Lana'i

Question 1

7.1 Airspeed Limitations

• Vmo
• Mmo
• Vo
• Vfe
• Vlo
• Vle

Answer 1

• Vmo: 240 KIAS (Maximum operating speed is the speed limit that may not be
  exceed at any time)
• Mmo: .48 MACH (Maximum operating limit speed is the speed limit that may not be deliberately exceeded in normal flight operations)
• Vo: 166 KIAS (10450lbs) 123 KIAS (5730lbs) (Maximum Operating Maneuvering airspeed is the maximum speed at which application of full available aerodynamic control will not overstress the airplane)
• Vfe: 15° 165 KIAS 30°/40° 130
• Vlo: 180 KIAS (Maximum landing gear operating speed is the maximum speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted)
• Vle: 240 KIAS

Question 2

7.2 Powerplant Limitations

Oil:
Capacity
Operating range
Takeoff NOT approved with _______ CAS Message

Answer 2

Capacity: 3.6Gal

Operating range: 1Gal
Inside green range

Takeoff not approved with ENGINE OIL LEVEL CAS message

Question 3

Fuel:
Approved Fuel Grades
When Anti Ice additive must be used
Total Fuel Capacity
Total Usable Fuel
Total Unusable
Maximum Fuel Imbalance
___ LCD segments on fuel indicator
Fuel can safely be used during _______________

Do not allow fueling with ________________

Answer 3

Approved fuel grades: JET A, JET A-1, JET B, JP-4
▪ Any other fuel that complies with latest revision of Pratt and Whitney Service Bulletin

o Anti-Ice additive must be used for all flight operations in ambient temperatures below 0° C

o Total Fuel Capacity: 406.8 Gal

o Total Usable Fuel: 402 Gal

o TotalUnusable:4.8Gal

o Maximum Fuel Imbalance 26.4 Gal
- 3 LCD segments on fuel indicator

o Fuel can be safely used during all Normal Category airplane maneuvers.

o Do not allow fueling with electrical busses powered or external power connected.

Question 4

Propeller:
4 Blade / 5 Blade
▪ Max Normal RPM:
▪ Max Transient RPM:
▪ Max Reverse RPM:
▪ Stabilized operation on the ground between _______ is not permitted.

Answer 4

Propeller
o4 Blade / 5 Blade
▪ Max Normal RPM: 1700 (+/- 30)

▪ Max Transient RPM: 1870

▪ Max Reverse RPM: 1650

▪ Stabilized operation on the ground between 350 and 950 RPM is not permitted.

Question 5

Generator

Max Continuous Load/ Max Load for 2 minutes**

Generator 1:

Starter/Generator 2:

Answer 5

Max Continuous load/max load for 2 minutes:

Generator 1 - 300/450 amps
Starter/Generator 2 - 300/450 amps

** Max load permitted for 2-minute period per each one hour of operation

Question 6

PCL Operation

Power Control Lever operation aft of the idle detent is prohibited:

Answer 6

▪ When engine is not running.

▪ During flight. Such operation may lead to loss of airplane control and total
power loss.

▪ When engine is controlled by the Manual Override System. Such operation may lead to loss of airplane control or may result in an engine/propeller overspeed condition and consequent loss of engine power.

Question 7

Chip Detector

Takeoff is not approved with:

Answer 7

Takeoff is not approved with ENGINE CHIP caution annunciator illuminated.

Question 8

Power Plant Window Markings

Answer 8

Red Amber Green Amber Red
(min Limit) (Caution) (Normal) (caution) (max Limit)

Torque (psi) N/A. N/A. 0-36.95psi. 36.95psi. 44.34psi

ITT (°C) N/A N/A 400-820°C 820°C 850°C

Engine Speed N/A 60% 60 - 103.5% 103.5% 104%

(Ng%)

Oil Temp (°C) N/A 10°C 10° - 105°C 105°C 110°C

Oil Pressure 60psi 90psi 90 - 135psi N/A 135psi

(psi)

Question 9

Engine Operating Limitations

SHP -

Takeoff - 1200

max Cont. Max Climb - 1200

Cruise - 1000

Max Reverse - 900

Answer 9

SHP

Takeoff - 1200

max Cont. Max Climb - 1200

Cruise - 1000

Max Reverse - 900

Question 10

Torque limit applies within a range of ____ to ____ propeller rpm

Answer 10

Torque limit applies within a range of 1000 to 1700 propeller rpm

Question 11

Torque is limited to ___ psi below ____ propeller rpm.

Answer 11

Torque is limited to 23.9 psi below 1000 propeller rpm.

Question 12

Normal oil pressure is __ to __ psi at gas generator speeds above ___

Answer 12

Normal oil pressure is 90 to 135 psi at gas generator speeds above 72%

Question 13

With engine torque below ___ psi, minimum oil pressure is __ psi at normal oil temperature (__ - __° C).

Answer 13

With engine torque below 35.87 psi, minimum oil pressure is 85 psi at normal oil temperature (60 to 70° C).

Question 14

Oil pressures under __ psi are undesirable.

Answer 14

Oil pressures under 90 psi are undesirable.

Question 15

Under emergency conditions, to complete a flight, a lower oil pressure of __ psi is permissible at reduced power level not exceeding __ psi torque.

Answer 15

Under emergency conditions, to complete a flight, a lower oil pressure of 60 psi is permissible at reduced power level not exceeding 23.9 psi torque.

Question 16

Oil pressures below __psi are unsafe and require that either the engine be shut down or a landing be made as soon as possible using the minimum power required to sustain flight.

Answer 16

Oil pressures below 60 psi are unsafe and require that either the engine be shut down or a landing be made as soon as possible using the minimum power required to sustain flight.

Question 17

1. This value is time limited to 5 seconds maximum.
2. These values are time limited to 20 seconds maximum.

transient:

TORQUE __psi,

Max ITT ___°C,

Np RPM ____,

Oil Pressure __ - ___psi

Answer 17

1. STARTING - Max ITT (1000°C)
2. TRANSIENT - TORQUE 61psi,

Max ITT 870°C,

Np RPM 1870,

Oil Pressure 40 - 200psi

Question 18

These values apply over a speed range of 50.7% to 61.4% Ng rpm

Answer 18

Min idle - Max ITT 750°C

Question 19

For increased service life of the engine oil, an oil temperature of between __ to __° is recommended.

Answer 19

60° - 70°C

Question 20

Oil temperature limits are __° C to __° C with limited periods of __ minutes at __ to __°C.

Answer 20

Oil temperature limits are -40° C to 105° C with limited periods of 10 minutes at 105 to 110°C.

Question 21

100% gas generator speed corresponds to _____ rpm. 100% power turbine speed (N1) corresponds to _____ rpm which also corresponds to ____ rpm propeller speed.

Answer 21

100% gas generator speed corresponds to 37468 rpm. 100% power turbine speed (N1) corresponds to 29894 rpm which also corresponds to 1700 rpm propeller speed.

