ch. 25 Flashcards

1
Q

nutrition includes the study of
a. the nutrients in foods
b. the body’s utilization of nutrients
c. how nutrients play a role in your body’s health
d. digestion, absorption, and transportation of nutrients
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

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2
Q

which of the following are energy nutrients
a. carbs, proteins, and lipids
b. proteins, water, and minerals
c. lipids, minerals, and vitamins
d. vitamins, lipids, and carbs
e. water, minerals, and vitamins

A

carbs, protein, lipids

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3
Q

essential nutrients
a. are important in the diet but not for life
b. are the only nutrients required by the body
c. cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body
d. are needed to make food taste good
e. are manufactured by the body

A

cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body

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4
Q

what is the measurement of the energy content of food
a. grams
b. calories
c. BTUs
d. joules

A

calories

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5
Q

a food guide pyramid suggests that
a. you eat as many sweets as you want
b. your diewt should contain a variety of foods
c. meats are the most important part of your diet
d. milk and cheese should be the main part of your diet
e. you should only eat one or two servings of bread, cereal, rice, or pasta per day

A

your diet should contain a variety of foods

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6
Q

a kilocalorie (kcal) is a measure of the
a. protein content of food
b. acidity of food
c. fat content of food
d. energy content of food
e. heat content of food

A

energy content of food

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7
Q

one gram of carbs, one gram of lipid, and one gram of protein yield ___, ___, and ___ kilocalories respectively
a. 4,4,4
b. 9,9,9
c. 4,9,4
d.4,9,9
e. 9,9,4

A

4,9,4

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8
Q

starches and sugars are examples of
a. carbs
b. lipids
c. proteinds
d. vitamins
e. minerals

A

carbs

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9
Q

complex carbs include
a. glucose and fructose
b. maltose and sucrose
c. starch, glycogen, and cellulose
d. cellulose and glucose
e. glucose and lactose

A

starch, glycogen, and cellulose

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10
Q

which of the following statements is true
a. the primary role of carbohydrates is to serve as an energy source
b. carbs include sugars, starches, and amino acids
c. maltose is a complex carb
d. sucrose is the primary source of energy for most cells
e. most carbs come from animal products

A

the primary role of carbs is to serve as an energy source

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11
Q

carbs are absorbed into the blood stream as
a. disaccarides
b. monosaccharides
c. oligosaccharides
d. polysaccarides
d. glycoproteins

A

monosaccarides

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12
Q

the primary source of energy for most cells is
a. sucrose
b. fructose
c. glucose
d. maltose
e. lactose

A

glucose

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13
Q

the most common monosaccarides in the diet are
a. glucose and fructose
b. galactose and fructose
c. glucose and glycerol
d. glycogen and glucose
d. lactose and maltose

A

glucose and fructose

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14
Q

excess glucose in animals is stored as
a. starch
b. sucrose
c. glycogen
d. galactose
e. cellulose

A

glycogen

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15
Q

which of the following organs can store glycogen
a. spleen and pancreas
b. kidney and adrenal gland
c. large and small intestines
d. liver and muscles
e. stomach and pancreas

A

liver and muscles

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16
Q

which of the following statements regarding cellulose is true
a. cellulose can be digested by human digestive enzymes
b. cellulose provides fiber or “roughage”
c. cellulose is another name for glucose
d. cellulost is one of the units of a sucrose molecule
e. cellulose is a source of energy

A

cellulose provides fiber or “roughage”

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17
Q

if your daily diet is deficient in carbs, the result might be
a. obesity
b. increased subcutaneous fat
c. decrease of muscle mass
d. constipation
e. sensation of thirst

A

decrease of muscle mass

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18
Q

a compound composed of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol molecule would be
a. monoglyceride
b. diglyceride
c. triglyceride
d. phospholipid
e. cholesterol

A

triglyceride

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19
Q

if the fatty acid portion of a fat molecule has ten double covalent bonds, the fat is said to be
a. hydrogenated
b. polyunsaturated
c. monounsaturated
d. saturated
e disaturated

A

polyunsaturated

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20
Q

olive and peanut oils are both
a. solid fats
b. polyunsaturated fats
c. monosaturated fats
d. fatty acids
e. hydrogenated

A

monounsaturated fats

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21
Q

polyunsaturated vegetable oils can be changed from liquids to solids by
a. adding more unsaturated fatty acids to the molecules
b. removing the glycerol portion of the molecules
c. decreasing the number of double covalent bonds in their fatty acids
d. removing hydrogens from the molecules

