drug to give to delirious old ppl

A

haldol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

best tx for borderline personality

A

DBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is phenelzine

A

MAOI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MDD > bereavement if :

A
  • depressive sxs last for longer than 2 moths
  • survivor has guilt surrounding anything other than actions they should have taken to prevent the death
  • survivor has prominent hallucinatons
  • psychomotor retardation
  • suicidal ideation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

onset of emotional or behavioral disturbances within 3 months of a significant life event that may manifest as marked change in an individual’s ability to function in school, work, or interpersonal relationships

  • not as severe as MDD
  • not bereavement
A

adjustment disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

first line agent for panic disorder

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

treating OCD

A

CBT and SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

first line drug for tourette’s

what about for severe cases

A

clonidine

antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

atomoxetine

what is it and what is it used for

A

SNRI

tx for ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

common side effect of clonidine and what to do about it

A

sedation

either wait it out for a few weeks or reduce the dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

if alcoholics can abstain from alcohol for 4 weeks, only 5% of them will continue to have sxs of depression (T/F)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

you can have delusions in dysthymia and adjustment disorder (T/F)

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MZ twin concordance with bipolar disorder

A

80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is residual type of schizophrenia

A

absence of positive sxs and a preponderance of negative sxs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

non addicting sleep agent

A

benadryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Li, carbamazepine, depakote

which one does not cause decrease in WBC

A

Li- it can cause a modest benign increase in WBC

  • carbamazepine- benign reduction in WBC count but severe blood dyscrasias occur in 1/125,000 patients
  • depakote- often a benign thrombocytopenia but can cause rarely agranulocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what to do with somatization disorder?

A

look up previous test results/previous care

assess for other treatable psychiatric illnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

somatization disorder often assoc with which personality disorder

A

histrionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what to give a shizotypal personality person who is under stress and has “micropsychotic episodes”

A

low dose APDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

lab findings in chronic alcoholic

A

elevated or depressed LFTs
hypomagnesemia
thrombocytopenia
increased PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which anti-epileptic can be used for alcohol withdrawal

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

good test to evaluate short term memry

A

Brown Peterson task

-useful during ECT as it can result in amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

fluvoxamine MOA

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

venlafaxine MOA

A

serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

factitious disorder by proxy
mother is most likely (anxious/depressed/angry)
2 personality disorder associations

A

depressed

histrionic and borderline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

time cut off for acute stress disorder

A

within 4 weeks of event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what happens when MAOI + aged cheese, wine, beer, pickled foods
how to tx

A

hypertensive crisis

tx with alpha blocker (IV phentolamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

side effects of clozaril

A

seizures
tachycardia, hypotension, sedation, fatigue, weight gain

does not affect prolactin so does NOT cause galactorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which routine monitoring test do you have to get for patients on clozaril

A

CBC with diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

frequently used tool to asses dementia

A

MMSE
20-25 suggestive of cognitive impairment
< 20 definitive impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

wisconsin card sort test is used to test ________, which is located in _______

A

executive function

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when assessing mania, rule out this medical condition

A

thyroid disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

phenytoin (dilatin) side effects

A

gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, dizziness, slurred speech, ataxia, mental confusion, decreased coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ebstein anomaly assoc with ______

A

lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

hepatic failure assoc with this mood stabilizer

A

depakote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

risk of schizophrenia in general population and if you have one parent with it

A

1% and 12%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

the Rorschach test is a associative projective test (T/F)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

a manic episode can be due to cocaine intoxication T/F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

amok

A

culture-bound syndrome of Malaysian origin that refers to a violent or furious outburst with homicidal intent. often results in multiple casualties

  • prodromal brooding
  • homicidal outburst
  • persistence in reckless killing without an apparent motive
  • claim of amnesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

dhat

A

anxiety regarding the discharge of semen (Indian)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ganser syndrome

A

patient who responds to questions by giving approximate or outright ridiculous answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

latah

A

Malaysian or Indonesian term

-middle aged women who have sudden fear, often with dissociation and catatonic-like features (echolalia, echopraxia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

if you can’t use benztropine for EPS, what should you use instead?

A

amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

denial is a ______ defense
regression
rationalization
suppression

A

denial- narcissistic defense
regression- immature defense
rationalization- neurotic defense
suppression- mature defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

in psychogenic coma, you would still have normal cold water caloric nystagmus (T/F)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

how to calculated IQ

A

(mental age/chronological age) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

how to tx severe depression in elderly with multiple medical (esp cardiac) conditions

A

ECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

atypical specifier for depressive episode

A

mood reactivity

2/4: increased appetite or weight gain, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, rejection sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

melancholic specifier for depressive episode

A

loss of interest or pleasure in all or almost all activities or a lack of reactivity to usually pleasurable stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

identification

A

defense mechanism in which the person incorporates the characteristics and qualities of another person or object into his or her own ego system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

fixation

A

overactive attachment to a person or object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

catatonia

A

psychomotor disturbance involving motor immobility, excessive motor activity, mutism, negativism, peculiar voluntary movements, echolalia, echopraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

catalepsy

A

an immobile position that is maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

you should avoid using benadryl as a sleep aid in older pts due to anticholinergic effects and possible delirium (T/F)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

MAOI + meperidine (demerol)

A

hypertensive crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

depression tx during pregnancy
MAOI
ECT
SSRI

A
  • MAOI- contraindicated due to exacerbation of pregnancy induced HTN
  • ECT- safe
  • SSRI (such as fluoxetine)- relatively safe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

most common sx of caffeine withdrawal

A

HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

tx of NMS

A

D/C the offending drug
IV dantrolene and PO bromocriptine
cooling measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

lithium toxicity

how to tx?