Question 22

Takeoff power is time limited to _ minutes

Answer 22

5

Question 23

regarding which values, during which steady state operations (phases of flight), operation from ___ rpm up to ___ rpm is permitted to allow for governing accuracy.

Answer 23

During steady state operation, operation from 1670 rpm up to 1730 rpm is permitted to allow for governing accuracy.

Takeoff

Max Cont./Max Climb

Cruise

Question 24

Weight Limitations

Max Ramp Weight = ____ lbs.

Max Takeoff Weight = ____ lbs.

Max Landing Weight = ____ lbs.

Max Zero Fuel Weight = ____ lbs.

Answer 24

Max Ramp Weight = 10495 lbs.

Max Takeoff Weight = 10450 lbs.

Max Landing Weight = 9921 lbs.

Max Zero Fuel Weight = 9039 lbs.

Question 25

CG Limitations

At mat takeoff weight

Answer 25

CG Limitations

Weight. (lb) Foward Limit. (in) Aft Limit (in)

10450 232.2 240.43

Question 26

It is the responsibility of the ___ to make sure the airplane is loaded properly using the
“PC-12 Calculator” (all managed iPads) or via reference to Section 6 of the Pilot’s Information Manual.

Answer 26

It is the responsibility of the captain to make sure the airplane is loaded properly using the “PC-12 Calculator” (all managed iPads) or via reference to Section 6 of the Pilot’s Information Manual.

Question 27

This airplane is certificated in the ______ Category. Aerobatic maneuvers, including spins, are not approved.

Answer 27

This airplane is certificated in the Normal Category. Aerobatic maneuvers, including spins, are not approved.

Question 28

Flight load limits with flaps up +___ g - ___ g

Flight load limits with flaps down +___ g - ___g

Answer 28

Flight load limits with flaps up +3.3 g - 1.32 g

Flight load limits with flaps down +2.0 g - 0.0g

Question 29

The Pilatus PC-12 is approved for the following types of operation when the required equipment is installed and operational:

o VFRDay/Night

o IFR Day incl. CAT 1 approaches, single pilot

o IFR Night incl. CAT 1 approaches, single pilot

o Flight into Known Icing Conditions.

Answer 29

The Pilatus PC-12 is approved for the following types of operation when the required equipment is installed and operational:

o VFRDay/Night

o IFR Day incl. CAT 1 approaches, single pilot

o IFR Night incl. CAT 1 approaches, single pilot

o Flight into Known Icing Conditions.

Question 30

Starter Operating Limitations

Sequence ………………………………………………………………….. ________ Off

Sequence ………………………………………………………………….. ________ Off

Sequence ………………………………………………………………….. ________ Off

Answer 30

Sequence …………………………………………………………………………… 60 Seconds Off

Sequence …………………………………………………………………………… 60 Seconds Off

Sequence …………………………………………………………………………… 30 Minutes Off

Question 31

The Company does/doesnt maintain RVSM compliance for the PC-12; therefore:

Maximum operating altitude with two pilots is ____; and

Maximum operating altitude with one pilot is ____.

See oxygen chart for operating requirements.

Operations with one pilot above FL___ up to and including FL___ is allowed if that pilot wears, secured and sealed, an oxygen mask providing supplemental oxygen at all times during operations at those altitudes.

Answer 31

The Company does NOT maintain RVSM compliance for the PC-12; therefore Maximum operating altitude with two pilots is FL280; and

Maximum operating altitude with one pilot is FL250.3 See oxygen chart for operating requirements.

Operations with one pilot above FL250 up to and including FL280 is allowed if that pilot wears, secured and sealed, an oxygen mask providing supplemental oxygen at all times during operations at those altitudes.

Question 32

Cabin Pressurization Limitations

Maximum cabin pressure differential is ____ psi

Pressurized landing is approved, up to ___ psi

Answer 32

Maximum cabin pressure differential is 5.75 psi

Pressurized landing is approved, up to 0.7 psi

Question 33

Outside Air Temperature Limitations

Minimum Outside Air Temperature -__° C

Maximum Outside Air Temperature __° C

Answer 33

Minimum Outside Air Temperature -55° C

Maximum Outside Air Temperature 50° C

Question 34

Flight in icing conditions is only approved with ____________, ________ _ and _______ _ serviceable.

Answer 34

Flight in icing conditions is only approved with all ice protection systems, generator 1 and generator 2 serviceable.

Question 35

Flight in icing conditions is prohibited when the _______________ is active.

Answer 35

Flight in icing conditions is prohibited when the Propeller De Ice caution is active.

Question 36

During flight in icing conditions, if there is a failure of __________________, then ________________. Immediately request _______________ to facilitate a ___________ to exit the icing conditions.

Answer 36

During flight in icing conditions, if there is a failure of any of the aircraft ice protection systems exit icing conditions. Immediately request priority handling from Air Traffic Control to facilitate a route or an altitude change to exit the icing conditions.

Question 37

During flight in icing conditions or flight with any visible ice accretion on the airframe, the following flap maximum extension limits apply:

After failure of the airframe pneumatic deice boots, __° FLAP; With operational airframe pneumatic deice boots, __° FLAP;

In the event of a balked landing go-around with residual ice on the airframe, the flaps should not be retracted from the __° position.

Answer 37

During flight in icing conditions or flight with any visible ice accretion on the airframe, the following flap maximum extension limits apply:

After failure of the airframe pneumatic deice boots, 0° FLAP;

With operational airframe pneumatic deice boots, 15° FLAP;

In the event of a balked landing go-around with residual ice on the airframe, the flaps should not be retracted from the 15° position

Question 38

Flight in freezing rain, freezing fog, freezing drizzle and mixed conditions causing ice accretion beyond the protected areas of the pneumatic boots is/is not approved

Answer 38

Flight in freezing rain, freezing fog, freezing drizzle and mixed conditions causing ice accretion beyond the protected areas of the pneumatic boots is not approved.

Question 39

The aircraft must be clear of all deposits of ____, _____, and ____ adhering to the lifting and control surfaces immediately prior to takeoff.

Answer 39

The aircraft must be clear of all deposits of snow, ice and frost adhering to the lifting and control surfaces immediately prior to takeoff.

Question 40

In the event of a balked landing (go around) with residual ice on the airframe, the landing gear and flaps may not fully retract after selection.

Answer 40

In the event of a balked landing (go around) with residual ice on the airframe, the landing gear and flaps may not fully retract after selection.

Question 41

The _________________ must be operative prior to flight into forecast icing conditions at night.

Answer 41

The left-wing inspection light must be operative prior to flight into forecast icing conditions at night.

Question 42

During flight, severe icing conditions that exceed those for which the airplane is certificated shall be determined by the following visual cues.