A

decreasing the number of double covalent bonds in their fatty acids

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22
Q

phospholipids
a. are found in cell membranes
b. are used as an energy source by cells
c. can be modified to form cholesterol
d. are invovled in the process of inflammation
e. are found inside organelles

A

are found in the cell membranes

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23
Q

about 95% of the lipids in the human diet are
a. cholesterol derivatives
b. lecithins
c. triglycerides
d. starches and other complex polysaccharides
e. phospholipids

A

triglycerides

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24
Q

cholesterol
a. must be obtained from plants
b. can be manufactured by most tissues
c. is a hormone
d. is necessary for blood clotting
e. has no constructive function in the body

A

can be manufactured by most tissues

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25
Q

a student’s dietary intake includes 100 grams of fat and a total of 2000 kcal. what percentage of the total kcal in this student’s diet comes from fat
a. 10
b. 20
c. 37
d. 45
e. 50

A

45%

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26
Q

excess triglycerides are stored in adipose tissue. adipose tissue functions
a. to assist the body in temperature homeostasis
b. pads and protects
c. energy storage
d. insulates
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

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27
Q

which of the following is an essential fatty acid
a. lecithin
b. linoleic acid
c. stearic acid
d. butyric acid
e. hydrochloric acid

A

linoleic acid

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28
Q

eicosanoids are invovled in
a. inflammation
b. blood clotting
c. tissue repair
d. smooth muscle contraction
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

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29
Q

an essential amnio acid
a. can be formed from fats in the body
b. can be synthesized by the body if there is enough nitrogen
c. must be made from glucose
d. must be supplied in the diet
e. can not be converted to nonessential amino acids

A

must be supplied in the diet

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30
Q

proteins regulate the acid-base balance of the blood by
a. acting as buffers
b. releasing nitrogen
c. transporting iron
d. binding sodium ions
e. removing carbon dioxide from the blood

A

acting as buffers

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31
Q

which of the following recommendations regarding daily requirements is correct
a. fats should account for 45% of total caloric intake
b. carbhydrate intake should be around 500 grams daily
c. protein consumption should be 10-35% of total kcal intake
d. cholesterol intake should be about 300 milligrams per day
e. protein consumption should be about 45% of total kcal intake

A

protein consumption should be 10-35% of total kcal intake

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32
Q

a food that contains all nine essential amino acids is called
a. plasma protein
b. incomplete protein
c. complete protein
d. intraceullular protein
e. adequate protein

A

complete protein

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33
Q

an example of an incomplete protein food is
a. eggs
b. meat
c. milk
d. leafy green vegetables
e. cheese

A

leafy green vegetables

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34
Q

protein that function in immunity include
a. enzymes
b. antibodies
c. hormones
d. collagens
e. fibrin

A

antibodies

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35
Q

functions of proteins include
a. providing structural strength in connective tissue
b. serving as a part of the cholesterol molecule
c. serving as the primary energy source of cells
d. transport of nitrogen gas in the blood
e. padding and insulation

A

providing structural strength in connective tissue

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36
Q

water-soluble vitamins include
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin K
e. vitamin E

A

vitamin C

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37
Q

which of the following individuals is most likely to be in a negative nitrogen balance
a. a healthy pregnant woman
b. a 10 y/o child
c. an adult woman with adequate protein intake
d. an elderly homeless man
e. a healthy adult man who exercises

A

an elderly homeless man

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38
Q

fat soluble vitamins can be toxic in large doses because they
a. do not dissolve in water
b. can be stored and accumulate in body tissues
c. are rapidly excreted
d. release free radicals
e. are flushed out of the body

A

can be stored and accumulate in body tissues

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39
Q

excessive bleeding due to slowed blood clotting is a symptom of vitamin ____ deficiency
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K
e. C

A

K

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40
Q

vitamin E and vitamin C
a. both release free radicals
b. are needed in RBC production
c. are both antioxidants
d. are formed from provitamins
e. are required for blood clotting

A

are both antioxidants

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41
Q

which of the following vitamins is mismatched with its function
a. vitamin D - bone growth
b. vitamin A - rhodopsin synthesis
c. folate - synthesis of clotthing factors
d. vitamin C - collagen synthesis
e. vitamin B12 - RBC production

