LABS 1-6 (PART 1) Flashcards

1
Q

Monosaccharide

A

Simple sugar (eg. Glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Disaccharide

A

Two joined monosaccharides by glycosidic bonds (eg. Sucrose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Polysaccharide

A

Many monosaccharides joined together (eg. Starch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Peptide

A

Very short chain of amino acids (less than 20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Polypeptides

A

Long chains of amino acids up to 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Proteins

A

Hundreds of amino acids folding into 3 dimensional structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lipids

A

Phospholipids, steroids, triglycerides. Triglycerides used to store metabolic energy and these fats consists of glycerol molecule with three fatty acid molecules attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Positive control

A

Presence of substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Negative control

A

Absence of substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of having controls

A

Controls are used as a way to compare within other test results (samples) that are measured. Controls can increase the validity of experimental findings by being able to directly observe findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Structural differences between glucose and starch

A

Glucose is a simple sugar (monosaccharide) whereas starch is a polysaccharide made up of repeating units of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Structural differences between peptides and protein

A

Peptides are short chains of amino acids and are less complex. Proteins are larger and longer molecules made up of many peptide subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Structural differences between saturated and unsaturated FA

A

Saturated fatty acids lack double bonds between carbons and are solid at room temperature (animal origin; butter). Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds between carbons and are liquid at room temperature (plant based; olive oil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Solute

A

Substance dissolved in solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Solvent

A

Water in most cases and is the substance that dissolves the solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diffusion

A

Particles move from higher concentration to lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Osmosis

A

Diffusion of water and particles move from lower concentration to higher concentration through a semi-permeable membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the purposes of positive and negative controls in the experiment

A

Provides a means of comparison for the dialysis tubing and beaker water samples to determine which solutes diffused through tubing membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In the cellular transport lab, what must ALWAYS be put into a negative control

A

20 drops of distilled water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If testing for glucose, what two substance must go into positive control

A

20 drops of glucose and benedict’s reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In cellular transport lab, which substance was able to diffuse through the dialysis tube

A

Glucose turned orange (positive control color) after 10/20 minutes, and sodium chloride turned white (positive control color) after 10/20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the cellular transport lab, why are some substances able to pass through the membrane while others cannot:

A

Due to their molecular properties. Sodium chloride in this case, is an ionic compound and is also small enough and therefore can pass through the pores of the dialysis tube easily. Whereas proteins are larger molecules so it is difficult to pass through and did not diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the cellular transport lab, was there any evidence that osmosis had occurred?

A

There is a evidence that osmosis had occurred, due to the weight gain of the dialysis tube and after placed in the beaker of water for 10 minutes. The water molecules moved into the dialysis tube to the higher concentration (weight gain of 0.07g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the cellular transport lab, was there any evidence that osmosis had occurred?

A

There is a evidence that osmosis had occurred, due to the weight gain of the dialysis tube and after placed in the beaker of water for 10 minutes. The water molecules moved into the dialysis tube to the higher concentration (weight gain of 0.07g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In the cellular transport lab, why did the results differ after the 10 and 20 minute intervals for the cellular transport lab

A

As time passes, cells continue to travel until equilibrium is reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Active transport

A

Particles moving against concentration gradient using ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In the cellular transport lab, which culture of yeast demonstrated diffusion

A

Both the alive and dead yeast demonstrated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the cellular transport lab, which culture of yeast demonstrated active transport

A

Only the alive yeast demonstrated active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In the cellular transport lab, why were dead yeast cells examined

A

Dead yeast cells act as a control group to compare with live cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Blue stained yeast

A

Indicates dead yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Clear yeast

A

Indicates alive yeast since the living cells enzymatically reduce the dye to a colorless product and become unstained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Can diffusion and osmosis occur at the same time

A

If a semipermeable membrane is present, osmosis and diffusion can occur at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Can active and passive transport occur simultaneously

A

Yas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Power switch

A

Turns on the microscope powered by electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Illuminator

A

Path of light that goes through the microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Intensity control

A

Adjusts the intensity of the light coming from lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Condenser

A

Concentrates and focus light from below stage onto microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Stage

A

Slide is placed on the stage and has a spring loaded clip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Iris diaphragm lever

A

Controls contrast of image by altering size of opening of diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Objective lens

A

Relays the image of the object to the eye piece (4x, 10x, 40x)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Nose piece