If one or more of these visual cues exists, immediately request priority handling from ATC to exit the icing conditions:

Answer 42

If one or more of these visual cues exists, immediately request priority handling from ATC to exit the icing conditions:

Unusually extensive ice accumulation on the airframe and windshield areas not normally observed to collect ice

Accumulation of ice beyond the active portions of the wing pneumatic boots

Question 43

Pneumatic Deicing Boot Limitations

The pneumatic deice system boots are required/not required to be installed for all flights.

Preflight function test required/not required before takeoff and flight into known icing conditions.

The system is required/not required to function properly for flight into known icing conditions.

Operation of the pneumatic de-ice boot system in ambient temperatures below __°C and above __°C may cause permanent damage to the boots.

The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system must be/dont need to be activated at the first sign of ice formation anywhere on the aircraft.

The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system may be/may not be deactivated only after leaving icing conditions and after the aircraft is determined to be clear of ice.

Answer 43

The pneumatic deice system boots are required to be installed for all flights.

Preflight function test required before takeoff and flight into known icing conditions.

The system is required to function properly for flight into known icing conditions.

Operation of the pneumatic de-ice boot system in ambient temperatures below -40°C and above +40°C may cause permanent damage to the boots.

The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system must be activated at the first sign of ice formation anywhere on the aircraft.

The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system may be deactivated only after leaving icing conditions and after the aircraft is determined to be clear of ice.

Question 44

System and Equipment Limitations

Stall Warning / Stick Pusher:

Preflight function test required/not required before takeoff.

System is required/not required to function properly in normal mode for all flights and in ice mode for flight into known icing conditions.

Brakes:
To allow adequate cooling of the wheels and brakes the aircraft must remain onthe ground for at least __ min following the two events:

▪

▪

Trim Systems

o Stabilizer normal and alternate, and rudder trim systems must/may not function properly for all flights.

Answer 44

Stall Warning / Stick Pusher:

Preflight function test required before takeoff.

System is required to function properly in normal mode for all flights and in ice mode for flight into known icing conditions.

Brakes:
To allow adequate cooling of the wheels and brakes the aircraft must remain onthe ground for at least 45 min following the two events:

▪ Rejected takeoff with brake on speed greater than Vr - 20 kts and heavy brake usage.

▪ 0° flap full stop landing and heavy brake usage.

Trim Systems

o Stabilizer normal and alternate, and rudder trim systems must function properly for all flights.

Question 45

Heated Windshield

o Left Hand and Right-Hand Heated Windshields must/may not function properly for all flights. Exception, for IFR flights conducted into no known or forecast icing conditions at least __ heating zone of the windshield on the side of the pilot in command must function properly.

Answer 45

Heated Windshield

o Left Hand and Right-Hand Heated Windshields must function properly for all flights. Exception, for IFR flights conducted into no known or forecast icing conditions at least one heating zone of the windshield on the side of the pilot in command must function properly.

Question 46

Fire Detection System

o Preflight Function Test is/is not required for takeoff.

o System must/may not function properly for all flights.

Answer 46

Fire Detection System

o Preflight Function Test is required for takeoff.

o System must function properly for all flights.

Question 47

+Oxygen System

A minimum oxygen supply of __ minutes duration for each occupant is required for dispatch for pressurized flight above FL___.

The oxygen system shut-off valve handle in the cockpit must be selected to __ prior to engine start and throughout the duration of flight.

The oxygen masks for the crew must be ______ for all flights.

For aircraft with the Corporate Commuter sidewall paneling, oxygen masks must be connected and properly stowed for each passenger prior to takeoff when the aircraft is to be operated above ______

In the executive interior configurations, the oxygen masks are ______ connected.

Answer 47

• Oxygen System
o A minimum oxygen supply of 10 minutes duration for each occupant is requiredfor dispatch for pressurized flight above FL250.

o The oxygen system shut-off valve handle in the cockpit must be selected to on prior to engine start and throughout the duration of flight.

o The oxygen masks for the crew must be connected for all flights.

o For aircraft with the Corporate Commuter sidewall paneling ,oxygen masks must be connected and properly stowed for each passenger prior to takeoff when the aircraft is to be operated above 10,000 feet.

▪ In the executive interior configurations, the oxygen masks are permanently connected.

Question 48

PROBE HEAT

Preflight function test required/not required before takeoff

The system is required to function properly for ___ flight and flight ________________

Answer 48

PROBE HEAT

Preflight function test required before takeoff

The system is required to function properly for IFR flight and flight into known icing conditions.

Question 49

Flap System Cycle Limits

A flap cycle is defined as movement from _° to __° to __° and from _° to __° to __°

to __°.
▪ Maximum number of cycles per hour

Up to 25° C OAT = __

25° C to 50° C OAT = __

Answer 49

A flap cycle is defined as movement from 0° to 15° to 0° and from 0° to 15° to 40°to 0°.
▪ Maximum number of cycles per hour

Up to 25° C OAT = 10

25° C to 50° C OAT = 8

Question 50

Primus Apex
o The Honeywell PRIMUS APEX Integrated Avionics System for the Pilatus PC-12NG Pilot’s Guide must always/sometimes be on board the aircraft.

Answer 50

Primus Apex
o The Honeywell PRIMUS APEX Integrated Avionics System for the Pilatus PC-12

NG Pilot’s Guide must always be on board the aircraft.

Question 51

Primus Apex AFCS MUH

OpSpec C071 Autopilot Minimum Use Altitudes/Heights (MUH)

Minimum use heights:

Takeoff/initial climb

Enroute

Approach

Answer 51

Minimum use heights:

Takeoff/initial climb - 400’

Enroute - 1000’

Approach - APV/ILS 200’

Non-precision 400’

Question 52

During autopilot operation, a pilot must be seated in a _______ with _________.

Answer 52

During autopilot operation, a pilot must be seated in a pilot position with seat belt fastened.

Question 53

The ________ and _________ must be ___ during _______________. (AFC)

Answer 53

The autopilot (AP) and yaw damper (YD) must be OFF during takeoff and landing.

Question 54

The system is approved for Category _ operation (Approach mode selected) and autopilot coupled go-arounds initiated at _______________________

Answer 54

The system is approved for Category 1 operation (Approach mode selected) and autopilot coupled go-arounds initiated at decision altitude or minimum descent altitude.

Question 55

Maximum approved glideslope angle for all coupled approaches is __°.

Answer 55

Maximum approved glideslope angle for all coupled approaches is 4°.

Question 56

Maximum approved VNAV / VPATH coupled descent angle is __°

Answer 56

Maximum approved VNAV / VPATH coupled descent angle is 8°

Question 57

During normal operation do not overpower the autopilot to change ___ and ___ attitude.

Answer 57

During normal operation do not overpower the autopilot to change pitch and roll attitude.

Question 58

In accordance with FAA recommendation (AC 00-24C), the use of “PITCH ATTITUDE HOLD” mode is recommended during operation in _______________.