A

folate - synthesis of clotting factors

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42
Q

what would happen to a vitamin if its chemical structure is destroyed by catabolism
a. it could be recycled
b. it would become nonfunctional
c. it becomes a provitamin
d. it becomes a coenzyme
e. nothing, this is normal

A

it would become nonfunctional

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43
Q

minerals
a. are organic nutrients
b. can be manufactured by the body if the diet does not supply enough
c. can serve as buffers and components of enzymes
d. are found in high concentrations in refined cecreals and breads
e. are not necessary for normal metabolic function

A

can serve as buffers and components of enzymes

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44
Q

which of the following minerals is important in acid-base balance
a. calcium
b. chlorine
c. iron
d. manganese
e. sodium

A

chlorine

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45
Q

which of the following minerals is part of the hemoglobin molecule
a. calcium
b. iodine
c. iron
d. zinc
e. fluorine

A

iron

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46
Q

which of the following minerals is mismatched with its function
a. calcium - bone formation
b. zinc - hemoglobin synthesis
c. potassium - muscle and nerve function
d. cobalt - erythrocyte production
e. selenium - component of many enzymes

A

zinc - hemoglobin synthesis

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47
Q

the daily values appearing on food labels are based on a _____ kcal reference diet
a. 1200
b. 1500
c. 2000
d. 2500

48
Q

the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in the body is known as
a. absorption
b. metalbolism
c. digestion
d. catabolism
e. anabolism

A

metabolism

49
Q

which of the following statements is true
a. catabolic reactions are synthesis reactions
b. anabolic reactions are involved in the production of proteins from amino acids
c. the energy derived from anabolism is used to drive catabolism
d. anabolic reations release energy
e. catabolic reactions consume energy

A

anabolic reactions are involved in the production of proteins from amino acids

50
Q

the digestion of complex carbohydrates is an example of
a. anabolism
b. synthesis
c. absorption
d. catabolism

A

catabolism

51
Q

the production of protein by cells is an example of
a. anabolism
b. catabolism
c. glycolysis
d. phosphorylation
e. decomposition

52
Q

the energy currency of the cell is a molecule called
a. glucose
b. pyruvate
c. fat
d. ADP
e. ATP

53
Q

high ATP concentrations would be found in
a. active cells
b. resting cells
c. exhausted cells
d. dead cells
e. none of the above

A

resting cells

54
Q

what type of reactions are involved in ATP production
a. single replacement reactions
b. conbustion reactions
c. oxidation-reduction reactions
d. reutralization reactions

A

oxidation-reduction reactions

55
Q

what atom is a major player in the production of energy from nutrient molecules
a. carbon
b. oxygen
c. hydrogen
d. nitrogen

56
Q

glycolysis is best defined as the breakdown of
a. glucose to carbon dioxide and water
b. glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid
c. pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water
d. glycogen ot glucose-6-phosphate
e. glucose to glycogen

A

glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid

57
Q

which of the following steps in glycolysis occurs last
a. oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
b. production of ATP from phosphoenolpyruvic acid
phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate
d. cleavage of fructose 1,6 diphosphate
e. input of 2 ATP molecules

A

production of ATP from phosphoenolpyruvic acid

58
Q

in glycolysis
a. NAD+ is reduced to form NADH
b. more energy is used than produced
c. glucose is formed as an end product
d. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is used as an enzyme
e. oxygen must be present for it to start

A

NAD+ is reduced to form NADH

59
Q

when glucose is metabolized in the absence of oxygen, one of the end products is
a. pyruvic acid
b. ketone bodies
c. lactic acid
d. citric acid
e. nitric acid

A

lactic acid

60
Q

one difference betwen anaerobic and aerobic respiration is that
a. anaerobic respiration utilizes the citric acid cycle but aerobic respiration does not
b. aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration
c. anaerobic respiration takes place inside cells while aerobic respiration takes place in the plasma
d. aerobic respiration does not require oxygen
e. aerobic respiration takes place after anerobic respiration

A

aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration

61
Q

a series of metabolic reactions in the liver that converts lactic acid into glucose called
a. the electron transport system
b. the Cori cycle
c. the citric acid cycle
d. beta oxidation
e. sugar cleavage

A

the Cori cycle

62
Q

how many ATP and NADH are produced by glycolysis of one glucose molecule
a. 2 ATP and 1 NADH
b. 4 ATP and 4 NADH
c. 2 ATP and 2 NADH
d. 1 ATP and 2 NADH