A

Mounts the objective lens and revolves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ocular lens

A

Magnifies the image produced by the microscope (10x)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Course focus knob

A

Adjusts height of stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fine focus knob

A

Sharpen the focus quality of image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stage control

A

Maneuvers the stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where are epithelial tissues in animals found

A

Lining and covering other tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where are epithelial tissues in plants found

A

Only on the outermost layer of cells consisting of only one cell type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

3 basic cell types of epithelium

A

Squamous, cuboidal, columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium characteristic/function/location in body (4)

A
  • Flat/thin
  • Centrally located nucleus
  • Diffusion, filtration, protection
  • Found in lining of esophagus, mouth, vagina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium characteristic/function/location in body (4)

A
  • Cube shaped
  • Centrally located nucleus
  • Secretion, absorption
  • Found in ducts and secretory portions of small glands and kidney tubules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Simple columnar epithelium characteristic/function/location in body (4)

A
  • Taller than wide
  • Elongated nucleus
  • Absorbs/secretes mucus and enzymes
  • Ciliated tissues found in bronchi, uterine tubes, and uterus. Non ciliated found in digestive tract and bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the two ARRANGEMENTS of epithelial cells common in body

A

Simple (1 layer) and stratified (more than 1 layer) epithelial tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Function of squamous epithelial cells of buccal cavity (6)

A
  • Protect against abrasion; infection/injury
  • Selective diffusion
  • Secretion of lubricating fluid
  • Filtration
  • Absorbtion
  • Sensation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Functions of cuboidal cells in kidney

A

Absorption and secretion of molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Functions of epithelial tissue in humans

A

Protection, absorption, filtration, diffusion and osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What cell structure keeps plant cells rigid

A

Cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When stained with methylene blue (buccal cell) and haemalum acid (onion cell), the nuclei were the only cellular structures that stained. This has to do with the stains being cationic (positively charged). What charge do you think the nuclei are in order to be stained?

A

Negative (anionic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Connective tissue

A

Helps form framework of organs by connecting various tissues that make up organs and are composed of a small number of cells and large amounts of extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Extracellular matrix

A

Composed of fibers and ground substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

3 fibers of the ECM:

A
  • Collagen
  • Elastic
  • Reticular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Collagen fiber

A

Strength and flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Elastic fiber

A

Strength and elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Reticular fiber

A

Contains type III collagen fibers that branch and interwoven together for support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Ground substance

A

Gelatinous matrix that fills space between fibers and cell (~90% water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

3 broad categories of connective tissue

A
  • Proper
  • Supportive
  • Fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Connective tissue proper

A

Subdivided into loose and dense depending on arrangement of fibers within matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Loose connective tissue

A

Areolar, reticular, adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Adipose

A

Composed of fat cells (adipocytes) for energy storage and contain large globules of fat, found under skin surrounding organs between muscle fibers in pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Areolar

A

Provides support and helps protect tissues, organs, and muscles found under epithelia of skin, mucous membrane, capillaries and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Dense connective tissue

A

Regular and irregular categories and can resist stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Dense regular

A

Has fibers arranged on one plane able to resist tension in a single direction. Found in ligaments and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Dense irregular

A

Has fibers arranged in random ways and can resist tension from many different directions. Found in the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Supportive connective tissue supportive

A

Cartilage and bone; ECM is gel-like which allows resilience to the structure it supports

73
Q

3 types cartilage

A

Hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

74
Q

Hyaline cartilage function

A

Helps move bones smoothly past each joint, found in ribcage, nose, and covers bones of action point at joints

75
Q

Fibrocartilage function

A

Acts as cushion within joints to manage compressive forces and reduce stress, found in disks between vertebrae, meniscus in knees

76
Q

Elastic cartilage function

A

Provides both strength and elasticity to certain parts of body such as the ear, found in larynx, external ear, epiglottis

77
Q

2 types of bones

A

Compact and spongy (cancellous); ECM is rigid allowing for support and protection of tissues and organs

78
Q

2 types bones

A

Compact and spongy (cancellous)

79
Q

Fluid connective tissue

A

Blood and lymph; Lacks fibers and links different parts of body together

80
Q

Blood

A

Transport O2 and nutrients to lungs and tissues found in blood vessels, heart chambers, lungs

81
Q

Why is hyaline cartilage smooth

A

Due to their functions of helping bones move smoothly each other in joints

82
Q

Where is elastic and fibrocartilage found in body

A

Elastic cartilage typically found in external ear and epiglottis. Fibrocartilage is found in knee joints, between each vertebrae, pubic symphysis

83
Q

Plan diagram

A

No cellular detail and consists of only lines to show boundaries

84
Q

What type of connective tissue is found in frog intestine slide and what function does it play?

A

Areolar connective tissue wraps and cushions organs and plays a role in immune response and holds/conveys tissue fluids

85
Q

What type of epithelial tissue is found in frog intestine and where

A

Columnar epithelium located in the middle surrounding the lumen (lining of intestine) for absorbing and secreting mucus and enzymes

86
Q

What are the two layers of smooth muscle in frog intestine and what is the difference

A

Longitudinal smooth muscle and circular smooth muscle. Longitudinal smooth muscle contraction causes intestine to shorten and expand, whereas circular smooth muscle contracts and relaxes to adjust the size of the lumen. They both work together in the movement and digestion of food

87
Q

Meninges

A

3 membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord consisting of a tough outer dura mater, a thin inner pia mater, and a middle arachnoid mater

88
Q

Ventricle functions of brain

A

Filled with CSF for mechanical and chemical protection and to exchange nutrients and waste between blood and nervous tissue

89
Q

Lateral ventricle location

A

Situated laterally in the anterior part of forebrain

90
Q

3rd ventricle location

A

Narrow cavity superior to hypothalamus between left and right halves of thalamus

91
Q

4th ventricle location

A

Between brain stem and cerebellum (posteroinferior to the colliculi)

92
Q

Frontal lobe function

A

Voluntary control of skeletal muscles

93
Q

Parietal lobe function

A

Conscious sensory perception (touch, taste, pain, temperature)

94
Q

Occipital lobe function

A

Conscious visual perception

95
Q

Temporal lobe function

A

Hearing, smell, learning, memory, visual recognition, emotional behavior

96
Q

Cerebrum

A

Responsible for perception, interpretation of sensory impulses and association of impulses concerned with emotional and intellectual processes

97
Q

Midbrain function

A

Reflex center for movement of eyeballs and head in response to sight and sound impulse

98
Q

Pons function

A

Subconscious motor center, breathing regulation and relay of sensory information

99
Q

Medulla oblongata function

A

Pathway for motor and sensory fibers between brain and spinal cord. Consists of 3 vital centers; cardiac center for heart beat, respiratory center for rate and depth of breathing, vasomotor center for regulating blood pressure, and reflex center for swallowing, sneezing, vomiting

100
Q

Cerebellum function

A

Coordination of muscular movement, maintenance of posture, and equilibrium

101
Q

Spinal cord function

A

Reflex center and conduction pathway

102
Q

Thalamus function

A

Interpretation center for some sensory impulses and relay for sensory impulses for cerebral cortex

103
Q

Superior colliculis function

A

Combines sensory information about visual space, auditory space, ad somatosensory space

104
Q

Inferior colluculis function

A

Auditory brain stem pathway

105
Q

At the cellular level, what is the difference between white matter and gray matter that results in their color differences

A

Gray matter is the region with many cell bodies and dendrites and white matter is region with many axons. White matter is white caused by presence of myelin (lipid covering on axon) created by specialized cells called oligodendrocytes and gray matter is not necessarily gray as it can be pink due to blood content or even slightly tan depending on how long the tissue had been preserved

106
Q

Olfactory

A

Smell

107
Q

Optic

A

Vision and pupillary response

108
Q

Oculomotor

A

Movement of eyes itself and pupillary response

109
Q

Trochlear

A

Movement of eyes up and down

110
Q

Trigeminal

A

General sensation, chewing of muscles and jaw movement

111
Q

Abducens

A

Movement of eye side to side

112
Q

Facial

A

Taste and movement of facial muscles

113
Q

Vestibulocochlear

A

Hearing and balance

114
Q

Glossopharyngeal

A

Taste and touch in pharynx and movement of muscles that aid in swallowing

115
Q

Vagus

A

Taste and movement of muscles controlling larynx and pharynx

116
Q

Accessory

A

Supply motor fibers to trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

117
Q

Hypoglossal

A

Innervate muscles of tongue

118
Q

Names mnemonic for the cranial nerves

A

Oh Oh Oh To Take A Family Vacation, Go Vegas And Hawaii/On On On They Travelled And Found Voldemort Guarding Very Ancient Houses