Answer 58

In accordance with FAA recommendation (AC 00-24C), the use of “PITCH ATTITUDE HOLD” mode is recommended during operation in severe turbulence.

Question 59

MAXIMUM PASSENGER SEATING LIMITATIONS

For take-off and landing the ______ and __________ must be fastened, the _______ tightened, and the __________ positioned to support the head.

Answer 59

For take-off and landing the seat lap and shoulder belts must be fastened, the lap belt tightened, and the seat headrest positioned to support the head.

Question 60

Cargo Limitations

STD-9S - ____ lb

EX-6S-STD-2S - ___ lb

EX-4S-STD-4S - ___ lb

EX-6S-2 - ___ lb

EX - 4S - ___ lb

Answer 60

Cargo Limitations

STD-9S - 265lb lb

EX-6S-STD-2S - 265 lb

EX-4S-STD-4S - 265 lb

EX-6S-2 - 400 lb

EX - 4S - 400 lb

Question 61

Maximum freight load

Answer 61

3300 lbs

Question 62

Cargo must be arranged to permit free access to the _________ and the ____________________

Answer 62

Cargo must be arranged to permit free access to the passenger door and the right-hand emergency over-wing exit.

Question 63

All cargo must be secured by approved Cargo Restraints as described in Section 6. Tie Down Straps with a breaking strength of at least ____ lbs. per strap must be used. All Cargo/Containers must be located against a Retaining Bar secured laterally to the seat rails.

Answer 63

All cargo must be secured by approved Cargo Restraints as described in Section 6. Tie Down Straps with a breaking strength of at least 1800 lbs. per strap must be used. All Cargo/Containers must be located against a Retaining Bar secured laterally to the seat rails.

Question 64

Items up to a total weight of __ lbs. can be stowed in the cabin area without being strapped down providing a Cargo Net is installed in front of the items. Cargo Nets may only be installed on the attachments at Frames __ and __. No passengers must be seated rearward of a Cargo Net.

Answer 64

Items up to a total weight of 66 lbs. can be stowed in the cabin area without being strapped down providing a Cargo Net is installed in front of the items. Cargo Nets may only be installed on the attachments at Frames 24 and 27. No passengers must be seated rearward of a Cargo Net.

Question 65

If an extendable baggage net is used the tie down fittings and the cargo strap fittings must have a minimum space of __ inches between the fittings.

Answer 65

If an extendable baggage net is used the tie down fittings and the cargo strap fittings must have a minimum space of 5 inches between the fittings.

Question 66

Smoking or vaping is prohibited in the _____ or _____ on any Company aircraft.

Answer 66

Smoking or vaping is prohibited in the cabin or lavatory on any Company aircraft.

Question 67

PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICE LIMITATIONS

The PC-12 NG is ________ tolerant.

The Safety Card instructs that handheld devices must be in _______ (non-transmitting) mode for ______, _________, and ________.

Answer 67

PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICE LIMITATIONS

The PC-12 NG is Transmitting-PED tolerant.

The Safety Card instructs that handheld devices must be in airplane (non-transmitting) mode for taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Question 68

Engine Operating Limitations

Torque

Takeoff -

Max Cont. Max climb. -

Cruise -

Transient -

Max. Reverse -

Answer 68

Torque

Takeoff - 44.34

Max Cont. Max climb. - 44.34

Cruise - 36.95

Transient - 61

Max. Reverse - 34.25

Question 69

Engine Operating Limitations

Max ITT °C

Takeoff -

Max cont. Max Climb. -

Cruise -

Min Idle -

Starting -

Transient -

Max Reverse -

Answer 69

Max ITT °C

Takeoff - 850

Max cont. Max Climb. - 820

Cruise - 820

Min Idle - 750 (5)

Starting - 1000 (3)

Transient - 870 (4)

Max Reverse - 760

Question 70

Engine Operating Limitations

NG %

Takeoff -

Max Cont. Max Climb. -

Cruise -

Min Idle -

Starting -

Transient -

Max Reverse -

Answer 70

NG %

Takeoff - 104

Max Cont. Max Climb. - 104

Cruise - 104

Min Idle - 60.7 (GI) 64 (FI)

Starting -

Transient - 104

Max Reverse -

Question 71

Engine Operating Limitations

Np RPM

Takeoff -

Max Cont. Max Climb. -

Cruise -

Min Idle -

Starting -

Transient -

Max Reverse -

Answer 71

Np RPM

Takeoff - 1700 (10)

Max Cont. Max Climb. - 1700 (10)

Cruise - 1700 (10)

Min Idle -

Starting -

Transient - 1870 (4)

Max Reverse - 1650

Question 72

Engine Operating Limitations

Oil Press PSI

Takeoff -

Max Cont. Max Climb. -

Cruise -

Min Idle -

Starting -

Transient -

Max Reverse -

Answer 72

Oil Press PSI

Takeoff - 90 - 135

Max Cont. Max Climb. - 90 - 135

Cruise - 90 - 135

Min Idle - 60 Min

Starting - 200 Max

Transient - 40 - 200 (4)

Max Reverse - 90 - 135

Question 73

Engine Operating Limitations

Oil Temp °C

Takeoff -

Max Cont. Max Climb -

Cruise -

Min Idle -

Starting -

Transient -

Max Reverse -

Answer 73

Oil Temp °C

Takeoff - 10 - 110

Max Cont. Max Climb - 10 - 105

Cruise - 10 - 105

Min Idle - -40 - 110

Starting - -40 Min

Transient - -40 - 110

Max Reverse - 10 - 105

Question 74

D073 - AAIP

___hr/__mo

___hr / ___mo

Answer 74

300hr / 6mo

600hr / 12mo

Question 75

D095 - MEL

Cat A: Must be repaired within…

Cat B: Must be repaired within…

Cat C: Must be repaired within

Cat D: Must be repaired within

Answer 75

Cat A: Must be repaired within the time interval specified in “remarks or exceptions” collumn of Certificate Holders FAA-Approved MEL

Cat B: Must be repaired within Repaired within 3 consecutive calender days (72hrs) excluding the calender day the malfunction was recorded in MX Logs

Cat C: Must be repaired within 10 consecutive calender days excluding the calender day the malfunction was recorded in MX Logs

Cat D: Must be repaired within 120 consecutive calender days excluding the calender day the malfunction was recorded in MX Logs

Question 76

Positive transfer of controls

A

B

C

Answer 76

Advise PM

Brief PM on current status (Atc Clearance, Automation, Flight path, etc…)

Change - “You have the controls”

“I have the controls”

Question 77

PIC Needs Immediate control - procedure

&

When may SIC exercise emergency authority to assume controls

Answer 77

“I have the Controls”

“You have the controls”

Brief reason for taking control as time permits

&

Sic may exercise emergency authority to assume controls only in the event of PIC Incapacitation

Question 78

If AP is engaged, who makes all AFCS Inputs?