A

2 ATP and 2 NADH

63
Q

where does glycolysis take place
a. in the inner compartment of mitochondrion
b. on the surface of the mitochondrion
c. in the cytoplasm of the cell
d. along the cristae of the mitochondrion

A

in the cytoplasm of the cell

64
Q

the citric acid cycle begins by combining
a. carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid
b. pyruvic acid and acetic acid to form acetoacetic acid
c. pyruvic acid and carbon dioxide to form lactic acid
d. oxaloacetic acid and acetyl-CoA to form citric acid
e. pyruvic acid and citric acid

A

ocaloacetic acid and acetyl-CoA to form citric acid

65
Q

which of the following is the correct sequence
a. acetyl-CoA formation, glycolysis, electron-transport chain, citric acid cycle
b. acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis
c. citric acid cycle, glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain
d. glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cyle, electron transport chain
e. glycolysis, citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain

A

glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain

66
Q

which of the following statements about the citric acid cycle is false
a. process occurs in the mitochondria
b. the major end product of the cycle is lactic acid
c. at several steps, NADH molecules are formed
d. carbon dioxide is produced at several steps in the cycle
e. two ATP are formed in the cycle from one glucose

A

the major end product of the cycle is lactic acid

67
Q

the result of five turns of the citric acid cycle would
a. 5 ATP, 5 NADH, 5 FADH2, 5 CO2
b. 5 ATP, 15 NADH, 5 FADH2, 10 CO2
c. 10 ATP, 30 NADH, 10 FADH2, 20 CO2
d. 10 ATP, 10 NADH, 5 FADH2, 10 CO2
e. 15 ATP, 15 NADH, 15 FADH2, 15 CO2

A

5 ATP, 15 NADH, 5 FADH2, 10 CO2

68
Q

the mitochondrion is the site of
a. glycolysis
b. the citric acid cycle
c. anaerobic respiration
d. lactic acid formation
e. the citric acid cycle and the electron-transport chain

A

the citric acid cycle and the electron-transport chain

69
Q

the electron transport chain
a. results in the formation of ATP
b. converts acetate to ketone bodies
c. converts glucose to fatty acids
d. converts fatty acids to glucose
e. removes a phospharte from ATP

A

results in the formation of ATP

70
Q

if oxygen is present, how many molecules (net) of ATP are produced by the oxidation of one molecule of glucose
a. 4
b. 18
c. 32
d. 36
e. 40

71
Q

a molecule that moves electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain is
a. pyruvic acid
b. CO2
c. ADP
d. NADH
e. H2O

72
Q

each NADH molecule fed into the electron transport chain produces ____ ATPs
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

73
Q

which of the following statements is true
a. hydrogen ions are pumped across the plasma membrane
b. electrons pass from one electron carrier to another in the electron transport chain
c. water serves as the final electron acceptor
d. chemiosmosis forms carbon dioxide
e. the chemiosmosis model refers to movement of water

A

electrons pass from one electron carrier to another in the electron transport chain

74
Q

the name of the process that couples the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane to ATP production is the
a. citric acid cycle
b. glycolytic pathway
c. chemiosmosis
d. Cori cycle
e. hydrosmotic model

A

chemiosmosis

75
Q

which of the following events occurs last
a. hydrogen ions diffuse into inner mitochondrial compartment
b. hydrogen ions are moved from inner to outer mitochondrial compartment
c. the movement of hydrogen ions through special channels is coupled to ATP production
d. a hydrogen ion concentration gradient is established
e. NADH transfers electrons to the electron-transport chain

A

the movement hydrogen ions through special channels is coupled to ATP production

76
Q

how many ATP are made from each FADH2 that trasfers electrons to the electron transport chain
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

77
Q

what is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain
a. water
b. NADH
c. oxygen
d. carbon dioxide

78
Q

the body’s main energy storage molecules are
a. sugars
b. proteins
c. lipids
d. vitamins
e. carbohydrates

79
Q

the correct sequence of events that occurs when fatty acids are used to generate ATP is
a. beta oxidation, electron transport chain, deamination
b. electron transport glycolysis
c. beta oxidation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain
d. glycolysis, beta oxidation, citric acid cycle
e. citric acid cycle, glycolysis, beta oxidation

