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MLT 120- Hematology > LAB MLT 120 Final > Flashcards

LAB MLT 120 Final Flashcards

1
Q

increased O-F

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

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2
Q

decreased OF; room to expand
found in hemoglobinopathies
Thalessemia, Sickle cell anemia

A

target cells

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3
Q

SS

AS

A

sickle cell genotype

sickle cell trait

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4
Q

HJB is made of?

A

DNA

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5
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

RNA

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6
Q

Pappenhaimer bodies

A

Iron

hemolytic anemia

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7
Q

Burr cells

A

associated with Chronic renal disease

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8
Q

Hypersegs; 5 or more lobes

A

associated with PA

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9
Q

dark blue, scalloped edges

associated with IM

A

Atl

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10
Q

pale blue found in neutrophils
found in PBS if pregnant, in toxic state or have bacterial infection
toxic granulations

A

Dohle bodies

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11
Q

increased in CML, leukemoid reactions;

shift to left in immature cells

A

metamyelocytes

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12
Q

plasma cell-hof (halo)

A

multiple myeloma

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13
Q

auer rods in blast

A

not in lymphs, so no ALL

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14
Q

smudge cells

A

CLL

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15
Q

azurophilic granules
larger nucleus
decrease in CML
APL

A

promyelocyte

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16
Q

Hodkins
allergies
CML
parasitic infections

A

Eos

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17
Q

Used to diagnose

A

PBS
BM
pt history

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18
Q

increase MCV - 150
tingling-neuro
hyperseg
decreased WBC, RBC, plt

A

Pernicious Anemia

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19
Q

small pale cells
evidence of bleeding
MCV, MCHC - decrease
no blue/green on BM

A

IDA

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20
Q

non-specific esterase Positive
inhibited by flouride
BM: monoblasts

A

AMoL

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21
Q

all stages of granuloctyes
diff cells in diff stages
LAP - decreased
pt history

A

CML

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22
Q

Lymph

smudge cells

A

CLL

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23
Q

ATL’s

PBS differs from BM

A

IM

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24
Q

12-17
lowest female
highest male

A

Hgb

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25
Q

45 mid

A

Hct

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26
Q

27-32

A

MCH

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27
Q

32-36

A

MCHC

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28
Q

80-97

81-99

A

MCV

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29
Q

0-440

100-350

A

Eos

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30
Q

150,000-450,000

A

Plt

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31
Q

.5-2%

A

retics

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32
Q

5 mil

A

RBC

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33
Q

5,000-10,000

A

WBC

34
Q

diluent for eos

A

Philoxine

35
Q

diluent for Plt

A

ammonium oxalate

36
Q

diluent for retics

A

supervital

New Methylene blue

37
Q

sodium chloride

A

RBC diluent

38
Q

Acetic acid

A

WBC diluent

39
Q

1:32

A

eos

40
Q

1:100

A

plt

41
Q

1:2

A

retic

42
Q

1:200

A

RBC

43
Q

1:20

A

WBC

44
Q

Principle of the sedimentation rate (ESR), the two methods for measuring the ESR, and the normal values for males and females

A

measures suspension stability of the red cells
Westergren, Winthrobe Methods
male 0-15 mm/hr
female 0-20 mm/hr

45
Q

Given the values for the RBC, Hgb, and Hct, calculate the RBC indices (MCV, MCH, MCHC)

A 
MCV is (Hct/RBC) x 10
MCH is (Hgb/RBC) x 10
MCHC is (Hgb/Hct) x 100 in W/V
46
Q

State the principle of the osmotic fragility test and be able to name a condition in which the osmotic fragility is increased and one in which it is decreased.

A

red cells are exposed to decreasing concentrations of sodium chloride to observe the point at which the red cells hemolyze. Plot % hemolysis against concentration of NaCl and observe the curve;
increase - hereditary spheroctytosis
decrease - target cells - sickle cell

47
Q

Explain the principle of the tube solubility method for SCA screening.

A

Hgb S is insoluble and if exposed to reducing agent will precipitate out, causing turbidity; will not be able to see lines through tube

48
Q

How does a doctor use the reticulocyte count?

A

measures effective erythroid poiesis
if BM is responding
diagnose anemia

49
Q

State three reasons for performing a WBC differential

A

count and classify 100 WBC
diagnose disease
evaluate therapy

50
Q

Be able to show how you would calculate a total cell count (not a standard count) if you are given the dilution, the volume counted, and the number of cells counted

A

cells counted x dilution reciprocal x (1/vol counted)

*1 sm square is 0.004 mm3
1 lg square is 0.1 mm3

51
Q

How could you vary the counting procedure if you had to count (manually) an extremely high WBC count?

