Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anesthesia > Lab final > Flashcards

Lab final Flashcards

1
Q

An e-cyclinder contains how many PSI and Liters of Oxygen?

A

660 L and 2200 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does a flow meter do?

A
  1. A flowmeter controls the rate at which a specific gas is delivered
  2. Flowmeter tubes are gas specific
  3. Avoid excessive torque when closing flowmeters, because knobs can be twisted off
  4. The oxygen flowmeter should always be downstream in the series
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the functions of the oxygen flush valve?

A
  1. Bypasses vaporizer and delivers oxygen directly to the gas outlet
  2. delivers oxygen to the circle at 35-75 L/min
  3. Dilutes the anesthetic gases in the system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe out of circuit vaporizers

A
  • these vaporizers deliver a precise anesthetic concentration of anesthetic vapor
  • gas within the vaporizer is split betwen the bypass and vaporization chamber
  • VOC are agent specific
  • output is NOT dependent on teh temperature and flow through the vaporizer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A pressure reduction valve reduces cylinder pressure to a fixed

A

50 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Should you use the quick flush valve on a non-rebreathing system?

A

NEVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A charcoal canister filters what?

A

Iso/sevo

But NOT Nitrous oxide or carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is true about a rebreathing system?

A
  1. contains soda lime
  2. more resisitance and more componentss
  3. less gas waste and atmosphere pollution
  4. used in pts over 10kg
  5. flow rate is 20-50
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a cause of this?

A

Rebreathing- doesn’t return to baseline

expired sodasorb

faculty expiratory valve

inadequate ins/exp flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring blood pressure?

A

Direct Arterial blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the clinical uses for ECG?

A
  1. Determine heart rate and rhythm
  2. record electrical activity of the heart
  3. determine cardiac oxygenation status
  4. determine electroylyte abnormalities

NOT TO DETERMINE FUNCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hypotension in SA is defined as a SAP <____

and a MAP<______

A

SAP< 80; MAP<60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring oxygenation and ventilation in an anesthesized patient/

A

Arterial blood gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What indicate a light plane of anesthesia?

A

brisk palpebral reflex

nystagumus

lacrimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What SpO2 reading correlates with PaO2 of 60?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the esphageal stehoscope used for?

A

Heart rate and respiratory rate

17
Q

What is the normal heart rate for a dog?

A

70-100

18
Q

What is the normal heart rate for a sheep?

A

60-90

19
Q

How often do you record vitals?

A

every 5 min

20
Q

What are the benefits of giving pre-anesthetic meds?

A
  1. decreases the amount of inhalant
  2. sedation to faciliate IV catheter
  3. pre-emptive analgesia
  4. decrease amount of induction agent needed
  5. anxiolysis
21
Q

What is the most common drug types used in preanesthetic meds?

A

sedative +opoid

22
Q

What are the SE of ace?

A
  1. anxiolysis
  2. anti-emetic
  3. inhibits platelet aggregation
  4. hypotension
23
Q

MOA of butorphanol

A

mu anatgoinist, kappa agoinst

24
Q

what is the most common route for induction agents?

A

IV

25
Q

What are the negative effects of propofol?

A

Cardio and respiratory depression

26
Q

After induction agent has been administered, which signs of anesthetic depth should be assessed before attempting to open a canine pt’s mouth for intubation?

A

Absent lateral palpebral reflex

27
Q

What are the negative consequences of an ET tube that is too small?

A
  1. airway secretions may obstruct the tube
  2. increased work of breathing via increase resisteance
  3. over-inflated cuff causes trauma to the tracheal muscosa
  4. it is possible that the system will have a leak and IPPV can NOT be administered if needed
28
Q

What methods are used to confirm ET tube placement?

A
  • visualization
  • palpation
  • capnography
29
Q

BP on a sheep using doppler ultrasound and sphygmomanometer are performed on which artery?

A

median

30
Q

Would you administer atropine to a sheep pre-induction to decrease the amount of saliva that produce?

A

NEVER

31
Q

What is the oxygen flow rate for a sheep?

A

30-50 for maintenance

32
Q

What are complications associated with IPPV?

A
  1. barotrauma from an APL valve left closed
  2. decreased venous return
  3. can deepen the anesthetic plane
33
Q

What predisposed a sheep to bloat post induction

A
  1. Not fasting enough
  2. esophageal intubation
  3. atropine administration
34
Q

If the bp was 70 what would you do?

A

check the percent vapor of inhalant and calculate a fluid bolus

35
Q

normal bp in a sheep

A

systolic 90-120

diastolic- 60-80

36
Q

What meds can sheep not get

A

xyalzine, atropine dexmedetomidine

Anesthesia (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions