Lab Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

week 1 lab goal

A

extract DNA from calf thymus tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

week 2 lab goal

A

quantify extracted DNA (concentration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

week 3 lab goal

A

PCR to amplify insulin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

week 4 lab goal

A

ligate insulin gene into plasmid, transform into bacterial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

week 5 lab goal

A

analyze transformants w/ gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 reasons calf thymus is beneficial

A
  1. Relatively small cytoplasm
    We are only interested in the nucleus, which contains
    DNA. We do not want the cytoplasm.
    Relatively little protein
  2. Less cytoplasm means fewer proteins like DNase, which
    degrades DNA. We want to eliminate DNase so that it
    does not degrade the DNA we are trying to extract!
  3. Cheap and easy to get
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

molecular cloning

A

set of experiments where we
use a host organism to create many copies of a gene
* Put human insulin gene into bacteria (like E. coli). The
gene will be amplified as bacteria replicate. We take
advantage of the host’s machinery to produce many
copies of the protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

steps of DNA extraction w/ silica membrane

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(lab 1) solution for DNase, enzyme that destroys DNA

A

use EDTA - chelating agent that binds
with cations such as Ca and Mg needed by DNase and forms a water-soluble compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(lab 1) solution to stop other proteins mixing with DNA

A

Proteinase K digests proteins, sodium
dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is a surfactant that lyses cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

(lab 1) solution extreme pH environment (DNA is most stable in a neutral pH range)

A

Tris-HCl or PBS - buffer solutions used throughout the experiment to avoid
drastic pH fluctuations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

proteinase K

A

digests proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Buffer ATL

A

contains SDS and the chelating agent EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SDS

A

detergent used to lyse cells by disrupting non-covalent bonds in protein and denatures them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

EDTA

A

chelating agent - bonds with Mg and Ca to prevent DNase from getting them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Buffer AL

A

lysis buffer - promotes the lysis of the cell membrane, denaturation of proteins and DNase
- contains guanidinium hydrochloride which
promotes DNA binding to the silica membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Buffer AW1 and AW2

A

wash buffers that keep the DNA bound to the spin column while washing DNA of contaminants and impurities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DNA elution buffer

A

water - low in salt, releases DNA from spin column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

procedure of lab 1

A
  1. add buffer ATL and proteinase K to calf thymus, vortex and incubate for 1 hour
  2. add buffer AL and vortex, add ethanol
  3. Transfer to spin column and
    centrifuge to remove lysis
    buffer and cell components.
    Discard flowthrough
  4. Add AW1 wash buffer. Spin
    again. Discard flowthrough
  5. Repeat with AW2 wash buffer
  6. Spin column without adding
    any liquid to remove residual
    ethanol
  7. Add water to column and wait
    a few minutes. Spin again to
    elute DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

optimal temp for proteinase K function

A

56* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1000 microliters

A

1 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

AW1 components

A

guanidine hydrochloride
ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

AW2 components

A

ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

guanidine hydrochloride

A

chaotropic salt - high salt content increases DNA binding to silica membrane, + denatures proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Beer’s Law

A

there is a direct linear relationship between the optical absorbance (A) of a
compound and its concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A=kc

A

A = absorbance
k = slope of line of concentration/absorbance graph
c = concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

spectrophotometer

A

determines absorption of light at a specific wavelength/range of wavelengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

k value

A

50 on standard lab spectrophotometers measuring DNA concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

lab 2 procedure

A

2-fold (serial) dilutions of DNA with known concentration
1. add 100 µL of 50 ng/µL to tubes 1 and 2
2. add 100µL of TE buffer to tube 2, then continue serial dilution
3. add 100 µL of only TE buffer to tube 5 - will act as a blank
4. prepare unknown 1 - add 90µL of TE buffer and 10 µL unknown DNA sample to tube 6
5. prepare unknown 2 - add 99µL of TE buffer and 1µL unknown DNA sample to tube 7
6. determine absorbance w/ spectrophotometer and plot absorbance vs. concentration data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

TE Buffer - Tris EDTA

A

EDTA maintains the integrity of DNA by
inhibiting DNAase via ion chelation
the buffer maintains a consistent pH (7.5) - DNA absorbs differently at 260 nm depending on the pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

wavelength at which DNA absorbs light

A

260 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

restriction enzyme

A

recognize double-stranded DNA, cleave at specific palindromic recognition sequence - usually 4 or 6 base pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

why don’t REs digest their own DNA

A

their DNA is methylated to prevent digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

EcoRI name

A

Eco = e. coli
R = R strain of e. coli
I = enzyme number (first isolated strain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

EcoRI recognition site

A

5’ GAATTC 3’
cuts between G and A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

HINDIII recognition site

A

5’ AAGCTT 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

sticky ends

A

can form hydrogen bonds with complementary ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

needed to use restriction enzyme to cut DNA

A
  • template DNA
    – Restriction enzyme
    – RE buffer specific for that enzyme which allows the enzyme to function
    – Heat: The digest will be run at 37 *C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

PCR (polymerase chain reaction) definition

A

Site-specific, exponential amplification (2N) of DNA performed in vitro (i.e., in a test tube in the absence of any
living organism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

PCR requirements

A

template DNA
single stranded DNA
deoxynucleotides (dNTPs)
Mg2+
Buffer
DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

use of single-stranded DNA primers in PCR

A

primers on each strand of DNA anneal to the template DNA and bookend the piece of DNA that will be amplified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

use of dNTPs in PCR

A

building blocks of PCR rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

use of Mg2+ in PCR

A

binds to negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA and stabilizes rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

use of buffer in PCR

A

maintains pH required by PCR enzyme (DNA polymerase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

use of DNA polymerase in PCR

A

enzyme which carries out reaction - joins nucleotides together complementary to the template DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

length of PCR primer and why

A

18-22 bp
longer = binding becomes difficult
shorter = not enough specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

GC content in PCR primer

A

40-60%
increases stability to increase melting temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

melting temp (half of primers dissociate) determines…

A

annealing temp (abt 5*C lower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

melting temp is determined by

A

size and GC content of PCR primer

50
Q

3 steps in a PCR rxn

A

denaturation, annealing, extension

51
Q

denaturation in PCR

A

usually at 95*C, 30s
allows 2 strands of DNA to dissociate

52
Q

annealing in PCR

A

usually at 55*C depending on melting temperature - higher % of GC = higher melting temperature
30s
primers bind to template DNA

53
Q

extension in PCR

A

at 68C for 50s
DNA polymerase extends daughter strands by adding dNTPs
final extension at 72
C for 10 minutes

54
Q

cause of size separation in DNA agarose gel

A

larger DNA gets stuck in gel matrix (carb. complex)
small DNA moves more easily
voltage does not cause size separation, just movement

55
Q

agarose gel contains:

A

sybr green, ions

56
Q

sybr green

A

intercalator - binds between two DNA strands, is UV reactive and glows to visualize fragments

57
Q

ions in gel

A

allow current flow through gel
more salt = more current

58
Q

DNA ladder

A

contains fragment pieces of known size to estimate size of unknown fragments

59
Q

salt-containing buffer in gel

A

replaces ions that leave the gel due to current

60
Q

purpose of reaction digest

A

determine the difference in genomic DNA vs smaller DNA (lambda phage) when digested by restriction enzymes

61
Q

small pieces of DNA (ex. lambda phage) appear as _____ on the gel

A

sharp bands

62
Q

genomic DNA will appear as ____ on the gel

63
Q

linear DNA migrates ______ than circular, because…

A

slower; circular DNA tends to supercoil, become dense, and move faster

64
Q

probability of getting a 6 base sequence

A

1/4 ^6
= 1/4096
divide DNA sample size by 4096 to find total number of fragments

65
Q

theoretical yield of DNA after PCR

A

2^n - n is the number of cycles

66
Q

find total # of DNA molecules

A

2^n (# molecules to start)

67
Q

issues preventing theoretical yield of DNA after PCR

A

run out of reagents, thermocycler malfunction, human error

68
Q

needed for PCR amplification of insulin gene

A

PCR buffer
forward primer
reverse primer
dNTP
taq DNA polymerase
calf genomic DNA
DI water

69
Q

stop PCR amplification of insulin

A

put on ice (4*C)

70
Q

4 parts of molecular cloning

A
  1. isolate DNA of interest
  2. ligate insert into vector
  3. transform ligation into bacterial cells
  4. screen clones for insert
71
Q

purpose of transforming DNA into bacteria

A

cells will make copies of plasmid with insulin gene (DNA -> RNA -> protein)

72
Q

ligation reaction steps

A

annealing and ligation

73
Q

annealing (before ligation)

A

allowing complementary DNA to form hydrogen bonds (connects complementary sticky ends) to form two strands

74
Q

ligation

A

formation of a phosphodiester bond between hydroxyl group 3’ of one nucleotide and phosphate group 5’ of another

75
Q

ligation reagents

A

T4 DNA ligase
insert (PCR product)
plasmid vector (pGemT)
buffer (contains ATP for energy of DNA ligase)
1 hour at room temperature

76
Q

pGemT vector

A

plasmid carrying genes that confer resistance to specific antibiotics - pGemT has ampicillin resistance gene

77
Q

pGemT is pre-

A

linearized

78
Q

features of pGemT

A

3’ T-overhangs in polylinker site (multiple cloning site) containing cutting site for REs

ampicillin resistance gene, LacZ gene (blue/white selection)

79
Q

T-overhang

A

on pGemT vector; anneals to A overhang that is left by Taq DNA polymerase

80
Q

TA cloning

A

made possible by annealing A overhang of PCR product and T overhang of vector - most efficient