A

use RBC pipette 1:100 or 1:200

**WBC should not go higher than 1:33

52
Q

Name the most commonly used anticoagulant for blood specimens to be used for coagulation testing and be able to tell how it works

A

sodium citrate

binds calcium

53
Q

Why do you need to perform coagulation testing within two hours after specimen collection?

A

results will increase due to loss of labile factors

should spin and refrigerate is cant test within 2 hours

54
Q

thromboplastin/calcium-chloride
10-14 sec
extrinsic
monitor coumadin therapy

A

PT - Prothrombin time

55
Q

calcium flouride, plt substitute
less than 35 sec
intrinsic
monitor heparin therapy

A

PTT - partial thrombin time

56
Q

Compare the principle of the Fibrometer with that of the CoaDATA 2000

A

Fibrometer; formation of clot completes electrical circuit which turns off the timer
CoaDATA; turbidodensiturmetric method, clarity of specimen does not effect results

57
Q

Name two functions of the automatic pipette and two functions of the probe arm of the Fibrometer

A

pipette; dispenses reagent, turns off timer

probe arm; hold electrodes in place, mixes reagent, senses clot

58
Q

Duke and Ivy method for bleeding time (site of puncture and normal values).

A

Duke - earlobe; 1-3 min

Ivy - forearm; 1-7 min

59
Q

Be able to list two tests that you think should be included in a screen for coagulation disorders and indicate why you chose each test (i.e. checks intrinsic factors, checks plts, etc.)

A

PT - measures extrinsic
PTT - measures intrinsic
bleeding time - check plts

60
Q

If normal plasma fails to correct an abnormal PT and PTT, what is the best explanation for the results

A

circulating anticoagulants (AB to clotting factor), not just factor deficiency

*normal plasma corrects deficiency

61
Q

What is the only factor that will give an increased TT? ________________________________
(It will also be corrected by normal plasma, but not by either adsorbed plasma or aged as there are usually insufficient amounts of it in adsorbed plasma to correct a deficiency and it is not found in aged serum at all.)

A

Factor I

62
Q

bleeding time

A

plt function

63
Q

PTT

A

Stage I of coag

64
Q

PT

A

Stage II of coag

65
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

D-dimer

66
Q

Absorbed plasma

A

Factors 5, 8, 11, 12

remove vitamin K dependent factors

67
Q

Aged serum

A

Factors 2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12

68
Q

labile factors

A

5, 8

69
Q

Vitamin K dependent factors

A

2, 7, 9, 10

70
Q

Use of the PT and PTT substitution tests

Why not preform a series of specific factor assays?

A

narrow down possible deficiency factors

consuming and expensive

71
Q

What are some possible sources of error in coagulation testing?

A

not right amount of anti-coagulant
expired reagents
specimen at RT too long

72
Q

Why should a doctor order presugical coagulation screening tests?

A

“normal” may be drop below and cause pt to bleed

normal 50-150%

73
Q

Why is it important for a hospital to establish its own normal range for the PT and PTT and how would a doctor utilize this information?

A

different instruments, reagents, environments and other variables at different hospitals;

74
Q

If a patient has an increase PTT and an increase PT, what is the diagnosis and how could you prove it?

A

Von Wilderbran disease, plt abnormality

Factor 8 assay

75
Q

What is the antidote for coumadin?

For heparin?

A

Vitamin K

Protamine sulfate

76
Q

What is the INR and how is it used in the laboratory?

A

International Normalized Ratio

to compare different pt’s results dome from different labs

77
Q

What tests did we do in lab that are used primarily in the diagnosis of fibrinolysis?

A

D-dimer

Thrombo Wellco

78
Q

surevital stain for retics

A

Wright’s stain

79
Q

hyposegmentation of neutrophil
bilobed
dumb bell shaped

A

Pelger-Huet

80
Q

not in ALL

pinkish-red rod shape inclusion

A

auer-rods

81
Q

lighter staining nucleoli

A

blasts

82
Q

damaged WBC
AB alters nucleus
engulfed phagocytosis - off center nucleus due to homogenous blob

A

LE cell

MLT 120- Hematology (5 decks)

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