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A&P 2 > lab exam 1 > Flashcards

lab exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the blood volume of an average-size adult male

A

5-6 liters

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2
Q

what is the blood volume of an average-size adult female

A

4-5 liters

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3
Q

what determines whether blood is bright red or a dull brick red

A

the amount of oxygen being carried

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4
Q

what is the most numerous leukocyte

A

neutrophil

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5
Q

name the 3 granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

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6
Q

anucleate formed element, also known as erythrocyte

A

red blood cells (RBC)

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7
Q

name the 3 phagocytic leukocytes

A

monocytes, neutrophils, and eosinophil

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8
Q

name the agranulocytes (2)

A

lymphocyte, monocyte

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9
Q

the precursor cell of platelets

A

megakaryocyte

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10
Q

cell fragments

A

platelets

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11
Q

involved in destroying parasitic worms

A

eosinophil

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12
Q

releases histamine; PROMOTES inflammation

A

basophil

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13
Q

produces antibodies

A

lymphocyte

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14
Q

transports oxygen

A

RBCs

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15
Q

primarily water, noncellular; the fluid matrix of blood

A

plasma

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16
Q

exits a blood vessel to develop into a macrophage

A

monocyte

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17
Q

the five types of white blood cells

A

Never - Neutrophil
Let - Lymphocytes
Monkeys - Monocytes
Eat - Eosinophil
Bananas - Basophil

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18
Q

Blood pathologies: abnormal increase in the number of WBCs

A

leukocytosis

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19
Q

Blood pathologies: abnormal increase in the number of RBCs

A

polycythemia

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20
Q

Blood pathologies: condition of too few RBCs or of RBCs with hemoglobin deficiencies

A

anemia

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21
Q

Blood pathologies: abnormal decrease in the number of WBCs

A

leukopenia

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22
Q

why is a differential WBC count more valuable than a total WBC count when trying to determine the specific source of pathology

A

this is because the differential count shows signs/signals of infection
(neutrophil vs eosinophil vs lymphocyte vs monocytes vs basophil)

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23
Q

discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count.
long-term effect of athletic training (for example, running 4-5 miles per day over a period of 6-9 months)

A

RBC count will increase because an anthlete would need more oxygen to fuel their larger muscles

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24
Q

discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count.
a permanent move from sea level to a high-altitude area

A

increase RBC count because there will be less oxygen at a high altitude, resulting in a need for more RBC to transport the necessary amount of oxygen

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25
Q

define hematocrit

A

the volume percentage of RBC in 100 ml of blood

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26
Q

if you had a high hematocrit, would you expect your hemoglobin determination to be high or low, why

A

high, because hematocrit is the percentage of blood made up of RBC, which include hemoglobin

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27
Q

what is an anticoagulant

A

a substance used to prevent/treat blood clots. blood thinner

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28
Q

name 2 anticoagulants used in conducting the hematologic tests

A

heparin and sodium citrate

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29
Q

what is the body’s natural anticoagulant

A

heparin

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30
Q

if your blood agglutinates with anti-A but not anti-B sera, your ABO blood type would be
to what ABO blood groupd could you donate blood
from which ABO donor types could you receive blood

A

A; A and AB; A

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31
Q

which ABO blood type is most common

A

O

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32
Q

which ABO blood type is least common

A

AB

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33
Q

what blood type is theoretically considered the universal donor and why

A

O; it lacks anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh antibodies

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34
Q

assume the blood of two patients has been typed for ABO blood type

Mr. Adams:
blood drop anti-A serum: no aggulation
blood drop anti-B serum: aggulation

Mr. Calhoon:
blood drop anti-A serum: no aggulation
blood drop anti-B serum: no aggulation

what blood type are each of these individuals

A

Mr. Adams has type B
Mr. Calhoon has type O-

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35
Q

explain why an Rh-negative person does not have a transfution reaction on the first exposure to Rh-postitive blood but DOES have a reaction on the second exposure

A

on the first exposure there are no anti-Rh antibodies, but the exposure causes anti-Rh antibodies to start forming, causeing a reaction on the second exposure