119
Q

Types mnemonic for cranial nerves

A

Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Believes Big Brains Matter Most

120
Q

True or false, spinal cord relays sensory information from the brain to the rest of the body

A

False, spinal cord transmits nerve signal from brain to the rest of the body and carries sensory information from body to brain

121
Q

Describe the neural pathway for a patellar tendon stretch reflex

A

When the hammer/mallet strikes the patellar tendon, the muscle fibres stretch and stimulate the sensory neurons within those fibres. A nerve impulse is generated and travels from the sensory nerve in the muscle to the spinal cord. The sensory neuron stimulates a motor neuron within the spinal cprd. The motor neuron sends a nerve impulse back to the muscle causing it to contract which causes the leg to kick

122
Q

2 types of skin receptors

A

Free neuron endings and encapsulated neuron endings

123
Q

Free neuron endings

A

Upon stimulation, can produce sensations of pain, touch, hot and cold

124
Q

4 types of encapsulated neuron endings:

A
  • Meissner’s corpuscles: responsive to light touch and low frequency vibration
  • Pacinian corpuscles: Responsive to pressure changes and high frequency vibration
  • End bulb krause: Responsive to light pressure
  • Ruffini’s corpuscles: Responsive to pressure, heat, and stretch
125
Q

In the nervous system lab, what was the point of performing physiological tests for modality and recording results

A

To get the basic understanding of how our bodies respond to touch, temperature, pain in our nervous system

126
Q

In the nervous system lab, what does the shortest distance at which a subject can distinguish two points tell us about the number of sense receptors found in each area

A

It tells us the density of sense receptors and the size of neural receptors. The shorter the distance, the more sensory receptors in that region, and the more accurate my sensory perception was

127
Q

In the nervous system lab, which location had the greatest density of nerve fibers and what is the significance

A

Fingertips had the greatest density of nerve fibers considering that it was the region with the shortest distance of the two point test. This is significant as it is most sensitive to touch. Other parts of the body with a high abundance of sensory receptors include tongue and lips

128
Q

3 layers of the eye:

A
  • Fibrous tunic
  • Vascular tunic
  • Neural tunic
129
Q

Fibrous tunic

A

Composed of dense vascular connective tissue with 2 regions; sclera and cornea

130
Q

Vascular tunic

A

Pigmented layer in the middle of the eye with 3 regions; choroid, ciliary body, iris

131
Q

Neural tunic

A

Innermost layer of eye consisting of retina with photoreceptors (rods and cones)

132
Q

Sclera

A

White layer that covers posterior portion of eye

133
Q

Cornea

A

Transparent layer that covers anterior tip of eye to allow light through

134
Q

Choroid

A

Highly vascularized and provides blood supply to eye

135
Q

Ciliary body

A

Muscular structure where the lens is attached via suspensory ligaments and produces aqueous humor

136
Q

Iris

A

Pigmented layer

137
Q

Pupil

A

Round opening through which light passes

138
Q

Retina

A

Contains photoreceptors (rods and cones) located all over except for where the optic nerve leaves the eye ball (optic disc/blind spot)

139
Q

Macula lutea

A

Lateral to optic disc with an area of high cone density and in its center is the fovea that contains only cones and area of highest visuals

140
Q

Where does the retina terminate

A

Retina does not cover entire inner surface of eye. It terminates anteriorly at ora serrata

141
Q

2 cavities of the lens

A

Anterior cavity that contains a watery substance called aqueous humor that nourishes lens and cornea while maintaining intraocular pressure, whereas posterior segment contains viscous vitreous humor whose role is for intraocular pressure

142
Q

2 chambers of aqueous humor

A

Anterior chamber located between iris and cornea, and posterior chamber located between lens and iris

143
Q

What fluid fills the anterior cavity

A

Aqueous humour

144
Q

What fluid fills the posterior cavity

A

Vitreous humour

145
Q

Based on what you know about the retina and the posterior cavity, how can the retina become detached during trauma

A

When vitreous humor gets behind the retina

146
Q

Why is the optic disc called the blind spot?