A

severe CNS and renal impairment

  • dysarthria, coarse tremor, ataxia
  • impaired consciousness, fasciculations or myoclous, seizures, coma

tx: gastric lavage, rehydration, hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

right parietal stroke would most likely cause issues with ______ memory

A

visual, nonverbal

can test with Rey-Osterrieth Test (copying a complex figure and then drawing it from memory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

fluoxetine takes ______ to wash out of the system

what are the implications

A

6 weeks

do not start MAOI within this time frame or you might cause serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

some complications of anorexia

A

osteoporosis, constipation, cold intolerance, leukopenia, thyroid dysfunction, cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

mortality rate for anorexia

A

5-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

if the sxs of major depressive episode begin within 2 months of the loss and do not persist beyond the 2 month period, it is normal bereavement unless:

  • thoughts of death other than feelings they would be better off dead
  • expressing guilt other than about the actions taken or not taken at the time of death
  • morbid preoccupation with worthlessness
  • marked psychomotor retardatio
  • hallucinations other than that of the deceased individual
A

yep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

complicated bereavement is chronic and unremitting distress (T/F)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

sxs within 3 months of an identifiable stressor with marked distress in excess of what would be expected from experiencing the stressor

A

adjustment disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

dysthymic disorder requires ________ of sxs

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

best studied drug to tx OCD

A

clomipramine (TCA)

also evidence for SSRIs but need higher doses than for depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, seizures might be due to ________

A

anticholinesterase toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

sxs when you drink while taking disulfiram

A

flushing, sweating, dyspnea, hyperventilation, tachycardia, hypotension, nausea, vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

lithium interacts with these pain meds so that lithium levels are increased –> abdominal pain, diarrhea, drowsiness

A

ibuprofen, indomethacin, ketoprofen, diclofenac, phenylbutazone, naproxen, piroxicam
-acetaminophen, aspirin, opiates do not interact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

mirtazapine (remeron) MOA

what is a benefit?

A

increases both adrenergic and serotonergic neurotransmission

it’s nice because it doesn’t cause appreciable sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

medically ill patients with depressive disorders may respond to psychostimulants (T/F)

A

T

ex. methylphenidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

huffing, sniffing, etc intoxication sxs

A

visula disturbances, dyscoordination, depressed reflexes, euphoria, nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

conjunctival injection, increased appetite

A

marijuana use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

diminished response to pain, euphoria, staring into space

A

PCP intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

hair loss is assoc with this mood stabilizer

also nausea, vomiting, indigestion, sedation, mildly elevated serum transaminase levels, hepatic failure

A

depakote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

SSRIs cause what kind of sexual dysfunction

A

decreased libido, delayed orgasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

retrograde ejaculation can be caused by ______

A

antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

ADHD sxs need to have started before age _____

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

if your first stimulant doesn’t work for ADHD tx, what do you do?

A

try another stimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

la belle indifference is classically seen with ____

A

conversion disorder

-indifference shown toward a deficit or loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

in a pregnant schizophrenic in labor, which APD would you give?

A

a high potency APD like haldol because the lower potency APDs have more alpha blocking properties and my lower BP significantly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

conjunctival injection, mild sedation, dose dependent hypothermia, dry mouth, increased appetite, tachycardia, euphoria, sense of slowed time

A

cannabis intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

miosis, bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, constipation, euphoria

A

opiate intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

unpredictable behavior, assaultiveness, belligerence, agitation, nystagmus, tachycardia, numbed response to pain, muscle rigidity, hyperacusis, hpertension, echolalia, anticholinergic effects

A

PCP intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

confusion, muscle twitching, weakness, abdominal cramps, depression, palps, coma, respiratory failure

A

nicotine intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

tachycardia, pupils dilated, constriction of coronary arteries, euphoria

A

cocaine intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

mania in bipolar disorder can often present with psychotic symptoms (T/F)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

cocaine can produce both _____ and _____

A

mania and psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

metabolic disturbances in bulimia patients

A

hypokalemic-hypochloremic alkalosis (due to vomiting)

elevated Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

best therapy for bulimia

A

CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

_______ is more commonly seen in children with mDD compared to adolescents with MDD

A

psychomotor agitation

-appears anxious and irritable > sad and depressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

most common suicide method in children

A

substance ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

common side effects of DDAVP (2)

A

headache and nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

the approximate comorbidity of childhood anxiety disorders and MDD is ______ percent

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

side effects of fluoxetine (4)

A

GI (nausea, loose stools)
insomnia
agitation
headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Rett disorder is only seen in ______ and demonstrates _______% concordance in identical twins

A

girls

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

odd repetitive movements with hands, head circumference normal until 12 months and then halts in growth

A

Rett disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

adjustment disorder does not last longer than ______

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

first line tx for tourette disorder

A

clonidine

-others include TCA, high potency APD, atypical APD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what disorder is commonly associated with tourette?