What if its disengaged?

Who must confirm all changes and what is said to confirm?

Who must confirm and announce AFCS mode change annunciations for initial arming or capturing of a lateral or vertical guidance?

Answer 78

PF

PM

Pilot not operating the AFCS, “Set/Checked”

PF

Question 79

Who manages ATC communications unless busy with other duties?

If busy with other duties, what is said before leaving and upon return to ATC

Answer 79

PM

“I am off comm 1” & “I am back on Comm 1, any changes?”

Question 80

Flap Setting Changes inflight

When commanded to change the flap setting by the PF, the PM will

1.

2.

3.

4.

what airspeed in relation to Vfe should flaps be operated and why

Answer 80

1. Ensure speed below Vfe (decreasing or stable)
2. Report “speed checks, flaps __” after confirming correct speed
3. Visually confirm flap selector lever is in commanded position
4. Report “Flaps __ set” when flap movement ceases

Operate flaps 10KIAS below Vfe to prevent overspeed and required MX actions/inspections

Question 81

Landing Gear Setting changes in flight

When commanded by PF to operate landing gear, PM will

1.

2.

3.

What airspeedinrelation to Vlo should the gear be operated and why?

Answer 81

1. Check speed is decreaseing or stable below 180KIAS
2. Announce “Speed checks, Gear down”
3. Report “Gear down, Three green”

Operate Gear 10KIAS below Vlo to prevent overspeed & MX actions/inspections

Question 82

External Lights

__ operates external lights for taxi and Takeoff

__ operates external lights in flight and after landing

Prior to entering or crossing any runway, the ____ light, _____ lights, and _____ lights will be turned on

Answer 82

PF operates external lights for taxi and Takeoff

PM operates external lights in flight and after landing

Prior to entering or crossing any runway, the Taxi light, Landing lights, and Strobe lights will be turned on

Question 83

When must the following lights be on

Taxi lights

Answer 83

Anytime the aircraft is in motion on the ground, day or night

one flash signals to marshaller that you are ready to taxi

Question 84

When must the Navigation Nav lights be on

Answer 84

For all operations unless deferred per MEL for daytime operations

Question 85

When must the Rotating beacon be on

Answer 85

Prior to engine start & will stay on for all operations until the engine is shut down

May be turned off if causing distraction due to weather (IMC at night…etc)

Question 86

when must the Strobe lights be on

Answer 86

Just prior to takeoff & remain on during all flight operations exept when they may cause cockpit distractions in certain WX

Question 87

When must the Recog/pulse lights be on?

Answer 87

Prior to entering or crossing any runway & remain on below FL180 until clearing the landing RWY

Pulse (day)

Steady (night)

Question 88

When must the landing lights be turned on?

Answer 88

Prior to entering or crossing any runway

Question 89

when must the Wing (ice detection) light be operative?

Answer 89

known or forecast icing conditions at night

Question 90

__ Operates the Icing protection panel unless otherwise noted

Answer 90

PM

Question 91

When must the probes be on?

Answer 91

On at line-up check, until clearing runway at destination

Question 92

When must the windshield heat be operated?

Answer 92

As required for visibility (high humidity with condensation, icing, etc…)

Question 93

When should the Inertial Seperator be open?

Answer 93

During flight in icing or heavy Precip and during all taxi, takeoff, and landing operations

closed when not required to be open

Question 94

When should the Deice Boots and Prop heat be on?

Answer 94

ON at the first indication of icing conditions & remain on until no residual ice remains on the airframe

Question 95

when is the preflight test of ice protection equipment required?

Answer 95

First flight per crew and each flight into known or forecast icing conditions

Question 96

Describe the Challenge/Response method of Checklist usage

Answer 96

1. PF calls for appropriate checklist
2. PM states challenge item
3. PF confirms item is complete and set appropriately

Question 97

Describe the NON-Challenge method

Answer 97

1. PF calls for appropriate checklist
2. PM states each challenge item and confirms complete

Question 98

Aircraft Acceptance flow

When is this performed

What, in addition to the flow, should be accomplished after each flight and maintinence

Answer 98

Cabin Check

1. Fire Extinguisher………. INSTALLED BEHIND COPILOT SEAT
2. Briefing speaker………… CHARGED
3. Infant Life Vests………… FOR EACH INFANT PASSENGER
4. Life Vest…………………………INSTALLED FOR EACH PASSENGER SEAT
5. Safety card…………………. FOR EACH PASSENGER
6. Seatbelt………………………… ATTACHED TO EACH SHOULDER HARNESS
7. Heater Air Intake………. ON BAGGAGE STEP, NO AIRFLOW OBST.
8. Baggage restraints…. AS REQUIRED (BAGGAGE/CARGO NET), STRAPS
9. Aircraft Bag…………. (Engine inlet covers, tool bag (optional))
10. First Aid Kit……….. Sealed. (Not required by rule)
11. Cleaning kit……….. Main/leather, window, wipes, gloves, bags

performed after maintinence, and before each flight

Check for personal items left/company items taken after flights, especially between seats and sidewalls

Question 99

Acceptance flow - Documents

Answer 99

1. Airworthiness……….. SERIAL # CORRECT & IN PAX VIEW
2. Registration……………CURRENT & CORRECT TAIL & SERIAL #
3. POH Volumes1 & 2… BEHIND COPILOT SEAT
4. Primus Apex Pilots Guide… BEHIND PILOT SEAT
5. QRH……. PRINTED QRH ON BOARD (report worn or damaged to MX)
6. Aircraft binder…….

MX STATUS OVERVIEW - no inspections out of date/wont expire during flight.

LOGGING SHEET - Adequate space, & Hobbs entry matches current reading

OPEN MEL ITEMS - Binder cover shows MEL status. check for operational restrictions in current MEL & discuss

DISCREPANCY ENTRIES - must have corrective action or unexpired deferral. No open discrepancies permitted for flight (except specified MX flights)

VOR CHECKS - required within 30 days before use of each NAV Radio

WEIGHT & BALANCE FORM - Correct and in folder, matches weight, moment, & seating Config. used for calculations

7. IPads………. CHARGED AND UPDATED. W&B DATA MATCHES OFFICIAL DATA IN BINDER

Question 100

Acceptance Flow - Overhead Panel

Answer 100

1. Fuel Pumps…………………………………….. AUTO
2. Ignition………………………………………….. AUTO
3. External Lights……………………………….. OFF
4. PAX Warnign signs…………………………. OFF
5. AV busses, Cabin Bus, Gen Busses……. ON
6. STBY Bus, BAT Busses…………………… OFF
7. Bus Tie………………………………………….. CLOSED
8. EXT PWR……………………………………… CENTERED
9. Master Power & Gaurd……………………. ON & GUARDED
10. EPS……………………………………………… OFF

