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Microbiology Lab > Lab Final > Flashcards

Lab Final Flashcards

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1
Q

___________: proteins that function as biological catalysts for cellular chemical reactions

A

Enzymes

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2
Q

Biochemical tests use chemicals called ____________ that produce visible evidence of some form to indicate that a specific biochemical reaction has occurred

A

Reagents

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3
Q

What is the objective of the amylase test?

A

to determine if your unknown organism can catabolite amylose (starch)

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4
Q

Small monosaccharides that bacteria use as energy sources can easily pass through the cell membrane, often by way of specific ___________

A

Transporters

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5
Q

Small monosaccharides are catabolized inside the cell by __________________ ________________

A

Intracellular enzymes

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6
Q

Why do sugars need to be hydrolyzed into monosaccharides?

A

They are too bulky to be transported into the cell by specific transporters

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7
Q

What enzyme hyrdolyzes starch?

A

Amylase

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8
Q

Amylase and Maltase are _____-cellular enzymes that hydrolyze amylose into glucose

A

Extra

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9
Q

Starch turns into _______ with the help of _______ which then turns into _______ with the help of _________

A

Starch turns into maltose with the help of amylase, which then turns into glucose with the help of maltase

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10
Q

Bacteria that live in ______ are often capable of starch hydrolysis since starch is an abundant nutrient in soil

A

Starch

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11
Q

Starch reacts with _________ to produce a chemical complex that is dark blue or red brown

A

Iodine

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12
Q

What are the physical, positive results of the amylase test? What is the negative test result?

A

The positive amylase result will appear clear, and the negative amylase result will interact with the starch left in solution and appear dark in color

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13
Q

What is deanimation? What is the enzyme involved?

A

Deamination is an organisms ability to remove an amino acid from a molecule by using the enzymes deanimases

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14
Q

What is a decarboxylation? What is the enzyme involved?

A

The removal of the carboxyl group and the removal and modification of the R-side chains. The enzyme used is decarboxylase.

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15
Q

What is the goal of the cysteine desulfhydrase?

A

To determine if your unknown organism expresses cysteine desulfhydrase to catabolize cysteine

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16
Q

The first step in the biochemical pathway used to catabolize cysteine is the removal of _______________________

A

part of the R-group

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17
Q

What is the enzyme used to remove the R-group?

A

Cysteine desulfhydrase

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18
Q

What gas is released when the -SH is removed from the R group?

A

H2S (hydrogen sulfide gas)

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19
Q

Cysteine and water are converted by cysteine desulfhydrase into?

A

Alanine and Hydrogen Sulfide

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20
Q

How is cysteine digestion detected?

A

By the production of H2S

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21
Q

How is the production of H2S in cysteine digestion detected?

A

The interaction between iron ions and H2S will form a black substance

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22
Q

What color does the medium used in cysteine digestion starts out being, what color does it turn if cysteine digestion is occurring?

A

Yellow/cream to black

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23
Q

What is the objective of the lysine decarboxylase?

A

To determine if your unknown organism expresses lysine decarboxylase to catabolize lysine

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24
Q

The removal of a carboxyl group always results in the production of ______ gas and ________

A

CO2 and amine, cadverine

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25
Q

How do the products of lysine decarboxylase react with the bromcresol purple indicator?

A

Products make the solution more basic, which causes the indicator to be purple.

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26
Q

What are the variations of bromcresol purple under basic, neutral, and acidic conditions?

A

basic- purple
Neutral- brown
Acidic- yellow

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27
Q

What is the objective of urea digestion?

A

To determine if an organism expresses urease to catabolize urea

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28
Q

Ammonia is transported to the liver and converted into _______

A

Urea

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29
Q

Some bacteria can extract energy from ______ by converting it back into ammonia and CO2

A

Urea

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30
Q

What enzyme assists in the conversion of urea to ammonia?

A

Urease

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31
Q

What is the reagent of the Urease test? How does this test indicate a a positive or negative?

A

This urease test uses phenol red as the reagent. This test when positive for urea digestion turns red/pink

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32
Q

What is the color of the urea broth?

A

The urea broth has a pH of 6.8 which makes it straw-yellow.

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33
Q

What is the objective of the gelatin hydrolysis?

A

to determine if your unknown organism expresses gelatinase to digest gelatin

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34
Q

What is the extracellular enzyme that hydrolyses gelatin into peptides?

A

gelatinase

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35
Q

Why is it important to study whether a mo can hydrolysize gelatin at low temperatures?

A

Gelatin will naturally liquify at 37 degrees so it is important to avoid a false positive

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36
Q

What is the positive/negative of the amylase test?

A

(+)= clear zone
if the mo produced amylase and hydrolysized the starch there will be no starch to interact with the iodine

(-)= dark purple color
The mo does no hydrolyze the starch and therefore iodine will interact with the starch

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37
Q

What are the positive and negative tests of Cysteine Desulfhydrase?

A

Positive- black precipitate

Negative- no black precipitate

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38
Q

What is the postive and negative results for a lysine decarboxylase?

A

Positive: purple
Negative: brown/yellow

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39
Q

What are the positive and negative results of a Urea digestion test?

A

Positive- bright pink

Negative- no pink color

40
Q

What are the results of gelatin hydrolysis?

A

Postive-liquid medium

Negative- solid medium

41
Q

What differentiates staphylococci and streptococci?

A

The catalase tests. Strep are catalase negative. Staph are catalase positive.

42
Q

How do we differentiate between staphylococci and micrococci?

A

Oxidase test.

Staphylococci are negative for this test and strep are positive for this test.

