LABORATORY MANAGEMENT Flashcards

1
Q

Requires leaders to provide directions and managers to get things done.

A

Effective Laboratory Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Two stages where most laboratory errors occurs.

A

Preanalytical and Postanalytical Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Two quality management tools that can be used to reduce laboratory errors and increase productivity,

A

Six Sigma and Lean Six Sigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The law that regulates laboratory activities.

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment of 1988

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Two essential roles within organizations that contribute to overall success and growth.

A

Leadership and Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can be defined as the ability to inspire, influence, and guide others towards achieving a common vision or goal.

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

It involves setting a clear direction, providing motivation, and fostering innovation and creativity.

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

It is not limited to a formal position and can be exhibited at any level within an organization.

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Often visionary, proactive, and focus on long-term strategies.

A

Leaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

They empower and inspire their members, promote collaboration, and create a positive work environment.

A

Leaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Provides high support but low direction in accomplishing duties.

A

Supportive Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Presents rules, orders, or other defined instructions, but limited rules.

A

Directive Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Provides low support and low direction, allowing competent (generally, more experienced) staff to assume accountability and responsibility to complete goals.

A

Delegating Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Provides high support and high direction by guiding individuals to make real-time decisions with appropriate support and corrective actions as needed.

A

Coaching Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It is the process of planning, organizing, and controlling resources to achieve specific objectives and targets.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Typically hold formal positions and are responsible for ensuring efficient operations and the execution of tasks.

A

Managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

They focus on creating detailed plans, assigning tasks, coordinating activities, and monitoring progress.

A

Managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Often follow established procedures and rules to achieve goals within set timelines.

A

Managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Their role is to maintain stability, oversee day-to-day operations, and provide guidance and support to their team members.

A

Managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

More concerned about completing the day’s work.
o Supervisors
o Team leaders
o Chief technologists

A

First-Line Managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Straddle both areas to some degree by engaging in a variety of activities that may be strategic as well as tactical.
o Operations manager
o Division heads

A

Middle Managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Concrete on strategizing and planning for the next one to five years.
o Laboratory directors
o Board of directors
o Various C-suite [top-level] executives

A

Top-Level Managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Leaders and Managers share some common traits, their distinct difference lies in their ___ and ____.

A

Focus and Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Emphasizes inspiring and influencing people to achieve a shared vision.

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

More about guiding and empowering individuals.

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Often associated with a long-term perspective, fostering innovation and collaboration.

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

About people, vision, and inspiration.

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Focuses on organizing resources and ensuring tasks are completed efficiently.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Concerned with directing and controlling activities.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Associated with short-term planning and achieving specific objectives.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

About process, tasks, and control.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Administrator

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Organizer and Developer

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Risk Taker

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Inspiration

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Thinks long term

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Asks what and why

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Challenges status quo

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Does the right thing

A

Leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Implementer

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Maintains control

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Things short term

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Asks how and when

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Watches bottom line

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Accepts status quo

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Is a good soldier

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

LEADER VS MANAGER TRAITS:
Does things right

A

Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Plays a central role in health care.

A

Laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Plays a leading role in education, research, information technology design and implementation, and quality improvement.

A

Laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Impact on up to 70% of medical decisions.

A

Laboratory Results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Remains as a vital tool in the practice of diagnostic medicine.

A

Clinical Laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The process by which high-level decisions are made.
o Deciding on the objectives of the organization and the need to modify existing objectives if appropriate.
o Allocating resources to attain these objectives
o Establishing policies that govern the acquisition, use, and disposition of these resources

A

Strategic Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Usually based on long-term projections and a global view that can have an impact on all levels of a laboratory’s operations.

A

Strategic Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Planning that consists of the detailed day-to-day operations needed to meet the immediate needs of the laboratory and works toward meeting the long-term strategic goals that have been set.

A

Tactical Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Kind of decisions that may burden a laboratory with unnecessary costs, unused equipment, and/or overstaffing, making it that much harder to change course in response to future market forces or new organizational strategies.

A

Wrong Decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Planning that requires appropriate data collection by observing current and projected conditions in the following areas:
o Social
o Technological
o Economic
o Environmental
o Political

A

Successful Strategic Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Generally, not the work of a single individual but rather involves a diverse and dedicated committee.

A

Effective Data Collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An essential factor that each member of the committee must embrace and agree to in the early stages of the strategic planning process.

A

Commitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Use current technology/instrumentation

A

Strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Have excess technical capacity

A

Strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Increased test volume will decrease cost per test

A

Strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Strong leadership support

A

Strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Financial resources available

A

Strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Staffing shortage

A

Weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Morale issues

A

Weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Inadequate courier system

A

Weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Need to hire additional pathologist

A

Weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Limited experience in providing multihospital/client LIS services

A

Weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

SWOT ANALYSIS:
Turnaround times are marginal

A

Weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

QUALITY SYSTEMS MANAGEMENT:
o Inaccurate patient identification
o Ordering the wrong test
o Improper specimen collection, transportation, and receipt

A

Preanalytical Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

QUALITY SYSTEMS MANAGEMENT:
o Inappropriate samples (incorrect blood tubes for particular analyses)
o Calibration errors
o Instrument malfunctions
o Presence of interfering substances
o Failure to verify results

A

Analytical Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

QUALITY SYSTEMS MANAGEMENT:
o Reports being sent to the wrong health care provider
o Long turnaround times
o Missing reports
o Improper interpretation of test results by healthcare providers

A

Postanalytical Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

This management have been the standard approaches to quality leadership and management.

A

Total Quality Management (With Continuous Quality Improvement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A systems approach that focuses on teams, processes, statistics, and the delivery of services/products that meet or exceed customer expectations.

A

Total Quality Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Strives to continually look for ways to reduce errors (“defect prevention”) by empowering employees to assist in problem solving and getting them to understand their integral role within the greater system (“universal responsibility”)

A

Total Quality Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

An element of TQM that strived to continually improve practices and not just meet established quality standards.

A

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Acceptable quality

A

Traditional Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Department focused

A

Traditional Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Quality as expense

A

Traditional Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Defects by workers

A

Traditional Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Management-controlled worker

A

Traditional Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Status quo

A

Traditional Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Manage by intuition

A

Traditional Thinking

84
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Intangible quality

A

Traditional Thinking

85
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
We VS They relationship

A

Traditional Thinking

86
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
End-process focus

A

Traditional Thinking

87
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Reactive Systems

A

Traditional Thinking

88
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Error-free quality

A

TQM Thinking

89
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Organization focused

A

TQM Thinking

90
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Quality as means to lower costs

A

TQM Thinking

91
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Defects by system

A

TQM Thinking

92
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Empowered worker

A

TQM Thinking

93
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Continuous quality improvement

A

TQM Thinking

94
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Manage by fact

A

TQM Thinking

95
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Quality defined

A

TQM Thinking

96
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Us relationship

A

TQM Thinking

97
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
System process focus

A

TQM Thinking

98
Q

[QUALITY MANAGEMENT] TRADITIONAL THINKING VS TQM THINKING:
Proactive Systems

A

TQM Thinking

99
Q

SIX SIGMA STEPS:
Project goal or other deliverable that is critical to quality.
o Emergency department results in less than 30 minutes from order.

A

Define

100
Q

SIX SIGMA STEPS:
Baseline performance and related variables.
o Baseline performance: 50% of time results are within 30 minutes, 70% within 1 hour, and 80% within 2 hours, etc.
o Variables: Staffing on each shift, order-to-laboratory receipt time, receipt-to-result time, etc.

A

Measure

101
Q

SIX SIGMA STEPS:
Data using statistics and graphs to identify and quantify root cause.
o Order-to-receipt time is highly variable because samples are not placed in sample transport system immediately and samples delivered to laboratory are not clearly flagged as emergency.

A

Analyze

102
Q

SIX SIGMA STEPS:
Performance by developing and implementing a solution.
o Samples from emergency department are uniquely colored to make them easier to spot among routine samples.