A

beta oxidation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain

80
Q

beta oxidation results in the formation of
a. pyruvate
b. acetyl CoA
c. carbon monoxide
d. oxaloacetate
e. ketone bodies

A

acetyl CoA

81
Q

acetyle CoA
a. can enter the electron transport system directly
b. is a by product of glycolysis
c. might be used to ketogenesis
d. is needed to started oxidative deamination
e. is converted to pyruvic acid

A

might be used to ketogenesis

82
Q

the formation of triglycerides is celled
a. glycogenesis
b. lipogenesis
c. gluconeogensesis
d. ketogenesis
e. beta-oxidation

A

lipogenesis

83
Q

fatty acids are catabolized in a process called
a. glycolysis
b. glycolysis
c. beta oxidation
d. gluconeogenesis
e. ketogenesis

A

beta oxidation

84
Q

the presence of ketone bodies in the urine indicates increased metabolism of
a. amino acids
b. lactic acids
c. fatty acids
d. nucleic acids
e. citric acids

A

fatty acids

85
Q

slim n trim has been on a low-fat, no carbohydrate diet for two months. which of the following would you expect to find in large quantities in the urine
a. glucose
b. lactic acid
c. pyruvic acid
d. ketone bodies
e. proteins

A

ketone bodies

86
Q

amino acids can be used as a source of energy
a. by converting them into nucleic acids
b. by subjecting them to oxidative deamination
c. in the process of transamination
d. by converting them to ethanol
e. and can be stored in the body

A

by subjecting them to oxidative deamination

87
Q

transamination
a. results in free fatty acids
b. requires glucose
c. can be used to synthesize essential amino acids
d. involves removing an amine group from an amino acid
e. directly produces urea

A

involves removing an amine group from an amino acid

88
Q

oxidative deamination is a chemical process in which
a. protein is synthesized
b. amino acids are buffered in the kidney
c. the amine group is removed from an amino acid
d. fatty acids are broken down to yield acetyl CoA
e. glutamic acid is produced

A

the amine group is removed from an amino acid

89
Q

when the amine (NH2) group is stripped off of an amino acid, the amine group is converted to
a. lactic acid
b. glucose
c. ammonia
d. glycerol
e. urea

90
Q

arrange the following in correct sequence
1. ammonia is converted to urea in the liver
2. oxidative deamination of an amino acid
3. urea is eliminated by the kidney
4. ammonia and keto acids are formed
a. 1,3,4,2
b. 2,4,1,3
c. 3,1,4,2
d. 4,1,3,2
e. 2,3,1,4

91
Q

what amino acid is usually formed from the transamination of another amino acid
a. serine
b. glycine
c. aspartic acid
d. glutamic acid

A

glutamic acid

92
Q

what is the glutamic acid made from transamination used for
a. it enters the citric acid cycle
b. it is used to make other nonessential amino acids
c. it is used to produce ATP
d. none of the above

A

it is used to make other nonessential amino acids

93
Q

which of the following is/are possible uses of amino acids in energy production
a. forming a ketoacid that can enter the citric acid cycle
b. forming intermediate molecules of carbohydrte metabolism
c. forming NADH that enters the electron-transport chain
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

94
Q

what process prepares glutamic acid for use in energy production
a. transamination
b. oxidative deamination
c. protein synthesis
d. ketogenesis

A

oxidative deamination

95
Q

the formation of glycogen from glucose is called
a. glycolysis
b. glycogenesis
c. glycogenolysis
d. gluconeogenesis
e. glucogenesis

A

glycogenesis

96
Q

the process that uses amino acids and glycerol to form glucose is
a. ketogenesis
b. glycogenesis
c. lipogenesis
d. gluconeogenesis
e. glycolysis

A

gluconeogenesis

97
Q

glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids can be metabolized within the cell to liberate
a. oxygen
b. energy
c. carbon dioxide
d. hydrogen
e. nitrogen

98
Q

there is a need for glucose in the body. which of the following reactions will yield glucose directly
a. beta oxidation
b. glycogenolysis
c. glycolysis
d. deamination
e. glucogenesis

A

glycogenolysis

99
Q

why is it important that glucose be converted to glucose-6-phosphate once glucose enters a cell
a. this form is easier for cells to metabolize
b. glucose can’t diffuse out of the cell if it is in this form
c. the cells can easily excrete this molecule
d. it becomes a long-term storage molecule for glucose
e. it can now cross the plasma membrane

A

glucose can’t diffuse out of the cell if it is in this form

100
Q

which of the following events takes place during the absorptive state
a. protein is converted into glucose in the process of deamination
b. glucose is converted into energy, glycogen, or fats
c. ketones are produced from fatty acids
d. fats are converte into glucose via beta oxidation
e. glycogen is converted to glucose

A

glucose is converted into energy, glycogen, or fats

101
Q

the absorptive state
a. occurs immediately to about 4 hours after meals
b. is when glycogenolysis usually occurs
c. has gluconeogenesis as one of its main events
d. occurs in the large intestine
e. occurs just before breakfast

A

occurs immediately to about 4 hours after meals

102
Q

arrange the following events so that they indicate a possible metabolic sequence the body might use to interconvert a protein to a fat
1. glycerol and three fatty acids combine to form triglycerides
2. fatty acids are formed from acetyl CoA
3. protein is digested to release amino acids
4. amino acids are converted to acetyl CoA
a. 2,3,4,1
b. 3,4,2,1
c. 4,2,3,1
d. 2,4,3,1
e. 4,3,2,1

103
Q

during the postabsorptive state, the first source of glucose is
a. fat
b. sugars
c. glycogen
d. amino acids
e. carbohydrates

104
Q

the evens that occur in the postabsorptive state collectively
a. decrease fat metabolism
b. maintain blood glucose levels
c. interconvert proteins to fats
d. asure adequate lipogenesis
e. maintain protein levels

A

maintain blood glucose levels

105
Q

which of the following is least likely to occur late in the postabsorptive state
a. hydrolysis of triglycerides
b. use of acetyl-CoA and ketones for energy
c. formation of glycogen
d. use of proteins as an energy source
e. reduced removal of glucose from the blood

A

formation of glycogen

106
Q

metabolic rate is the total amount of
a. glucose absorbed by the small intestine each hour
b. heat produced by body cells in an hour
c. energy produced and used by the body per unit of time
d. carbon dioxide exhaled per unit of time
e. kcal consumed

A

energy producd and used by the body per unit of time

107
Q

if a person cuts their daily caloric intake by 500 kcal, how long will it take to lose 1 lb of fat
a. 5 days
b. 1 week
c. 10 days
d. 2 weeks
e. 12 days

108
Q

the BMR (basal metabolic rate) can increase
a. during fasting
b. during pregnancy
c. as a result of decreased thyroid hormone production
d. while resting instead of studying for a test
e. during dieting

A

during pregnancy

109
Q

the energy cost for assimilation of food is called
a. the theric effect of food
b. the basal metabolic rate
c. the caloric intake
d. homeothermy
e. free energy

A

the thermic effect of food

110
Q

which of the following will increase metabolic rate
a. exercise
b. fasting
c. malnutrition
d. reduced caloric intake
e. dieting

111
Q

which of the following has the highest basal metabolic rate
a. older individuals
b. young, active males
c. middle age females
d. young, active females
e. they all have the same rates

A

young, active males

112
Q

if energy intake is greater than energy output, an individual will tend to
a. gain weight
b. lose weight
c. neither gain nor lose weight

A

gain weight

113
Q

total energy expenditure is estimated from
a. basal metobolic rate
b. thermic effect of food
c. physical activity
d. basal metabolic rate and physical activity
e. basal metabolic rate, thermic effect of food, and physical activity

A

basal metabolic rate, thermic effect of food, and physical activity

114
Q

which of the following events would occur when the environmental temperature is considerably lower than body temperature?
a. sweating
b. vasoconstriction of the blood vessels of the skin
c. increased heat loss through the skin
d. decreased muscular activity to maintain heat
e. vasodilation of the blood vessels of the skin

A

vasoconstriction of the blood vessels of the skin

115
Q

the portion of the brain that regulates body temperature is the
A. cerebral cortex.
B. hypothalamus.
C. medulla oblongata.
D. pons.
E. hypophysis.

A

hypothalamus.

116
Q

If an increase in blood temperature were detected, one would probably observe
A. increased sweat production.
B. vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels.
C. increased muscular activity.
D. shivering.
E. decreased sweat production.

A

increased sweat production

117
Q

which of the following is an example of convection?
A. infra-red radiation
B. sweating
C. exposure of the body to cold air
D. warming a chair by sitting in it
E. losing water to the air

A

exposure of the body to cold air