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36
Q

physioEx 11 - act 1
percentage of RBCs in a sample of whole blood

A

hematocrit

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37
Q

physioEx 11 - act 1
lower than normal hematocrit

A

anemia

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38
Q

physioEx 11 - act 1
higher than normal hematocrit

A

polycythemia

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39
Q

physioEx 11 - act 1
consists of WBCs, thin white layer, lies between the heavier RBC layer and lighter yellow plasma

A

buffy coat

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40
Q

physioEx 11 - act 1
men’s hematocrit tends to be _____ than women’s, with men around _____, and women around _____

A

higher; 42-52%; 37-47%

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41
Q

physioEx 11 - act 1
patient hematocrit in Denver

A

higher hematocrit, higher altitude, RBCs must carry more oxygen

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42
Q

physioEx 11 - act 1
patient hematocrit in Boston

A

lower hematocrit

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43
Q

physioEx 11 - act 2
antigens that determine a person’s blood type

A

agglutinogens

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44
Q

physioEx 11 - act 2
antibodies that react with the antigens present on the transfused cells

A

agglutinins

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45
Q

physioEx 11 - act 2
most important when considering transfutions

A

ABO and Rh antigens

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46
Q

physioEx 11 - act 2
found preformed in the blood plasma

A

antibodies

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47
Q

physioEx 11 - act 2
why is AB+ the universal recipient for blood transfusion

A

they have both A & B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, and their blood serum does not contain antibodies against A, B, or Rh antigens

48
Q

physioEx 11 - act 2
cause the most vigorous and potentially fatal reactions

A

ABO & Rh agglutinogens

49
Q

physioEx 11 - act 2
agglutination results/indicates (3)

A

results in potentially life-threatening blood transfusion reaction
results in RBC lysis
indicates the presences of an agglutinogen

50
Q

paternity test
ABO blood groups ——> Alleles

A

O —————> O/O
A —————> A/A or A/O
B —————> B/B or B/O
AB —————> A/B
Rh+ —————> D/d or D/D
Rh- —————> d/d

51
Q

hemolytic disease of the newborn
mother Rh-
fetus Rh+

A

1st child no risk
2nd child risk

52
Q

virtual microscopy
neutrophil

A

many nuclei

53
Q

virtual microscopy
lymphocyte

A

nucleus fills whole cell

54
Q

virtual microscopy
erythrocyte

55
Q

virtual microscopy
platelets

A

faded fragments within the matrix

56
Q

models of the heart, veins, and arteries

57
Q

in the route of blood flow, list which structures are deoxygenated blood and oxygenated blood

right atrium, openings of the vena cava, right AV valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left AV valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve

A

deoxygenated blood (6): openings of the vena cava, right artium, right AV valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary trunk

oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left atrium, left AV valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve

58
Q

list the correct sequence in which blood flows through the following structures of the heart
left atrium, aorta, right atrium, pulmonary vein, inferior vena cava, left ventricle, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid)

A
  1. inferior vena cava
  2. right atrium
  3. right atrioventricular valve
  4. right ventricle
  5. pulmonary semilunar valve
  6. pulmonary vein
  7. left atrium
  8. left ventricle
  9. aorta
59
Q

the sinoartrial or SA node is also knwon as the _______ of the heart. once a muscle action potential is initiated by the SA node, the impulse spreads out over both _____, causing them to contract. the action potential is then conducted from the SA node through the ______ node, which then passes along the ______ Bundle. the conduction system then splits into the right and left ______ _______ and finally continues to the Purkinje fibers and the ventricles contract

A

pacemaker; atria; AV; AV; bundle branches

60
Q

circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the ______ transports blood rich in oxygen from the mother to the fetus

A

umbilical vein

61
Q

circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the _________ returns deoxygenated fetal blood to the placenta

A

umbilical arteries

62
Q

circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the _______ is the site of oxygen, nutrient, and waste exchange between fetal and maternal blood

63
Q

circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the ___________ is the vessel which connects the pulmonary artery with the aorta, bypassing the fetal lungs; it also atrophies after birth

A

ductus arteriousus

64
Q

circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the ___________ is the vessel which permits most blood to bypass the liver, and atrophies after birth

A

ductus venosus

65
Q

circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
what is the role of the foremen ovale in the fetus

A

allows blood flow to bypass the lungs

66
Q

define pulse

A

the alternating surges of pressure in an artery that occur with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle

67
Q

describe the procedure to take pulse

A

place index and middle fingers on the inside of your wrist below base of thumb (radial side)
press lightly to feel your pulse - count beats for 1 min

68
Q

identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
wrist

A

radial artery

69
Q

identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
dorsum of the foot

A

dorsalis pedis

70
Q

identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
anterior to the ear (temple region)

A

superficial temporal

71
Q

identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
side of the neck

A

common carotid

72
Q

under which of these circumstances would counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 be inaccurate
if the pulse is slow
if the pulse is rapid
if there is background noise
if the pulse is irregular

A

if the pulse is irregular

73
Q

what does diastolic blood pressure represent

A

the pressure of blood against the wall of the brachial artery when the ventricles relax

74
Q

view notes to identify waves and interals of an EKG

A

P wave (atrial depolarization)
T wave (ventricular repolarization)
QRS complex (ventricular depolarization)
Q
R
S
P-R interval
Q-T interval

75
Q

the period of time in which the ventricles of the heart are filling with blood while the myocardium is relaxed is

A

the diastolic phase

76
Q

the QRS wave of the electrocardiogram represents

A

ventricular depolarization

77
Q

an implanted electronic pacemaker serves to augment or replace the normal functioning of the

78
Q

what is an electrocardiogram

A

the graphic recording of the electrical changes occuring during the cardiac cycle

79
Q

view notes to identify the different EKG readings

A

normal sinus rhythm
sinus tachycardia
atrial fibrillation
ventricular fibrillation
sinus bradycardia

80
Q

what heart actions correspond with each sound

A

lub - beginning of ventriculart contraction (systole)
dup - closure of the semilunar valves following ventricular systole

81
Q

how is pulse rate expressed

A

bpm - beats per minute

82
Q

korotkoff

A

sound of the heart

83
Q

what can a widened pulse pressure indicate

A

deteriorating cardiovasculart health
hypertention

84
Q

physioEx 6 act 3
organisms that usually maintain the internal body temperatures in spite of encironmental temperature changes

A

homeothermic

85
Q

physioEx 6 act 3
general name for the process that maintains the internal body temperature in humans

A

homeostasis

86
Q

physioEx 6 act 3
electrolytes in a Ringer’s solution are required to provide ____________

A

autorhythmicity

87
Q

physioEx 6 act 3
internal body temperature that is above the normal range

A

hyperthermic

88
Q

physioEx 6 act 3
increased temp = increased HR
decreased temp = decreased HR

89
Q

physioEx 6 act 3
with no Ringer’s solution —–> spontaneous cardiac action potentials ________

A

would not occur

90
Q

physioEx 6 act 4
acetylcholine is released by _____________, which affects the ______

A

PNS parasympthetic nervous system; heart

91
Q

physioEx 6 act 4
what do you call a cholinergic drug that worked the same as acetylcholine

A

an agonist, decrease heart rate

92
Q

physioEx 6 act 4
how does norepinephrine affect heart rate

A

it increases the rate of depolarization and increases the frequency of action potentials

93
Q

physioEx 6 act 4
3-1 adrenergic binds norepinephrine and epinephrine

94
Q

physioEx 6 act 4
example of an acetylcholine agonist

A

pilocarpine digitalis; decreases HR (decreased AP’s)

95
Q

physioEx 6 act 4
example of an acetylcholine antagonist

A

atropine epinephrine; increases HR (mimic sympathetic nervous system)

96
Q

physioEx 6 act 4
as force of contraction ______ the HR in individuals ______ with weakened hearts

A

increases; decreases

97
Q

pericardial sac

98
Q

epicardium

A

thin, transparent, outer layer

99
Q

myocardium

A

muscle layer

100
Q

endocardium

A

inner lining of myocardium

101
Q

auricle of right atrium

102
Q

right atrium

103
Q

openings of the vena cava

A

superior vena cava
inferior vena cava

104
Q

right AV valve

105
Q

right ventricle

106
Q

chordae tendinae

107
Q

pipillary muscles

108
Q

pulmonary semilunar valve

109
Q

pulmonary trunk

110
Q

pulmonary veins

111
Q

auricle of left atrium

112
Q

left atrium

113
Q

left AV valve

114
Q

left ventricle

115
Q

aortic semilunar valve

116
Q

interventricular septum

A&P 2 (5 decks)

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