A

Improve

103
Q

SIX SIGMA STEPS:
Factors related to the improvement, verify impact, validate benefits, and monitor overtime.
o New Performance: Results available 90% of time within 30 minutes.

A

Control

104
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

Major Challenges for today’s manager:
o Recruiting
o Hiring
o Training
o Retaining qualified personnel

A

Human Resource Management

105
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

Competition with other health care professions has necessitated implementing creative recruitment incentives, such as salaries, benefit packages, and better work environments.

A

Human Resource Management

106
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

“If the position remained unfilled or downgraded, how would that impact patient care?”

A

Human Resource Management

107
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

Recruiting, hiring, training, and retaining qualified personnel have become major challenges for today’s manager, and projections indicate that these challenges will continue to grow.

A

Human Resource Management

108
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

The laboratory is a high-value asset in diagnostic medicine.

Compared to other clinical specialties, the laboratory generates a high volume of tests requiring expensive equipment and skilled personnel.

A

Financial Management

109
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

Laboratory Leadership should understand basic financial concepts such as:
o How services are reimbursed
o Why payment may be denied
o Broad regulations that govern reimbursement as well as basic accounting
o Financial analyses

A

Financial Management

110
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

Must have an understanding of these is essential to conduct business in a compliant manner and ensure payment for services rendered:
o Charge masters
o Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Codes
o International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10)

A

Financial Management

111
Q

WHAT TYPE OF MANAGEMENT:

Laboratory leadership should understand basic financial concepts, such as how services (such as laboratory tests) are reimbursed, why payment may be denied, broad regulations that govern reimbursement as well as basic accounting (e.g., direct and indirect costs, budgets) and financial analyses.

A

Financial Management

112
Q

LABORATORY DESIGN AND SERVICE MODELS:

Provided in many different ways and can be thought of as a continuum from POCT producing immediate answers to highly sophisticated laboratory tests that may take days to complete.

A

Laboratory Services

113
Q

LABORATORY DESIGN AND SERVICE MODELS:

Its relationship to other testing sites within a facility has evolved from discrete hematology, chemistry, microbiology, and blood bank sections to one where boundaries have been obscured.

A

Functional Design of a Laboratory

114
Q

LABORATORY DESIGN AND SERVICE MODELS:

A consolidation process on a grand scale.

A

Regionalization

115
Q

LABORATORY DESIGN AND SERVICE MODELS:

It is important regardless of the type of laboratory and may be accomplished best by implementing.

A

Facility Design

116
Q

Consider:
o Localization of the specimen-processing area
o Patient registration and data entry
o Specimen testing workflow
o Short- and long-term storage
o LIS connectivity requirements

A

Laboratory Design and Service Models

117
Q

LABORATORY DESIGN AND SERVICE MODELS:

Laboratory services are provided in many different ways and can be thought of as a continuum from ___ ___ ___ ___ producing immediate answers to highly sophisticated laboratory tests that may take days to complete.

A

Point-of-care-tests

118
Q

LABORATORY DESIGN AND SERVICE MODELS:

Creating a ___, ____ ____ offers a number of efficiencies, such as eliminating the purchase of redundant instrumentation and supplies, better use of technology, sharing of common equipment (centrifuges, incubators, refrigerators, etc.), and access to technical expertise.

A

Centralized, Core Laboratory

119
Q

REGULATION, ACCREDITATION, AND LEGISLATION:

___ ____ is necessary to avoid legal or administrative repercussions that may limit a laboratory’s operations or shut it down completely.

A

Laboratory Practice

120
Q

REGULATION, ACCREDITATION, AND LEGISLATION:

To operate (and receive reimbursement for services), laboratories must be ____ and often ____ under federal and/or state requirements.

A

Licensed and Accredited

121
Q

What is the meaning of AABB?

A

American Association of Blood Banks

122
Q

It is the technical standards and accreditation of blood banks.

A

AABB (American Association of Blood Banks)

123
Q

What is the meaning of CDC?

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

124
Q

It is the standards and guidelines primarily related to infection control and safe work practices.