Question 101

Acceptance Flow - Pedestal

Answer 101

1. WX Radar……………………………………………….. STBY (OFF used for MX only)
2. Main Oxygen lever…………………………………… ON
3. Display Reversion Controls………………………. NORMAL/SET
4. ELT………………………………………………………… ARMED/GUARDED
5. Trim & flap Interrupts………………………………. NORM/GUARDED
6. MOR Lever…………………………………………….. OFF & STOWED
7. Power Lever…………………………………………….. IDLE
8. Condition Lever……………………………………….. CUTOFF/FEATHER
9. ⇔Flap…………………………………………………….. 0°
10. Cockpit/Instrument/Cabin light switches……. OFF
11. Fuel Firewall Shuttof lever……………………….. STOWED
12. Landing Gear Override Handle…………………. STOWED
13. ACS Firewall Shutoff Lever……………………… FULLY IN

Question 102

Acceptance Flow - Cockpit Sweep

Answer 102

1. Crew Oxygen Masks…………… 100% & CHECKED L/R
2. 110 Vac……………………………… ON
3. Emerg Com 1……………………… NORM
4. Aural Warn…………………………. ON
5. Mic Selects…………………………. MIC (L/R)
6. Oxygen Pressure………………….. CHECKED
7. PAX Oxygen Selector…………… AUTO
8. Circuit Breakers…………………… CHECKED (L/R)
9. Parking Brake………………………. SET/SIGN SET
10. ⇔Ice Protection………………….. OFF
11. Inertial Seperator…………………. OPEN
12. Landing Gear Handle…………… DOWN
13. ACS, ECS, CPCS Switches……. AUTO

Question 103

Before Start

Complete when ____ Pilots are present in Cockpit and approx __ Min or less from engine start

Answer 103

1. Preflight Checks……….. COMPLETE
   * Full external safety Inspection walkaround, cabin check, security inspection prior to first flight of day, after every crew change and after MX and before all other flights
2. Oxygen……….. ON, CHECKED, SET 100% (L/R)

• Indication must be below red line and adequate for upcoming flights
• Oxygen Pressure Gauge - note reading
• OAT - note reading
• % of full bottle - determine from “oxygen available with partially full bottle” graph” and compute in MIN
• determine oxygen duration in MIN for a full bottle for the number of connected pax oxygen masks and pilots from the “oxygen duration with full bottle” graph
• Multiply the full bottle duration by the % of usable capacity to obtain the available oxygen duration in minutes
• company policy: the oxygen masks associated with each pax seat will always remain attached to its outlet

3. Circuit Breakers…….. Checked (L/R)
   * check if any circuit breakers have tripped since last check. Consult MX personnel for guidance before proceeding
4. WX & Clearance……… RECEIVED, ATIS ___
   * obtain ATC Clearance and lcl WX/NTM info. review en route and dest WX if appropriate

Turn on STBY Bus (at a minimum) according to sequence below to operate radios and program FMS

5. FMS/ Fuel REM………… REVIEWED/__.__/FLT ID SET

• SIC programs FMS and PIC verifies FMS is correct
• after, both pilots must review FMS for correct data/routing
• check fuel rem box on waypoints pg displays appr #. REQUIRED for VNAV
• during INIT Programming: check databases will stay current for entire flight day & flt ID matches ATC callsign for upcoming flight. Databases expire at 2400Z on the last day listed under each database heading
• 6.* Takeoff Power Setting………….. ___ PSI
• Calculate takeoff torque setting from POH Static Takeoff torque chart (Speed Card or Foreflight documents). This will be the target torque setting for Takeoff. ACS must be inhibited before takeoff if target setting is below the flat portion of the chart
  7. SEBB……….. BUSSES ON/ARMED, EPS LIGHT OFF
• The electrical system must be powered up in the following sequence:
  1. STBY BUS - ON
• FMS and radio tasks may be completed using only the STBY bus to conserve battery power, if desired
  1. EPS bus - TEST for 5 sec (green TEST light must stay on during test), then. EPS bus - ARMED
• Red “EPS ON” light must illuminate until main batteries are on. Wait until lower MFD displays map page and ESIS begins aligning before continuing
  1. ​BAT 1 - ON, BAT 2 - ON
• The red “EPS ON” light must extinguish once the main batteries are on
• When Completing before start checklist, Check*:

Standby bus switch is on

EPS switch is armed

Battery 1 and Battery 2 busses are on

Red “EPS ON” light has extinguished

8. EXT PWR………… ON (or NOT AVAILABLE)
   * If using external Power, allow PFD 1 to display before selecting External power - ON
9. *External Lights……… CHECKED

Question 104

After Takeoff

Both pilots begin this flow after ______* or ______*.

Answer 104

*LIFTOFF, *GO-AROUND/MISSED APPROACH

(PM CALLS)“POSITIVE RATE”

(PF CALLS, PM SETS)“GEAR”
“YAW DAMPER”
“FLAPS”
“TAXI/LANDING LIGHT”

(PF)
ICE PROTECTION…………………………………AS REQUIRED

(PM)
ACS BLEED AIR……………………………………AUTO/PRESSURE CHECKED

(PF)
POWER………………………………………………….CLIMB POWER

Question 105

Cruise

____* completes cruis flow after _____* at intermediate and final cruising altitudes.

Answer 105

*PF, *LEVEL OFF

(PF)
ICE PROTECTION……………………………….AS REQUIRED

POWER……………………………………………….SET [PER CRUISE CHART]

ENGINE INSTRUMENTS…………………….GREEN

CPCS…………………………………………………..CHECKED [▵P 5.75MAX, ADJUST A/C]

FUEL…………………………………………………..CHECKED

Question 106

Descent Flow

Begin descent flo no later than ______* or ______* (if cruising above FL180)

Answer 106

*TOP OF DESCENT, *PASSING BELOW TRANSITION ALTITUDE

(PM)
ATIS/WEATHER INFORMATION

(PF/PM)
ALTIMETERS……………………………………..__.__ SET AND CROSSCHECKED

(PM)
LANDING FIELD………………………………..[LFE]____SET

(PF)
APPROACH BREIFING/SET UP…………..COMPLETE

(PM)
ICE PROTECTION………………………………AS REQUIRED/SEPARATOR OPEN

RECOG LIGHTS/SIGNS………………………ON

Question 107

Landing

Complete landing checklist prior to descending below ____ AGL*. Autopilot may remain on until the minimum authorized altitude.

Answer 107

*500’

LANDING GEAR…………………………..DOWN THREE GREEN

FLAPS…………………………………………..______

EXTERNAL LIGHTS…………………….ON

CABIN PRESSURE……………………….BELOW 0.7

AIRSPEED……………………………………______

AUTOPILOT/YAW DAMP……………..OFF
(Autopilot can be disconnected no lower than 200’ on ILS/APV, and 400’ on non-precision approach)

Question 108

After Landing Flows

Complete the after landing flows when ____* of the runway after landing, exept item ____* may be completed before exiting the runway.