81
Q

ingredients of bacteria plating for screening

A

LB (nutrients for bacteria)
Agar
ampicillin
X-Gal/IPTG

82
Q

ampicillin

A

toxic to bacteria w/o resistance
AmpR (in pGemT) confers resistance

83
Q

LacZ gene

A

produces protein called beta-galactosidase which can cleave sugars

84
Q

if b-galactosidase cleaves X-gal (lactose-like sugar)…

A

becomes blue

85
Q

blue colonies

A

pGemT without insert

86
Q

white colonies

A

contain pGemT with insert

87
Q

insulin insert will disrupt LacZ gene ->

A

X-gal will not be cleaved -> white colonies

88
Q

transformation

A

competent cells (with this ability) take up naked DNA

89
Q

cells we use in transformation

A

JM109 - altered from E. coli with competent membranes

90
Q

transformation process

A
  1. heat shock cells at 42* C to make them take up DNA - express heat shock proteins that allow them to uptake DNA
  2. allow cells to recover in nutrient-rich media (SOC)
91
Q

optimal incubation temp for T4 DNA ligase

A

4 - 25*C (incubated at room temp for 1 hr)

92
Q

competent cells formed by

A

treatment w/ calcium chloride in the early log phase of growth

93
Q

IPTG

A

induces the lac operon (for expression of lacZ gene)

94
Q

non-functional x-gal gene (no XGal sugar)

A

functional insulin gene disrupted its function in multiple cloning site

95
Q

MCS region within lacZ gene in pGemT ensures…

A

cloning of a DNA fragment into MCS leads to non-functional X-gal protein

96
Q

OriC

A

origin where cloning will begin in the vector

97
Q

blue summary

A

no insert, lacz gene not disrupted, b-galactosidase produced, x-gal broken down

98
Q

white summary

A

lacz gene disrupted, b-galactosidase not produced, x-gal not cleaved, hopefully contains DNA insert

99
Q

miniprep steps

A
  1. centrifuge colony cells to form pellet, remove supernatant
  2. add p1 (resuspension buffer) and mix
  3. add p2 (lysis buffer) and mix gently
  4. add N3 (neutralization buffer) and mix
  5. centrifuge, get pellet, add supernatant to spin column
  6. centrifuge column - DNA will stick to column and all else will flowthrough
  7. add PB (wash buffer 1) and centrifuge
  8. add PE (wash buffer 2) and centrifuge
  9. add EB buffer (water)
100
Q

P1 buffer

A

contains Tris-CL and RNase A

101
Q

Tris-Cl

A

physiological pH buffer

102
Q

RNase A

A

enters cell and degrades all RNA - prevents structural similarity of RNA and DNA interfering w/ plasmid isolation later

103
Q

P2 buffer

A

contains NaOH and SDS

104
Q

NaOH

A

denatures genomic and plasmid DNA

105
Q

SDS

A

sodium dodecyl sulfate - amphipathic detergent, denatures the cellular and nuclear membranes to allow DNA to go into the solution

106
Q

N3 buffer

A

neutralization - contains acidic potassium acetate
high salt conc. precipitates protein and large genomic DNA, not smaller plasmid DNA, which will renature

107
Q

PB buffer

A

wash buffer 1
removes DNases that could degrade plasmid DNA
contains isopropanol and salts to ensure DNA stays attached to columb

108
Q

PE buffer

A

wash buffer 2
removes ions and impurities from plasmid DNA
contains ethanol and salts to ensure DNA stays attached to column

109
Q

EB buffer (water)

A

elution buffer
low salt buffer allows plasmid DNA to exit column - DNA is able to regain negative charge in low-salt environment - no longer attracted to silica column

110
Q

smaller fragments move through gel ____

111
Q

higher concentration of gel will cause _____ migration of fragments

112
Q

higher voltage in gel will make all fragments migrate ______

113
Q

plasmids isolated from BLUE colonies will migrate _______ because they are ________ (they lack _______)

A

faster; smaller; insert

114
Q

digested white DNA has 2 bands because ….

A

digestion cut at RE sites (EcoRI)
smaller band is insert; larger band is vector - same size as blue colonies

115
Q

alkaline lysis

A

DNA is released into solution by disrupting cell membranes - treated w/ alkaline solution to break H-bonds, then neutralized w/ acid - only small plasmid DNA can renature
first few steps in this process

116
Q

silica column affinity

A

in the presence of cations, plasmid binds to silica column despite both usually having negative charges
allows plasmid to stick to column when washed

117
Q

digested blue

A

linear DNA w/o insert
3nm

118
Q

undigested blue

A

3 nm but slightly smaller than digested (lower)
plasmid w/o insert

119
Q

undigested white

A

linear DNA w/ insert
4nm
highest

120
Q

digested white

A

2 pieces - vector (3nm) and insert (1nm)