A

OCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what do you need to dx tourette?

A

multiple motor tics AND at least one vocal tic at sometime during the illness
onset before age 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

first line tx for ADHD and its side effects

A

stimulants

-increased risk of developing tics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

how to dx reading disorder

A

achievement in reading is substantially lower than IQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

_____ % of children with learning disorders have a comorbid psych disorder

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

pharmacologic tx of enuresis

A

DDAVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

side effects of stimulants

A

insomnia, decreased appetite, weight loss, dysphoria, irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

non-stimulant med for ADHD

A

atomoxetine- NE reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

metabolic issues with anorexia patients

A

hypercholesterolemia
mild normocytic normochromic anemia
leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

early onset schizophrenia (before age 10) is associated with a (better/worse) outcome

A

worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

ADHD vs. mania… who has the lower self esteem

A

ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

children understand the irreversibility of death around age _____

A

7-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

biggest averse effect of clonidine upon initiation of tx

A

sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

the process of adopting other people’s characteristics

-ex: girl who just came from the doctor’s wants to “play doctor” with her friend

A

identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

defense mechanism: emotions are shifted from one idea or object to another that resembles the original but evokes less stress
“student who is angry at mother talks back to teacher instead”

A

displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

defense mechanism: a person’s character or sense of identity is temporarily but drastically modified in order to avoid emotional distress

A

dissociation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

defense mechanism: unacceptable impulse is transformed into its opposite
“man who is in love with his married coworker insults her”

A

reaction formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

child abuse most likely results in which psych condition in the grown up child

A

MDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what kind of therapy for OCD?

A

CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

range for mental retardation

A

normal: 90-110
mild: 55-70
moderate: 40-54
severe: 25-39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

goal of which age group: establish a secure sense of trust that occurs in the relationship with one’s responsive caregiver

A

infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

goal of which age group: identification with superheroes

A

preschool (oedipal phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

goal of which age group: increasing understanding that they are a separate being from their caregiver and they practice separating and reuniting with their caregiver

A

toddlers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

goal of which age group: ability to think logically and concretely (can identify that equal amounts of liquid in two differently shaped containers hold the same amount)

A

school age (concrete operations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

goal of which age group: ability to think abstract fashion

A

adolescence (formal operations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

prevalence of schizophrenia in general population

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

nihilistic delusion that they have lost blood, heart, intestines, as well as that the world beyond them has been reduced to nothingness

A

Cotard syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

delusion that familiar people assume the guise of strangers

A

Fregoli delusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

delusional disorder is characterized by the presence of _______ delusions

A

nonbizzare (potentially feasible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

durations of brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia

A

brief psychotic disorder: 1 day-1 month

schizophreniform: 1 month-6 months
schizophrenia: > 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

good prognosis for schizophrenia

A
good premorbid functioning
later age at presentation
female gender
acute and rapid onset of sxs
presence of mood symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

best acute tx for catatonia

A

benzos or ECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

contraindications to ECT

A

space occupying lesion (ex. large meningioma)

MI in the last 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

most consistent sleep disturbance of depression

A

early morning awakenings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

episodic hypomania and subclinical depression

A

cyclothymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

only _______ is necessary to diagnose bipolar I

A

manic episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

major depressive episodes and hypomanic episodes

A

bipolar II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

double depression

A

major depressive episode superimposed on dysthymic episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

DTs, if untreated, have a mortality of ____

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

docility, lack of fear response, anterograde amnesia, hyperphasia, hypersexuality

A

kluver bucy syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Onset of mood and behavioral changes following an acute stressor. Does not last more than 6 months

A

Adjustment disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Patient exposed to traumatic event and has flashbacks, numbing, and increased arousal for up to 1 month after the event

A

Acute stress disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Pregnant heroin addict. What do you give her?

A

Methadone is safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Episodic mood symptoms and chronic psychotic symptoms outside of the mood symptoms

A

Schizoaffective disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Emotional lability, dysarthria, impulsivity after years of repeated head trauma

A

Punch drunk syndrome (dementia pugilistica)

164
Q

Subcortical arteriosclerotic encephalopathy

Multiple small infarcts in the white matter with sparing of the cortical regions

A

Binswanger disease

165
Q

What’s a good indicator of dependence > abuse?

A

Inability to quit despite desire to quit or knowledge of its negative aspects

166
Q

Defense mechanism: unconscious incorporation of someone else’s traits into ones own manner (adolescents have similar hairstyles to admired rock stars)

A

Identification

167
Q

Best treatment for borderline patients

A

DBT (individual psychotherapy)

168
Q

Number of ECT sessions you need for:
Depression
Catatonic conditions
Psychosis and mania

A

6-12
2-4
> 20

169
Q

Drug for OCD

A

SSRIs

170
Q

What to give to delirious old people

A

Haldol

171
Q

Standard antidepressant response rate

A

70%

30% get better without any treatment

172
Q

Duration of major depressive episode
With treatment
Without treatment

A

3 months

6-13 months

173
Q

what to give for acetaminophen overdose

A

acetylcysteine

174
Q

what to give in iron overdose

A

deferoxamine

175
Q

best meds for PTSD

A

SSRIs

-can use APD as an adjunct

176
Q

best psychotherapy for panic disorder

A

CBT

177
Q

infarctions of the left frontal hemispheres present with _____

A

depression

178
Q

infarctions of the right frontal hemisphere present with ______

A

euphoria, inappropriate indifference, mania

179
Q

____% of the cases of impotence in ppl age 30-50 have a psychological cause

A

90

180
Q

low _____ (neurotransmitter) in pts with suicide, impulsivity, and violence/aggression

A

serotonin metabolite (5-HIAA)

181
Q

short term memory deficits, unstable smooth pursuit eye movements, decreased ability to habituate to repeated sensory stimuli, difficulty conceptualizing complex visual compositions can all be seen in pts with ______

A

schizophrenia

182
Q

which antidepressants have a higher propensity to induce mania?

A

TCA > SSRI

183
Q

memory loss surrounding a discrete period of time

A

localized amnesia

184
Q

forgetting entire preceding life

A

generalized amnesia

185
Q

forget all events following a trauma, except for the immediate past

A

continuous amnesia

186
Q

inability to recall certain aspects of the an event, though other memories of the event may be intact

A

selective amnesia

187
Q

circuitous, over-inclusive answer that only eventually gets to the point

A

circumstantiality

188
Q

a response composed of a series of disconnected ideas

A

loosening of associations

189
Q

when the patient strays off the point entirely, never returning to the original intention of the answer

A

tangentiality

190
Q

sense that one’s surroundings are strange or unreal

A

derealization

191
Q

feeling that one’s identity is lost or the feeling of being unreal or strange

A

depersonalization

192
Q

mental activity not in accordance with reality

A

dereism

193
Q

abnormal recall of details

A

hypermnesia

194
Q

uncontrollable or excessive talking sometimes seen in manic episodes

A

logorrhea

195
Q

abrupt interruption of a idea and then, after a period of time (a few seconds), beginning a new topic

A

derailment

196
Q

rapid and frequent changes in ideas or topics, but the connections may still be recognizable

A

flight of ideas

197
Q

persistence of a visual image after the stimulus has been removed

A

palinopsia

198
Q

neuroanatomical areas affected in OCD

A

caudate nucleus, frontal lobes, cingulum

199
Q

response to antidepressants… order the sxs

A

sleep, energy, appetite changes –> libido –> hopelessness/helplessness –> suicidal ideation

200
Q

taijin-kyofusho

A

belief that one’s body is offensive to others

201
Q

zar

A

delusional belief of possession by a spirit

202
Q

which area of the brain is hyperactive in anxiety states?

A

locus ceruleus (location of NE neurons)

203
Q

why must you wait at least 14 days after discontinuing an MAOI before starting a serotonergic agent

A

to avoid serotonin syndrome

204
Q

euphoria, interpersonal sensitivity, anxiety, tension, or anger, impaired judgment, impaired social and occupational functioning

  • tachycardia or bradycardia, pupillary dilation, insomnia, blood pressure changes, sweating or chills, nausea or vomiting
  • chronic use- dry skin, acne-like lesions, chronic nose bleeds
  • often in airline pilots
A

amphetamine intoxication

205
Q

fatigue, vivid dreams, sleep disturbances, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation or agitation

  • withdrawal from what?
  • often in airline pilots
A

amphetamines

206
Q

headache, sleepiness, irritability, concentration problems, vomiting, muscle aches/stiffness
-withdrawal from what?

A

caffeine

207
Q

cocaine intoxication is similar to _______ intoxication

  • at higher doses, seizures, chest pain, hyperpyrexia, death
  • paranoia
A

amphetamine

208
Q

dysphoric mood, hypersomnia, increased appetite, fatigue = _______ withdrawal

A

cocaine

209
Q

blockade of _______ is thought to improve cognitive and affective symptoms in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders

A

5-HT2A

210
Q

blockade at the ____ receptor is responsible for the dizziness, sedation, and orthostatic hypotension associated with many of the atypical antipsychotics

A

alpha-1

211
Q

blockade of the _____ in the mesolimbic and mesocortical areas of the brain are responsible for reducing the positive psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia

A

D2

212
Q

blockade of the ____ is believed to contribute to sedation and cause weight gain

A

H1 receptor

213
Q

blockade of the ____ cause sedation, dry mouth, and constipation

A

muscarinic 1 receptor

214
Q

self fulfilling prophecy- a patient views the world as full of unloving people, then acts to push her therapist to the breaking point where he terminates her care, therefore confirming her belief that the world is full of unloving people

A

projective identification

215
Q

denial, splitting, displacement, projection, projective identification

A

immature defenses

216
Q

rationalization, reactive formation

A

neurotic defenses

217
Q

altruism, humor

A

mature defenses

218
Q

phenelzine MOA

A

MAO-A and MAO-B blocker

219
Q

selegiline MOA

A

MAO-B inhibitor at low doses for Parkinson’s

nonselective MAO inhibitor at high doses for depression

220
Q

what does MAOI overdose look like?

A

hyperpyrexia and autonomic excitability sufficient to cause rhabdo

221
Q

what to do for MAOI overdose

A

supportive care
if delirium develops, give lorazepam
if ventricular arrhythmias develop, tx with lidocaine

222
Q

cyproheptadine

A

5-HT2A antagonist sometimes used in most severe cases of serotonin syndrome

223
Q

depression with weight gain, hypersomnia, and mood reactivity… what is it and what to tx with?

A

atypical features

tx with MAOIs

224
Q

when to use clozapine

A

tx of patients with schizophrenia who have failed 2 or more APD trials

225
Q

how to tx depression with psychotic features

A

combo of antidepressant and antipsychotic
OR
ECT

226
Q

how to address akathisia in pts on antipsychotics

A

lower the APD dose as much as possible
add beta blocker like propranolol
if still not controlled, add lorazepam

227
Q

first line tx for bipolar depression

A

lithium, lamictal, quetiapine

-second line: depakote

228
Q

most common dangerous complication of NMS

A

rhabdomyolysis

229
Q

potential side effect of long term thioridazine use

A

retinal pigmentation

230
Q

most potent benzo

A

clonazepam > alprazolam > diazepam > oxazepam > chlordiazepoxide

231
Q

what to check before starting:

  • Li
  • antipsychotics
  • depakote (valproic acid)
A
  • Li: electrolytes, Cr, BUN, thyroid
  • antipsychotics: fasting glucose, lipids
  • depakote: LFTs
232
Q

in some ppl, NSAIDs can _________ Li levels

A

increase

233
Q

most common side effects of methylphenidate (2)

A

difficulty falling asleep

decreased appetite

234
Q

stimulants may exacerbate ________ (movement abnormality)

A

tics

235
Q

tx for Tourette’s

A

haloperidol… clonidine (alpha 2 agonist ) for mild cases

236
Q

if someone on long term haldol presents with tardive dyskinesias, you might offer them this

A

clozapine

237
Q

borderline personality disorder… what medication do you give?

A

if depressed, give SSRI

if not depressed, give mood stabilizer or second generation antipsychotics

238
Q

risk of SSRI during pregnancy

A

persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn

239
Q

risk of Li during pregnancy

A

Epstein anomaly of the heart

240
Q

risk of depakote during pregnancy

A

neural tube defects, developmental delay

241
Q

pharmacologic tx of bulimia

A

SSRI and topamax

242
Q

interaction between lamictal and depkaote and OCPs

A

OCPs decrease lamictal levels

depakote increases lamictal levels

243
Q

trazodone… what is it?

A

antidepressant which affects serotonin system by weak reuptake inhibition and antagonist activity at various serotonin receptors
-extremely sedating so good for sleep

244
Q

important sexual side effect of trazodone

A

priapism

245
Q

most common EKG findings when taking Li

A

T wave inversion/depression

246
Q

thiazide diuretics can _____ Li levels

A

increase

-other things: spironolactone, triamterene, NSAIDs (except aspirin and sulindac), metronidazole and tetracycline

247
Q

pharm tx for OCD

A

SSRIs and clomipramine (TCA)

248
Q

how to tx refractory OCD

A
  • augment SSRI with second gen APD for pts with moderate response to SSRI
  • for pts with no response, consider switching to different SSRI or to clomipramine
  • psychotherapy for all cases
249
Q

what to give for refractive schizophrenia

A

clozapine

250
Q

orthostatic hypotension when on an antidepressant

A

imipramine (TCA) > nortriptyline (TCA)

not bupropion, fluoxetine, or mirtazapine

251
Q

first line tx for mania

A

depakote or Li w or w/o concurrent antipsychotic

252
Q

mirtazapine side effect profile

A

increased appetite, weight gain, sedation

253
Q

bupropion side effect profile

A

insomnia, weight loss

254
Q

common cardiac issue with TCAs

A

slowing of cardiac conduction

255
Q

of the common antipsychotics, ______ is least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension

A

haldol

-good for old people so they don’t fall down

256
Q

_______ is good for treating nightmares in PTSD

A

prazosin

alpha-1 blocker, traditionally used to treat HTN and BPH

257
Q

be careful using benzos and second gen APDs in elderly pts

A

yep

258
Q

what to give someone just coming into the ED with AMS (3 things)

A

glucose, thiamine, naloxone

-don’t give flumazenil b/c it may acutely lower the seizure threshold

259
Q

one of the most effective medications for opioid detox

A

buprenorphine

260
Q

best tx for depression and for neuropathic and fibromyalgia pain

A

duloxetine (SNRI) > TCA due to risk of overdose with TCA

261
Q

this APD really really causes weight gain

A

olanzapine

262
Q

side effect profile of risperidone

A

orthostatic hypotension
may cause weight gain
no appreciable anticholinergic

263
Q

agranulocytosis is a side effect of this APD

A

clozapine

264
Q

atypical (2nd gen) APDs usually do not cause tardive dyskinesia
which one completely obeys this rule and which one is the top culprit for going against this rule?