Answer 108

*CLEARED, *#1

ON THE RUNWAY

(PF)
CONDITION LEVER……………………….GROUND IDLE [2MIN COOLDOWN]

(PM)
TIMER……………………………………………START

AFTER EXITING THE RUNWAY

(PF)
TRIMS……………………………………………GREEN RANGE

ICE PROTECTION………………………….AS REQUIRED

(PM)
FLAPS……………………………………………0 ▶︎ 15

WX RADAR…………………………………..STBY

LIGHTS…………………………………………AS REQUIRED
*(Normally, TAXI, BEACON, and NAV light will be on)

(Turn off all light exept NAV and BEACON when approaching ground marshaller or others to avoid blinding effect)*

Question 109

Parking Flow

PIC completes the securing flow after the last flight of the day, before leaving the airplane unattended, or before towing.

Answer 109

Main oxygen lever……………………………………OFF

Flight control lock……………………………………INSTALLED
Instal the flight control lock after the last flight of the day and if wind or other aircraft may affect flight control movements while aircraft is parked on the ramp.

Parking brake………………………………………….RELEASED [if chocked or towing]
Release the parking brake if the aircraft is chocked or about to be towed. Never leave an aircraft unattended unless chocked or parking brake is set with brakes pressurized.

Brake sign………………………………………………DISPLAYED

Sunshades………………………………………………INSTALLED

Tail stand……………………………………………….AS REQUIRED

Tie downs………………………………………………AS REQUIRED

Wheel chocks…………………………………………AS REQUIRED

Propeller anchor……………………………………..INSTALLED

External covers………………………………………INSTALLED

Cockpit dome light…………………………………OFF

Question 110

Shutdown Flow

Begin the shutdown flows once _____* and PIC has ____________.*

Answer 110

*STOPPED, *CONTROL OVER THE AIRCRAFT

ABOVE THE LINE

(PIC)
PCL…………………………………………IDLE

PARKING BRAKE…………………..SET

ICE PROTECTION…………………..OFF

(SIC)
Call out……………………………………“2 minutes, ITT stable”

(PIC)
CONDITION LEVER………………..CUTOFF

(SIC)
EXTERNAL LIGHTS/SIGNS…….OFF [EXEPT NAV]

CABIN…………………………………….DEPRESSURIZED

FLIGHT PLAN/TIMES……………..CLOSED AND NOTED

• Verify items above line and wait at least 1 minute after shutdown before continuing.
• —————————————————————————————————————————–*

BELOW THE LINE

(PIC)
CAS OIL QTY WARNING…………ABSENT [REFILL IF DISPLAYED]

EXT PWR…………………………………AS REQUIRED

STBY BUS SWITCH…………………OFF ▶︎ ON

EPS………………………………………….OFF ▶︎ ARMED

BAT 1+2…………………………………..OFF ▶︎ ON

Question 111

The PC-12 has a ___ Turbine Engine, meaning that..

Answer 111

Free Turbine, meaning that the compressor and power sections spin in opposite directions

Question 112

Type of Engine & HP

Answer 112

Pratt and Whitney PT6A-67P

1600SHP flat rated to 1200

Question 113

service ceiling

Answer 113

FL300

Question 114

Glide Ratio

Answer 114

16:1

about 2.6NM per 1000’

Question 115

when does the shaker activate?

The pusher?

Answer 115

about 8kt above stall

about 2kt above stall

Question 116

How many fuel pumps and what drives each?

Answer 116

2 Motive flow, 2 Boost pump, and 2 engine driven pumps

Question 117

5.75psi = ___mbar

Answer 117

400

Question 118

Trim indications

Answer 118

green for ground/takeoff

white in the air

red for takeoff warning

white with green dot in lower right corner for autotrim

white with yellow box in lower corner for invalid autotrim

big X for invalid data

Question 119

What activates Pusher ICE Mode?

What does Pusher ICE Mode do?

Answer 119

Seperator open and Propeller heat on

decreases pusher/shaker actions by 8°

Question 120

When should the Ignition switch be set to ON?

Answer 120

Wind shear, Heavy Precip, turbulence

Question 121

ITT stands for

Sensor is located

Answer 121

Inter-Turbine Temperature

T5 (station 5)

Question 122

5 FAS messages

Answer 122

1. Stall
2. Gear
   - Gear up with ASI below 130, power idle
   - Flaps set to 30° or 40° with gear up
   - Radar altitude below 200 & torque below 10PSI
3. Speed
   - Exceedance of any V Speed
4. No Takeoff
   - Trim out of green, flaps 0°, Ground idle
5. Cabin
   - Oxygen: Cabin Pressure above 0.7 on the ground

Question 123

recommended torque settings for

500fpm descent

cruise

slowing

150kts

Answer 123

500fpm descent - 10 PSI

cruise - 36.9 PSI

slowing - 30 PSI

150kts - 15 PSI

Question 124

VFR Minimum Altitudes and Visibility

135. 203(a)(1)(2)
136. 205(a)

Answer 124

135.203(a)(1)(2)

Except for takeoffs and landings, Company pilots must not operate aircraft below the following heights:

1. During the day: 500’ above the surface; and not less than 500’ horizontally from any obstacle
2. At night: 1000’ (2000’ in designated mountainous terrain) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 miles from the course intended to be flown
3. 205(a)
   (a) . Company pilots must not operate VFR in uncontrolled airspace when the ceiling is less than 1000’ unless flight visibility is at leat 2 miles

Question 125

VFR Fuel Supply

135.209(a)(1)(2)

Answer 125

Company pilots may not begin a flight under VFR unless, considering wind and forecast weather conditions, it has enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising fuel consumption:

1. During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or
2. At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes

Question 126

IFR Desination Airport Weather Minimums

135.219

Answer 126

Company pilots may not depart IFR or begin IFR or over the top operation, unless the latest weather reports or forecasts indicate that weather conditions at the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport will be at or above authorized IFR landing minimums

Question 127

IFR Alternate Airport Requirements

135. 223(a)(1)(2)(3)
136. 223(b)(1)(2)(3)

Answer 127

Company pilots may not conduct a flight under IFR unless it carries enough fuel considering weather reports or forecasts, to:

1. Complete the flight to the destination airport; and
2. Fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and
3. Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

The alternate, referenced above, is not required if there is a published standard instrument approach procedure for the destination airport and, for at least one hour before and after the estimated time of arrival, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts indicate that:

1. The ceiling will be at least 1500’ above the minimum circling altitude; or
2. If circling is NA for the airport, the ceiling will be at least 1500’ above the lowest published straight in minimum, or 2000’ above the airport elevation, whichever is higher; and
3. Visibility for that airport is forecast to be at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is the greater, for the instrument approach procedure to be used at the destination airport

Question 128

IFR Alternate Airport Weather Minimums

14 CFR 119.43(b)(1)(2)

135.221

OpSpecs C055

Answer 128

14 CFR 119.43(b)(1)(2) - Certificate holder’s duty to maintain operations specifications.

(b) Each certificate holder shall insert pertinent excerpts of its operations specifications, or references thereto, in its manual and shall -
(1) Clearly identify each such excerpt as a part of its operations specifications; and
(2) State that compliance with each operations specifications requirement is mandatory.
135. 221 - (a) Aircraft other than rotorcraft. No person may designate an alternate airport unless the weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above authorized alternate airport landing minimums for that airport at the estimated time of arrival.