A

Lacks photoreceptors (rods/cones) in this region of the eye. Photoreceptors are very important because they convert light signals into electrical signals that travel to the brain to enable us to interpret visual information

147
Q

What is the fovea

A

Small depression found in the middle of macula lutea. Within the fovea, the retina only contains cones resulting in least amount of incoming light so it has the highest visuals

148
Q

Choroid function

A

Nourishes retina and absorbs light rays

149
Q

What cranial nerves are responsible for transmission of images from the retina

A

Optic nerves

150
Q

Why is the vascular tunic layer pigmented

A

To prevent light from bouncing around and the melanin absorbs light to prevent it from bouncing around the eye and potentially triggering photoreceptors multiple times

151
Q

How is the ciliary body used to focus eyesight

A

It alters shape of the lens by contraction or relaxation of ciliary muscles and the shape ultimately affects how light is directed to retina

152
Q

What attach ciliary body to lens

A

Suspensory ligaments

153
Q

What happens when your eyes are focused on something in front of your nose

A

Ciliary muscle contracts, lens is more convex, and suspensory ligaments loosen

154
Q

What happens when your eyes are focused on something across the room

A

Ciliary muscles relaxes, lens is more flat, and suspensory ligaments are taut

155
Q

What happens to the size of a pupil when it is exposed to light

A

Constrict

156
Q

Significance of pupillary reflex for low light level

A

Allows eye to adjust the amount of light reaching retina and protects photoreceptors from bright lights

157
Q

How do you know which eye is dominant

A

By doing the triangle test (if the object stays center when one eye is closed, then it is dominant)

158
Q

When one eye was closed, was it harder to insert a pencil?

A

Yes, as each eye views objects from a slightly different perspective

159
Q

Outer ear

A

esponsible for sound collection via pinna and transmits sound to auditory canal and tympanic membrane

160
Q

Middle ear

A

Consists of 3 small bones and the eustachian tube; malleus, incus, stapes and takes vibration from tympanic membrane and transmits it to oval window of inner ear

161
Q

Inner ear

A

Responsible for hearing and balance consisting of oval window, round window, semicircular canals

162
Q

Eustachian tube

A

Regulates pressure differences between middle and outer ear

163
Q

Which structure is responsible for static equilibrium

A

Vestibule

164
Q

How is the tympanic membrane able to transmit sound

A

The tympanic membrane transmits sound through vibrations. These vibrations are received by the ossicles

165
Q

Pathway that sound vibration goes through the ossicles

A

Vibrations come from tympanic membrane, then malleus, then incus, then stapes. Stapes connects to cochlea via oval window

166
Q

Cochlea function

A

It is a coiled tube containing fluids, channels, and membranes that transmits sound vibrations to the organ of corti

167
Q

Symptom of potentially damaged semicircular canals

A

The function of semicircular canals is to monitor head movement and regulate dynamic equilibrium. Damage to these structures could affect hearing and losing the sense of balance

168
Q

How does the organ of corti function to produce nerve impulse

A

Converts mechanical vibrations from sound waves into electrical signals through the stimulation of hair cells which triggers the auditory nerve to send signals to brain

169
Q

What cranial nerve is responsible for relaying sound information and what else is it responsible for

A

Vestibulocochlear (sensory) + also responsible in balance

170
Q

Conduction deafness

A

An inability to hear resulting from damage in the structures that transmit sound to to structures of the middle or inner ea

171
Q

Neural Deafness

A

Occurs when there is either significant damage to the cochlear branch of nerve VIII or damage to the hair cells inside the cochlea

172
Q

What frequency range do humans hear best

A

Frequency range of 500 to 5,000 hertz

173
Q

What frequency range does human speech range

A

Frequency range of 100-3,000 hertz

174
Q

Actual size calculation

A

Field of view (FOV)/# cells or structures that fit across

175
Q

Drawing magnification calculation

A

Drawing size (in um)/actual size

176
Q

Layers of frog intestine

A
  • Mucosa (Epithelial tissue)
  • Submucosa (Connective tissue)
  • Muscularis (Smooth muscle)
177
Q

Epithelial tissue in frog intestine

A

Simple columnar epithelial and found lining entire alimentary canal

178
Q

Connective tissue in frog intestine

A

Areolar connective tissue present in mucosa and submucosa layers of alimentary canal

179
Q

Smooth muscle functions in frog intestine

A

Move materials through intestine by action of longitudinal and circular fibers

180
Q

Field of View

A

5000um, 2000um, 500um