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Microbiology Lab 2572-02 > Lab Final > Flashcards

Lab Final Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

describe a complex culture media…

A

-exact composition is NOT known
-made from meat and soybean extract

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2
Q

describe a enrichment culture media…

A

-has extra growth factors to support the organisms with special nutritional needs

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3
Q

describe a differential culture media…

A

-has pH indicators; allows for different organisms to be distinguished by changing color

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4
Q

describe a selective culture media…

A

-has special chemicals that stimulate growth of some bacteria while inhibiting the growth of others

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5
Q

spherical shaped bacteria are called

A

coccus; cocci

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6
Q

rod shaped bacteria are called

A

bacillus; bacilli

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7
Q

helical & curved bacteria are called

A

vibrio, spirillum, spirilli, spirochetes

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8
Q

diplo means

A

there are 2 bacterium

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9
Q

tetrad means

A

that are 4 bacterium

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10
Q

strepto means

A

the bacterium is in a line formation

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11
Q

staphylo means

A

there is a clump/cluster of bacterium

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12
Q

coccobacillus means

A

the bacterium is oval shaped

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13
Q

vibrio means

A

the bacterium is curved

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14
Q

spiral means

A

complete 360 turn

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15
Q

define antiseptic

A

a chemical agent that is used in association with the skin and mucous membranes to destroy microorganisms or inhibit their growth

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16
Q

define disinfectant

A

a chemical agent that is used on inanimate objects to destroy microorganisms

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17
Q

define antibiotics

A

natural, semisynthetic, and synthetic chemicals that inhibit the growth of other microorganisms

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18
Q

define aerobe

A

cannot grow w/o oxygen

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19
Q

define anaerobe

A

cannot tolerate oxygen

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20
Q

define facultative anaerobe

A

prefer to use O2 but when absent will use other alternatives

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21
Q

define a psychrophile

A

organism with an optimal growth temp. range of -5 degree C to 20 degrees C

cold loving

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22
Q

define mesophiles

A

organisms with an optimal growth temp. range at 20 degrees C to 50 degrees C

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23
Q

define thermophiles

A

organisms with an optimal temp. growth range of 50 degrees C to 80 degrees C

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24
Q

define halophiles

A

bacterium that require higher salt concentrations to grow

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25
Q

define acidophiles

A

organism with the optimal growth range of pH 5.5 or below

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26
Q

define a alkaliphile

A

organism with the optimal growth range greater than 8

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27
Q

define an indicator organism

A

test that ONLY tests for one kind of organism

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28
Q

describe coliforms

A
  • gram negative
  • non-endospore forming bacillus
  • ferments lactose w/ gas production
  • facultative anaerobe
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29
Q

what does MPN stand for?

A

most probable #

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30
Q

define potable

A

water that is deemed safe to drink

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31
Q

define transient flora

A

microorganisms that are acquired from the environment

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32
Q

define resident flora

A

microorganisms that are always found on the body

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33
Q

define broad spectrum

A

an agent that exerts an effect against many different organisms

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34
Q

define narrow spectrum

A

an agent that exerts an effect against only a few organisms

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35
Q

define transformation

A

the transfer of genes from the environment

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36
Q

what are the steps in gram staining?

A

crystal violet
grams iodine
95% ethyl alcohol
safranin

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37
Q

in the T-streak procedure and pour plate procedures, why is the loop sterlized?

A

to reduce the # of cultures in each section of the T-streak, helps to increase the chances of having an isolated culture

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38
Q

Why are agar plates inverted during incubation?

A

to minimize/prevent the accumulation of condensation which could compromise an isolated culture

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39
Q

what chemical properties influence diffusion into agar

A

molecular weight
hydrophobicity
volatility

40
Q

why are zones of inhibition compared to a standard table to determine an organism’s sensitivity?

A

b/c antibiotics are used internally. Accounts for absorption, digestion, metabolism, and excretion of the antibody in humans/ animals.

ADME

41
Q

what is the autoclave temperature and pressure?

A

15 psi
121 degrees Celsius

42
Q

why is an autoclaved used?

A

b/c boiling will not remove endospores due to their thick cell walls

43
Q

in part 1 of coliform testing the presumptive test was done by

A

inoculating the lactose broth in a Durham tube

44
Q

part 2 of coliform testing also known as the confirmed test was done by

A

taking a positive sample and streaking it on EMB

45
Q

EMB is differential for

A

lactose fermentation

46
Q

Lac+ results in

A

dark red colonies

47
Q

EMB is selective for

A

gram-negative bacteria

48
Q

formula to calculate VC/mL

A

(# of colonies/ vol. of sample) x dilution factor

49
Q

The standard plate count is used to determine…

A

the # of viable bacteria per mm

50
Q

formula to determine the total magnification

A

objective * 10X

51
Q

Oxidase Test

tested for:
positive test:
negative test:

A
  • presence of cytochrome oxidase
  • blue color when oxidase reagent is added
  • no color change
52
Q

Catalase Test

tested for:
positive test:
negative test:

A
  • catalase enzyme
  • bubbles when peroxide is added
  • no change when peroxide is added
53
Q

what is used for carbohydrate fermentation?