A

clozapine truly obeys this rule

risperidone is the leading culprit in causing EPS at high doses

265
Q

first line pharm treatment for bulimia nervosa

A

SSRI

can also do topamax

266
Q

most common side effect of TMS for depression

A

headache

267
Q

this first gen APD and citalopram when used together can prolong QTc

A

pimozide

268
Q

this second gen APD is most likely to cause hyperglycemia and lead to development of diabetes

A

clozapine

269
Q

some SSRIs in kids may increase the risk of suicidal thoughts (T/F)

A

T

270
Q

this bipolar drug increases risk of pancreatitis

A

depakote

271
Q

this APD can cause agranulocytosis

A

clozapine

272
Q

sialorrhea (drooling) can occur with this APD. how to tx it?

A

clozapine

-behavioral measures and clonidine

273
Q

how to tx persistent sinus tachy in patients being treated with clozapine

A

propranolol

274
Q

least likely APDs to cause metabolic syndrome

A

aripiprazole and ziprasidone –> risperidone and quetiapine –> clozapine and olanzapine

275
Q

good drug for middle insomnia (falling asleep but frequently awakening during the night)

A

zaleplon

276
Q

contraindications for ECT

A
recent MI (past 6 months)
significant intracranial space occupying lesion
277
Q

IV haloperidol can lengthen QTc (T/F)

A

T

278
Q

most dangerous side effect of lamictal

A

stevens johnson syndrome

279
Q

dangerous but rare side effect of carbamazepine

A

aplastic anemia

280
Q

spasm of the neck and back that causes the patient to arch forward

A

opisthotonos (arc de cercle)

281
Q

spasm of the extra ocular muscles, often resulting in the patient looking up and unable to look down

A

oculogyric crisis

282
Q

leaning posture induced by the spasm of the torso muscles

A

pleurothotonos (Pisa syndrome)

283
Q

spasm of the neck muscles that usually brings the neck to one side or another but may also pull forward or backward

A

torticollis

284
Q

2 antidepressants that don’t have sexual dysfunction

A

bupropion, mirtazapine

285
Q

bupropion is good for anxiety (T/F)

A

F

bupropion is likely to worsen anxiety

286
Q

insatiable sexual desire in a woman

A

nymphomania

287
Q

insatiable sexual desire in a man

A

satyriasis

288
Q

parapraxis

A

freudian slip

289
Q

this mood stabilizer can cause kidney stones

A

topamax

290
Q

which APDs cause high prolactin

A

first gen APDs and risperidone

291
Q

obstructive jaundice is a side effect of this APD

A

chlorpromazine

292
Q

orthostatic hypotension is especially troublesome in these two APDs

A

chlorpromazine and clozapine

293
Q

ability of the ego to cope with competing conflicts between id, ego, and superego which help one manage stress and maintain stability

A

ego strength

294
Q

goal of supportive therapy

A

strengthening of current defense mechanisms

295
Q

goal of cognitive therapy

A

correction of faulty ideas

296
Q

goals of existential psychotherapy

A

exploring the feeling of meaninglessness in life and investigating the freedom of individuals

297
Q

goal of psychodynamic psychotherapy

A

personal change

defenses are examined gradually in order to achieve a more optimal level of functioning

298
Q

group members are see as the audience and the cast in reenactments of scenarios and conflict

A

psychodrama

299
Q

when a patient relives an emotional or traumatic experience to get rid of or purge negative emotions and move forward

A

abreaction

300
Q

major focus of interpersonal psychotherapy

A

communication analysis

you can do this via role playing

301
Q

major tool of psychoanalysis is the careful interpretations of the transference neurosis (t/f)

A

T

302
Q

Erikson stages

A
trust vs mistrust- birth to 1 year
autonomy vs. shame/doubt- ages 1-3
initiative vs. guilt- ages 3-5
identity vs. role confusion- ages 11-19
intimatcy vs. isolation- ages 20-40
303
Q

in brief psychodyanmic therapy, a single focal area of conflict is identified and during the therapy the time is spent actively interpreting transferences as they pertain to this identified focal conflict

A

yep

304
Q

which type of therapy is not good for schizophrenics

A

psychoanalysis because they have difficulty with reality testing

305
Q

dreams are used to uncover ________

A

psychic conflicts

306
Q

which personality disorder could benefit from both individual and group psychotherapy

A

borderline personality patients

307
Q

patients who are suicidal have severe hopelessness and think about events in rigid, black and white ways (T/F)

A

T

308
Q

expression of emotion elicits emotional response in other members of the group

A

contagion

309
Q

when the group recreates a family of origin or the original dynamics of a conflict which yeps a patient work through their original conflict

A

corrective experience

310
Q

presenting an aversive stimulus after a behavior in order to decrease that behavior

A

punishment

311
Q

an aversive stimulus is removed in order to increase a desired behavior

A

negative reinforcement

312
Q

this antidepressant does not cause sexual dysfunction but can cause hepatitis and liver failure

A

nefazodone (serotonergic)

-requires regular LFT monitoring

313
Q

this antidepressant can cause high blood pressure

A

venlafaxine (inhibits reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine)

314
Q

which antidepressant is likely to cause a withdrawal syndrome (flu-like sxs)

A

paroxetine b/c of its short half life

315
Q

this antidepressant has fewer withdrawal sxs due to its long half life and so may be used for pts with poor compliance and sometimes miss doses

A

fluoxetine

316
Q

which second gen APDs cause weight gain?

which ones are weight neutral?