A

CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)

125
Q

What is the meaning of CLSI?

A

Clinical Laboratory and Standards Institute

126
Q

It is the standards on all aspects of lab practice developed through voluntary consensus.

A

CLSI (Clinical Laboratory and Standards Institute)

127
Q

What is the meaning of ISO?

A

International Organization for Standardization

128
Q

It is the standards to facilitate international exchange of goods and services.

A

ISO (International Organization for Standardization)

129
Q

What defines standards for quality management in medical labs?

A

ISO 15189

130
Q

What is the recognition granted by nongovernmental agency to institutions that meet certain standards?

A

Accreditation

131
Q

Is accreditation voluntary or mandatory?

A

Voluntary

132
Q

What is the recognition granted by nongovernmental agency to individuals who meet education requirements and demonstrate entry-level competency by passing exam?

A

Certification

133
Q

Is certification voluntary or mandatory?

A

Voluntary

134
Q

What is the permission granted by the state to individuals/organizations to engage in certain professions/business and it is also illegal to practice/operate in that state without it?

A

Licensure, you need “License” to practice

135
Q

Is licensure voluntary or mandatory?

A

Mandatory

136
Q

SAFETY:

___ ___ ___ ___ can inherently expose staff, and potentially the public, to a variety of hazards, including infectious biological, toxic chemicals, and various levels of radioactive materials.

A

Routine Clinical Laboratory Activities

137
Q

SAFETY:

Laboratories are obligated to ____ ____, implement safety strategies to ____ the ____ and continually audit existing practices to ensure employee compliance.

A

Identify and contain hazards

138
Q

It is the frequent safety policy reviews, disaster drills, and employee awareness training help maintain safe patient and work environments.

A

Safety

139
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies:

It is the general procedures/policies that mandate measures to reduce or eliminate exposure to hazard.

A

Work Practice Controls

140
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

____ is very important before and after patient contact.

A

Handwashing

141
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

Cleaning surfaces with ____.

A

Disinfectants

142
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

Avoiding ___ ___ of needles and sharps and ___ ____.

A

Unnecessary use; not recapping

143
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

___ bag waste for disposal.

A

Red

144
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

Immunization for ____.

A

Hepatitis

145
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

___ ___ to minimize repetitive tasks.

A

Job Rotation

146
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

No ___, ___, or ___ in the laboratory.

A

Eating, Drinking, or Smoking

147
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Work Practice Controls:

___ signage.

A

Warning

148
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies:

It is the safety features built into the overall design of a product.

A

Engineering Controls

149
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Engineering Controls:

___-___ ___ for disposal and transport of needles and sharps.

A

Puncture-resistant containers

150
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Engineering Controls:

Safety needles that automatically ___ after removal.

A

Retract

151
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Engineering Controls:

___ bags.

A

Biohazard

152
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Engineering Controls:

___ guards.

A

Splash

153
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Engineering Controls:

___-liquid containers.

A

Volatile

154
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Engineering Controls:

Centrifuge ___ buckets.

A

Safety

155
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies, Engineering Controls:

____ ____ cabinets and fume hoods.

A

Biological Safety

156
Q

In Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies:

It is barriers that physically separate the user from a hazard.

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

157
Q

What hazard expose an unprotected individual to bacteria, viruses, parasites, or prions that can result in injury?

A

Biological Hazards

158
Q

What hazards exposure occurs from:
o Ingestion
o Inoculation
o Tactile contamination
o Inhalation of infectious material from patients or their body fluids/tissues
o Supplies or materials they have been in contact with or contaminated needles
o Aerosol dispersion

A

Biological Hazards

159
Q

Blood, other body fluids, and any unfixed tissue samples are always assumed to be ___ ___ for various ___ ___ pathogens.

A

Potentially infectious; blood-borne

160
Q

All clinical laboratories are mandated by ___ to develop and actively follow plans that protect laboratory workers from potential exposure to hazardous chemicals.

A

OSHA

161
Q

What did OSHA published requiring the manufacturers of chemicals to evaluate the hazards of the chemicals that they produce and to provide written documentation accompanying each product in the form of Safety Data Sheets (SDS; formally Material Safety Data Sheets or MSDS).

(2)

A

Hazard Communication Standard (OSHA, 1994b)

Chemical Hygiene Plan (OSHA, 1990)

162
Q

In the safety diamond:

What does red mean?

A

Flammable area

163
Q

In the safety diamond:

What does yellow mean?

A

Reactivity area

164
Q

In the safety diamond:

What does blue mean?

A

Health area

165
Q

In the safety diamond:

What does white mean?

A

Special Dangers area

166
Q

What chemical should be stored below counter level or in their respective cabinets?

A

Acids

167
Q

What chemical should be separated from flammable and combustible material, bases, and active metals?

A

Acids

168
Q

Should inorganic acids be separated from organic acids?

A

Yes

169
Q

Should oxidizing acids be separated from organic acids?

A

Yes

170
Q

What chemical should be separated from acids?

A

Bases

171
Q

Where should you store inorganic hydroxides?

A

Polyethylene containers

172
Q

What should be limited in a work area?

A

Flammables

173
Q

What should be stored in approved safety cans or cabinets?

A

Flammables

174
Q

Should you separate oxidizing acids and oxidizers?

A

Yes

175
Q

What should be separated from reducing agents, flammable, and combustible materials?

A

Oxidizers

176
Q

What chemical should be kept away from water and should be stored in a dry, and cool place?

A

Water-reactive chemicals

177
Q

What class of fire is cloth, wood, and paper?

A

Class A

178
Q

What extinguishers (2) should you use for class A fire?

A

1) Pressurized Water (A)
2) Dry Chemical (ABC)

179
Q

In this class of fire, do not use water on electrical fires or burning liquids.

A

Class A

180
Q

What class of fire does flammable or combustible liquids belong to?

A

Class B

181
Q

What extinguishers should you use for class B fire?

A

1) Dry Chemicals (ABC)
2) CO2 (BC)

182
Q

What class of fire is electrical equipment?

A

Class C

183
Q

What extinguishers should you use for class C fires?

A

1) Dry Chemicals (ABC) - May damage electrical equipment
2) CO2 (BC) - Will not damage computers etc.

184
Q

What class of fire is combustible metals? And should you extinguish it by yourself?

A

Class D, No

185
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level is no hazard in health?

A

Level 0

186
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level can cause significant irritation in health?

A

Level 1

187
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level can cause temporary incapacitation or residual injury in health?

A

Level 2

188
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level can cause serious or permanent injury in health?

A

Level 3

189
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level can be lethal in health?

A

Level 4

190
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level will not burn in flammability?

A

Level 0

191
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level must be pre-heated for ignition to occur in flammability?

A

Level 1

192
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level must be heated or in a high ambient temperature to burn in flammability?

A

Level 2

193
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level can be ignited under almost all ambient temperatures in flammability?

A

Level 3

194
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level will vaporize and burn at normal temperature in flammability?

A

Level 4

195
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level is stable in instability?

A

Level 0

196
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level at high temperature makes it unstable in instability?

A

Level 1

197
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level is violent chemical change at high temperature of pressure in instability?

A

Level 2

198
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level may explode from high temperature or shock in instability?

A

Level 3

199
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What level may explode at normal temperature and pressure in instability?

A

Level 4

200
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What does W mean in special hazards?

A

Unusual reactivity with water

201
Q

In National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazmat Diamond:

What does OX mean in special hazards?

A

Oxidizer

202
Q

What requirement is a test tube, vial, etc. containing etiologic agent must be securely closed, watertight, surrounded by adsorbent material and placed in secondary container?

A

Primary Container

203
Q

What requirement must be watertight, sealed, and placed in an approved mailing container?

A

Secondary Container

204
Q

What requirement must be made of fiberboard?

A

Mailing Container

205
Q

What is required on primary and mailing containers?

A

Labeling/Biohazard Labels

206
Q

What do you call when employees must be trained and retrained every two to three years or when regulation changes?

A

Training