A

4 tubes
- glucose
- lactose
- sucrose
- mannitol

54
Q

carbohydrate fermentation produces

A

acid and/or gas

55
Q

what is the indicator found in the test tubes for carbohydrate fermentation? what color changes indicate acid and alkaline condition?

A

phenol red
- acid: yellow
- alkaline: pink

56
Q

Hemolysis Test

tested for:
positive test:
negative test:

A
  • hemolysin
  • zone of clearing
  • no zone of clearing
57
Q

beta-hemolysis indicates

A

complete clearing of blood around colonies

58
Q

alpha-hemolysis indicates

A

partial clearing of blood around colonies

59
Q

positive result for H2S production is

A

a black precipitate

60
Q

what medium is used to determine the production of H2S?

A

SIM medium

61
Q

Urea Hydrolysis

tested for:
positive test:
negative test:

A
  • urease
  • hot pink
  • yellow-orange

yellow-orange is the initial color
- a negative result would be no color change

62
Q

Coagulase Test

tested for:
positive test:
negative test:

A
  • clotting of plasma
  • clot
  • no clot
63
Q

Starch Hydrolysis

tested for:
positive test:
negative test:

A
  • amylase
  • zone of clearing after addition of grams iodine
  • no zone of clearing
64
Q

Citrate Test

tested for:
positive test:
negative test:

A
  • citrate
  • bright blue
  • green

blue at alkaline pH
green at neutral pH

65
Q

MSA test is selective for ____ and differential for _________.

A
  • halophiles
  • mannitol fermentation (yellow)
66
Q

EMB test is selective for ____ and differential for _________.

A
  • gram negatives
  • lactose fermentation
67
Q

BAP test is differential for

A
  • hemolysins enzymes
68
Q

describe the effect of elevated temperatures on proteins

A

they are denatured by any temp. above their maximum growth range
- it is irreversible
- the proteins unfolds an will NEVER return to its original shape

69
Q

describe the effect on organisms in temperatures below the minimum growth range

A

-proteins are not denatured but the enzymes do NOT work properly
-the cells survive but CANNOT grow and reproduce

70
Q

a too acidic or too alkaline pH causes…

A

irreversible protein denaturation and cell death

71
Q

in hypertonic solutions bacteria will

A

shrivel and die

72
Q

in hypotonic solutions bacteria will

A

expand and eventually explode

73
Q

name a facultative halophile

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

74
Q

when exposed to UV radiation which organism, S. epi or B. meg, survived the longest? why?

A

B. meg
- b/c it forms endospores which have thick cell walls that UV light can NOT penetrate

75
Q

which molecule is the target of UV light? How is the damage actually caused?

A

thymine in DNA

by causing adjacent thymines to interact with one another, forming covalent bonds and creating thymine dimers

76
Q

What are some sources of error that can occur with the filter-paper disk method?

A
  1. deeply inserting disks
  2. varying amounts of bacterium on plate
  3. not having a round disk
  4. measuring zones of inhibition
77
Q

What are some chemical properties that can effect the filter-paper disk method?

A
  • hydrophobicity
  • volatility
  • mw
78
Q

what media was used in the Kirby-Bauer experiment?

A

MHA

79
Q

penicillin’s mode of action is to..

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis

80
Q

SxT’s mode of action is to…

A

inhibit the metabolic pathways

81
Q

polymyxin B mode of action is to..

A

disrupt the cytoplasmic membrane

82
Q

nalidixic acid mode of action is to..

A

inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

83
Q

tetracyclines mode of action is to…

A

inhibit protein synthesis

84
Q

gram reaction & morphology of E. coli

A
  • gram-negative
  • coccobacillus
85
Q

gram reaction & morphology of salmonella

A
  • gram negative
  • bacilli
86
Q

gram reaction & morphology of proteus

A
  • gram negative
  • bacilli
87
Q

gram reaction & morphology of pseudomonas

A
  • gram-negative
  • bacillus
88
Q

which organism ferments lactose?

A

e. coli

89
Q

which organism is urease-positive?

A

proteus

90
Q

which organism is oxidase-positive

A

pseudomonas

91
Q

which organism ferments neither glucose or lactose?

A

salmonella

92
Q

Streptococcus

gram reaction
morphology
arrangement

A
  • gram-positive
  • cocci
  • strepto (line)
93
Q

Staphylococcus

gram reaction
morphology
arrangement

A
  • gram-positive
  • cocci
  • staphylo (cluster)
94
Q

Describe the physiological characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus

A
  • beta hemolysis
  • ferments mannitol
  • positive for coagulase production
95
Q

what organism was used for the bacterial transformation lab?

A

Acinetobacter calcoaceticus

96
Q

what is streptomycin’s mode of action?

A

to inhibit translation

97
Q

what is bacterial transformation

A

the transfer of genes from the environment

Microbiology Lab 2572-02 (16 decks)

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