A

weight gain: clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone

weight neutral: ziprasidone, aripiprazole

317
Q

what is tranylcypromine

A

MAOI

318
Q

for dysthymic disorder, how long should you try a medication before deciding that it’s a failure?

A

8 weeks

319
Q

nihilistic delusion that one is dead or that the body or organs are dying

A

Cotard syndrome

320
Q

when the husband of a pregnant woman has similar sxs of pregnancy and/or labor

A

Couvade syndrome

321
Q

the intense sxs of depression in bereavement do not usually last longer than 6 months (T/F)

A

F

it’s 2 months

322
Q

making an obscene gesture in Tourette’s

A

copropraxia

323
Q

bruxism

A

grinding of teeth

324
Q

complex motor tic where movements of another are repeated

classic sxs of catatonia

A

echopraxia

325
Q

repetition of words but is the repetition of one’s own words as if the person “gets stuck” on the same word or phrase

A

palilalia

326
Q

slip of the tongue

A

parapraxis

327
Q

approx answers, talking past the point, amnesia, disorientation, fugue, conversion sxs

A

Ganser syndrome

common in prisoners

328
Q

culture-specific hysterical reaction in Inuit, especially women, who may perform irrational or dangerous acts, followed by amnesia for the event

A

piblokto

329
Q

displacement is a _____ defense

A

neurotic

330
Q

projection is a _____ defense

A

primitive

331
Q

reaction formation is a ______ defense

A

neurotic

332
Q

which movement disorder is assoc with Wilson’s disease

A

hemiballismus

333
Q

dementia drugs

A

donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine

these are all AChE inhibitors

334
Q

risk factors for completed suicide

A
age > 45
male
separated/divorced > married
white race > black race
Jews/Protestants > Catholics
335
Q

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale- Revised (WAIS-R) is for ages _____ and up

A

16

336
Q

patients with one major depressive episode have a ____% chance of recurrence

A

50%

337
Q

zaleplon is relatively contraindicated in those with severe ______ dysfunction

A

liver

338
Q

______ is the only med indicated for tx of childhood depression

A

fluoxetine

339
Q

side effects of St. John’s wort

A

increased photosensitivity, stomach upset, rashes, fatigue, restlessness, HA, dry mouth, dizziness, confusion
-SSRI doses should be decreased while pts are taking this supplement

340
Q

first line for bipolar depression

A

lamictal

341
Q

neutropenia is a potential complication of this mood stabilizer

A

carbamazepine

342
Q

10 year recovery rate for anorexia nervosa

A

25%

343
Q

timeline of Rett vs. childhood disintegrative disorder

A

Rett- girls ages 5 months and 4 years

childhood disintegrative disorder- normal development for at least the first 2 years

344
Q

how to tx secondary nocturnal enuresis

A

behavioral therapy and then imipramine (TCA)

345
Q

microcephaly, short palpebral fissures, flat midface, thin upper lip

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

346
Q

disturbed and inappropriate social relatedness assoc with pathological care

A

reactive attachment disorder

347
Q

melancholic features of MDD

A

anhedonia, depression worse in the morning, terminal insomnia, marked psychomotor abnormalities, significant weight loss, inappropriate guilt

348
Q

belief that one’s thoughts can control outside events

A

magical thinking

349
Q

general classes of drugs to tx a manic episode

A

mood stabilizers and 2nd gen APDs

350
Q

return of sxs that are brief and transient and is frequently assoc with the abrupt discontinuation of benzos

A

rebound

351
Q

how to test attention in person with low education level

A

random letter test

352
Q

while ________ is a first line tx for bipolar disorder, those individuals with greater than 3 manic or depressive episodes per year (rapid cycling) respond better to ____ or ______

A

Li

depakote, carbamazepine

353
Q

how to tx pregnant woman with bipolar

A

can use haldol

354
Q

global rigidity, AMS, fever, CV instability, elevated CPK, risk of rhabdo

A

NMS

355
Q

drugs for PTSD

A
  • SSRIs are first line

- prazosin (alpha 1 blocker) can help with reexperiencing, hyperarousal, avoidance

356
Q

Erikson’s 8 stages

A
trust vs. mistrust (birth to 1 year)
autonomy vs. shame and doubt (1-3 yrs)
initiative vs. guilt (3-5 yrs)
industry vs. inferiority (6-11 yrs)
identity vs. role diffusion (11 years to end of adolescence)
intimacy vs. isolation (21-40 yrs)
generativity vs. stagnation (40-65 yrs)
integrity vs. despair (>65 yrs)
357
Q

personality traits assoc with partial complex seizures

A

hyperreligious thinking, preoccupation w/ moral behavior, altered sexual behaviors, hypergraphia or over elaborative communication styles (viscosity), heightened experience of emotions

358
Q

tremor, diaphoresis, rigidity, myoclonus, autonomic dysregulation, hyperthermia, rhabdo, renal failure, coma