43
Q

Staphylococcus epidermis are not pathogenic but can cause __________ ______________ under some circumstances

A

opportunistic infections

44
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is a _____________ _______________ that causes diseases in even healthy individuals

A

Primary pathogen

45
Q

A primary pathogen is largely due to the many ____________ ___________

A

Virulence factors

46
Q

What are the four characteristics of S. Aureus that are useful for identification?

A
  1. Coagulase
  2. Fermentation of mannitol
  3. Heat-stable deoxyribonuclease (DNase)
  4. Beta hemolysis
47
Q

S.aureus is also is most often an _________________ rather than an infection?

A

Intoxication

48
Q

___________ is a selective medium, it contains 7.5% NaCl which inhibits the grow of halo tolerant organisms but allows growth of halophiles

A

MSA

49
Q

MSA is selective for what?

A

Staphylococci

50
Q

MSA is a differential medium. T or F?

A

T

51
Q

What type of indicator is used within a test of fermentation fo mannitol? How does this indicate the positive or negative test?

A

Phenol red

This turns colonies that ferment the mannitol to yellow

52
Q

DNase agar is differential. T or F?

A

T

53
Q

DNase agar is not selective. T or F?

A

T

54
Q

What materials are found within the DNase agar?

A

A rich source of nutrients, agar, methyl green as an indicator and large DNA molecules

55
Q

What is the importance of the methyl green indicator within a DNase agar?

A

Methyl green

56
Q

How does methyl green interact with DNase production?

A

Methyl green interacts with the large DNA molecules and forms a green complex

The absence of these DNA molecules becomes a colorless compound

57
Q

A complete hydrolysis of red blood cells is called ______________

A

Beta-hemolysis

58
Q

What is the partial lysis of RBC called?

A

Alpha hydrolysis

59
Q

What is the complete lysis of RBC called?

A

Gamma hydrolysis

60
Q

If the bacteria in question is susceptible to antibiotics there will be a _____________ ________________

A

Zone of inhibition

61
Q

Microbial growth

A

An increase in the # of bacterial cells over time

62
Q

Viral titer

A

The concentration of viral particles in a sample

63
Q

The most widely used procedure for measuring the titer is the __________ ____________

A

Plaque assay

64
Q

it uses grow inside a susceptible _______ cell

A

Host

65
Q

The viral tiger is measured as the number of plaques that form on the lawn of host cells and it’s referred as the # of ______________ ____________ _______________

A

Plaque forming units

66
Q

The number of PFU should be equal to the # ___________ _________

A

Of viral particles in the sample

67
Q

___________ agar: is a bacterial growth medium with only 0.75% agar instead of the normal 1.5%

A

Top

68
Q

How do you calculate the # of PFU/mL?

A

plaques x dilution factor/ mL of phage plated

69
Q

How to calculate the total # of PFU units in the original sample

A

(PFU/mL)x the total volume in the original sample (mL)

70
Q

Microorganisms that have adapted to living symbiotically on or in our bodies without causing disease are called __________

A

Commensals

71
Q

Other terms for the collective group of symbiotic microorganisms that live on our bodies are ____________ flora and _____________ flora

A

Resident and indigenous

72
Q

____________ is a relationship between two organisms of different species living together in a close and permanent association

A

Symbiosis

73
Q

Who proposed Germ Theory of Disease?

A

Koch and Pasteur

74
Q

______________: are microbes that are picked up from the environment temporarily and are not permanent residents of the microbial flora

A

Transient microbes

75
Q

The ability of chemicals to damage pathogens without damaging human tissue is called ______________ ______________

A

Selective toxicity

76
Q

______________: chemicals produced by a microorganism that inhibit the growth of or kill other mo

A

Antibiotics

77
Q

Antibiotics that are effective only against either gram positive or gram negative organisms are called ____________ ______________ antibiotics

A

Narrow-spectrum

78
Q

Antibiotics that are effective against both gram negative and gram positive are referred to as _____________ ____________ antibiotics

A

Broad-spectrum

79
Q

Penicillin is a ______ spectrum antibiotic

A

Broad

80
Q

The way that antibiotics affect the bacteria is known as _________ ___________

A

Mechanisms of action

81
Q

Antibiotics that kill bacteria are called ________________

A

Bactericidal

82
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit their growth are called _________________

A

Bacteriostatic

83
Q

One of the most widely used tests to determine the sensitivity of a microbe to a specific antimicrobial agent is a ___________ ___________ test

A

Disk diffusion

84
Q

What is a standardized form of a disk diffusion test?

A

Kirby-Bauer

85
Q

If the microbe is affected by the antimicrobial it will not grow near the disk, producing a _____________________________

A

Zone of inhibition

86
Q

The larger the zone of inhibition, the _______ sensitive the microbe is to that antibiotic

A

More

87
Q

In a Kirby Bauer test what depth is required for the agar plate?

A

4mm

88
Q

__________: are proteins produced by the B-lymphocytes of the immune system that have many functions in the protection against pathogens

A

Antibodies

89
Q

Any molecules that is deemed as “foreign” and activates the immune system is called an _________

A

Antigen

90
Q

The study of antigen-antibody interactions is called ____________

A

Serology

91
Q

_________ is the clear liquid portion of the blood that remains after the blood is allowed to clot

A

Serum

92
Q

___________ is the liquid portion of the blood including clotting proteins

A

Plasma

93
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

Plasma contains clotting proteins and serum does not

94
Q

What is the similarity between plasma and serum?

A

Contain antibodies but lack blood cells

95
Q

The concentration of antibody against a particular antigen is referred to as the ___________

A

Titer

96
Q

The ______ test is a slide agglutination test used to diagnose salmonella infections

A

Widal

Microbiology Lab (9 decks)

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