OpSpecs C055

a. The certificate holder is authorized to derive alternate airport weather minimums from table 1 below, according to the limitations and provisions of this operations specification

For Airports with at least one operational navigational facility providing a straight in nonprecision approach procedure, or CAT I precision approach, or, when applicable, a circling maneuver from an IAP

Ceiling - Add 400’ to MDA(H) or DA(H), as applicable

Visibility - Add 1SM or 1600 m to the landing minimum

For airports with at least 2 operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in approach procedure to different suitable runways

Ceiling - Add 200’ to higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the two approaches used

Visibility - Add 1/2SM or 800 M to the higher authorized landing minimum of the two approaches used

b. Special Limitations and Provisions
1. The certificate holder must not use an alternate airport weather minimum other than any applicable minimum derived from table 1.
* The company must not designate an alternate airport unless the weather reports or forecasts indicate that the weather conditions will be t or above authoried alternate airport landing minimums for that airport at the estimated time of arrival*
* Alternate airport weather minimums may only be derived from the table in OpSpecs C055*
* Jeppesen Takeoff Minimums“FOR FILING AS AN ALTERNATE”section may include restrictions that limit use of one or more approaches or the airport entirely as an alternate airport under certain times or conditions (e.g., “Authorized Only When Twr Operating”or “Authorized Only When Local Weather Available”). Keep in mind such restrictions are alwaysbinding when using an alternate airport. That said, the alternate weather minimums (if the alternate is authorized) are derived from OpSpec C055.*

Question 129

Unscheduled One and Two Pilot Crews - Flight time limitations

Answer 129

14 CFR 135.267(a-f)1.The Companywill not schedule, and no Company pilot will accept, any flight if that flight time, when added to any other commercial flyingtime, would cause them to exceed:

a. 500 hours in any calendar quarter.
b. 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters.
c. 1,400 hours in any calendar year.
2. During any 24 consecutive hours,the total flight time for the assigned flight,when added to any other commercial flyingtimeby that pilot,may not exceed:
a. 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot.
b. 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified under Part 135 for the operation being conducted.
3. A pilot’s flight time may exceed the flight time limits of paragraph (2),above,if:
a. The assigned flight time occurs during a regularly assigned duty period of no more than 14 hours; and
b. This duty period is immediately preceded by and followed by a required rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours of rest; and
c. Any flight time is assigned during this period, when added to any other commercial flying time by the pilot,does not exceed:
i. 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or
ii. 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots;and
iii. The combined duty and rest periods equal 24 hours.
4. Each assignment under paragraph (3) above must provide for at least 10 consecutive hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the planned completion time of the assignment.
5. When at pilot has exceeded the daily flight time limitations listed above, because of circumstances beyond the control of the Company or pilot(such as adverse weather conditions), that pilot must have a rest period before being assigned or accepting an assignment for flight time of at least:
a. 11 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by not more than 30 minutes.
b. 12 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 30 minutes, but not more than 60 minutes.
c. 16 consecutive hours of rest if the flight time limitation is exceeded by more than 60 minutes.
6. Each pilotmust be provided at least 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar quarter.
7. The Company must not assign a pilot any duty during any required rest period.

Question 130

When PAX oxygen is set to auto, it permits automatic pressurization of the passenger oxygen system when:

Answer 130

• The cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) senses a cabin altitude above 13500’ +/-500’
• In HI FIELD mode, the cabin altitude is sensed above takeoff/landing field elevation +2000’ or 14500’ +/-500’

Question 131

Trim must be set to the _______ when CG is ___ of ___

Answer 131

Trim must be set to the diamond when CG is aft of 236

Question 132

Steep turn flow

Answer 132

Entry

1. Cruise Checklist………. Complete
2. Torque……………………. As required to maintain ASI and ALT (~15 PSI)
3. Airspeed…………………. 150 KIAS +/-10 KIAS
4. Bank Angle…………….. Roll Smoothly to 45°
5. Altitude………………….. Maintain Constant +/-100’

Exit

1. Airspeed…………………. 150 KIAS +/-10 KIAS
2. Bank Angle…………….. Roll Smoothly to wings level
3. Altitude………………….. Maintain Constant +/-100’
4. Cruise Checklist……… Completed

Question 133

Approach to Stall - Enroute Clean Configuration

Answer 133

Beginning of Maneuver

• Altitude 5000’ AGL
• PCL Idle
• AP/YD/FD OFF
• Landing Gear up
• Flaps 0°

Stall and Recovery

At Stick Shaker Activation:

• Reduce AOA
• PCL Set Takeoff Torque
• As DSB Centers Initiate a Climb
• Verify Flaps 0°
• Landing gear retracted

Completion of Maneuver

• Level off at Starting Altitude +/-100’
• Airspeed 150 KIAS +/-10 KIAS
• Maneuver Complete

Question 134

Approach to stall - Takeoff Configuration

Answer 134

Beginning of Maneuver

• Altitude 5000’ AGL
• PCL Set 15 PSI
• AP/YD/FD Off
• Landing Gear Up
• Flaps 15°(<165 KIAS)
• PCL Idle
• Commence Turn 15° Bank

Stall and recovery

At Stick Shaker Activation

• Reduce AOA
• Roll Wings Level
• PCL Set Takeoff Torque
• As DSB Centers Initiate a Climb
• When ASI is Greater Than 100 KIAS, Select Flaps 0°

Completion Of Maneuver

• Level off at Starting Altitude +/-100’
• ASI 150 KIAS +/-10KIAS
• Maneuver Complete

Question 135

Approach To Stall - Landing Configuration

Answer 135

_Beginning of Maneuve_r

• Altitude 5000’ AGL
• PCL Set 15 PSI
• AP/YD/FD OFF
• Landing Gear Down Below 180KIAS
• Flaps 40° (Below 130 KIAS)

Stall and Recovery

At Stick Shaker Activation

• Reduce AOA
• PCL Set Takeoff Torque
• As DSB Centers Initiate a Climb
• Flaps 15°
• Climbing - Landing Gear Up
• When ASI is Greater Than 100 KIAS, Select Flaps 0°

Completion Of Maneuver

• Level off at Starting Altitude +/-100’
• ASI 150 KIAS +/-10 KIAS
• Maneuver Complete