A

serotonin syndrome

359
Q

when stopping fluoxetine, you must wait ______ for washout before starting an MAOI

A

5 weeks (five half lives)

360
Q

foods with tyramine

A

liver, beer, red wine, aged cheeses, smoked fish, dry sausage, fava beans

361
Q

doses of thioridazine should not > 800 or you risk this complication

A

pigmentary retinopathy

362
Q

avoid this SSRI in dementia as it has anticholinergic effects and induce delerium

A

paroxetine

363
Q

dysarthria, ataxia, coarse tremor, abdominal pain –> seizures, neuromuscular irritability, impaired consciousness

A

Li toxicity

364
Q

for ECT to be effective, the seizure should last at least ______ seconds

A

25

365
Q

withdrawal from _____ can cause depression and SI in severe cases

A

cocaine

366
Q

this mood stabilizer may cause hypothyroidism

A

Li

367
Q

a posttraumatic dementia that develops after blunt head trauma

A

dementia pugilistica

368
Q

what is wellbutrin MOA

A

DA and NE reuptake inhibitor

369
Q

acute stress disorder lasts for a max of ______ weeks

A

4

370
Q

most common side effect of olanzapine

A

sedation

371
Q

this disorder is most commonly associated with ADHD

A

oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and conduct disorder

372
Q

irresistible attacks of refreshing sleep that occur during the day over at least 3 months

A

narcolepsy

373
Q

stranger anxiety usually occurs at ______ months

A

8

374
Q

separation anxiety usually occurs between _____ and _____ months

A

10 and 18

375
Q

nausea, sedation, weight gain, hair loss, transaminitis = side effects of which mood stabilizer

A

depakote

376
Q

diarrhea, severe tremor, polyuria, ataxia, confusion, seizures, gastric distress, weight gain, tremor, fatigue, cognitive deficits; kidney, herat, thyroid = side effects of which mood stabilizer

A

lithium

377
Q

CT finding in pts with schizophrenia

A

increased ventricle-to-brain ratio due to loss of brain weight

378
Q

ex: fear of/belief in infestation is an example of what?

A

delusional disorder

-hallucinations, if present, are not a primary feature and are congruent with the delusion

379
Q

which mood stabilizer causes hypothyroidism

A

lithium

380
Q

worsening of depression in the morning with some improvement in mood in the evening is typically seen in MDD with _________

A

melancholic features

381
Q

maintenance of rigid posture or resistance to commands and instructions

A

negativism

382
Q

best med to tx psychosis in a Parkinson’s disease patient

A

clozapine because it has the least D2 activity/activity in the basal ganglia/smallest likelihood of causing EPS

383
Q

pergolide

A

DA agonist used in PD as adjuvant therapy

384
Q

NAC is used in ________ overdose

A

acetaminophen

385
Q

if there is tolerance or withdrawal, you suspect ____________

A

dependence > abuse

386
Q

good tx for agoraphobia, specific phobia, and OCD

A

gradual exposure

387
Q

cocaine blocks ______ reuptake, which leads to psychosis

A

DA

388
Q

PCP MOA

A

NMDA receptor inhibitor, which affects glutamate

389
Q

multiple distinct personalities that assume control of the patient’s awareness of the environment and behavior

A

dissociative identity disorder

390
Q

nonbizarre delusions for at least 1 month

A

delusional disorder

391
Q

sudden onset of a florid psychotic episode immediately after a marked psychosocial stressor in the absence of increasing psychopathology before the stressor

A

brief psychotic disorder

392
Q

boys with mental retardation and autism; dysmorphic features (long face and enlarged ears)

A

fragile X- trinucleotide repeats

393
Q

seeking out situations or objects that are or were feared

A

counterphobic behavior

394
Q

zyprexa (olanzapine) can lead to severe weight gain

A

yep

395
Q

dizziness, ataxia, sedation, dysarthria, nausea, hyponatremia, cardiovascular conduction problems, rarely aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis

A

carbamazepine side effects

396
Q

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, sedation, dizziness, tremor, alopecia, weight gain

A

depakote side effects

397
Q

schizophrenia age of onset in men vs. women

A

men: 15-25
women: 25-35

398
Q
panic disorder is associated with which:
diabetes
hypoglycemia
MVP
obesity 
alcohol dependence
A

alcohol and other substance dependence

399
Q

necrosis of the globes pallidus is assoc with ______

A

CO poisoning

400
Q

the most common compulsion in OCD is _______

A

excessive or ritualized hand washing/showering/bathing/toothbrushing/grooming

401
Q

there are no absolute contraindications to receiving ECT (T/F)

A

T

402
Q

delusion that a famous person or superior is intensely in love with the patient

A

erotomanic delusion

403
Q

patient is on haldol and develops tardive dyskinesia… what do you do?

A

switch to an atypical

404
Q

h/o alcohol dependence, visual disturbances, AMS, papilledema, abdominal pain
what is this and how do you tx?

A

methanol poisoning; methanol –> formaldehyde –> formic acid (this is the problem)
tx with fomepizole (inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase)

405
Q

psychotic sxs in patients with advanced PD may be caused by _______

A

sinemet

406
Q

PD patients often develop this mood disorder

A

depression