Exam 1 - ch 1, 7 Flashcards

memorization

1
Q

operon

A

cluster of genes under the control of one promoter, ex. LAC (lactose)
when bacteria is exposed to lactose, the LAC operon activates, regulated by a feedback loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

post-translational modification

A

when the genetic sequence is edited AFTER translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

model organism

A

discoveries about model organisms are often true for all organisms
features: small size, small genome, short repro. time, large # offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mendel

A

1856-63, discovered genes through pea plant experiments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Thomas H. Morgan

A

1910, discovered genes were located on chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tatum + Beadle

A

1941, developed “1 gene 1 peptide” hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

James Watson + Francis Crick

A

1953, discovered double helix of DNA, won Nobel
Used Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins’ data
Used ball and stick models, paired A-T and C-G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Crick discovered…

A

central dogma 1958

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Jacob + Monad

A

1961, determined that enzyme levels are controlled by feedback mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nirenberg, Khorana, Brenner, Crick

A

1961-1967, crack genetic code, working with codons - worked out which codons were which

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sanger, Gilbert, Maxam

A

1977, invented how to determine nucleotide sequences of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

requirements for genetic material

A
  • store info
  • transmitted genetically
  • replicated when transmitted down
  • variable to account for phenotypic variation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Frederick Griffith

A

1928
experiments with mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

living type S injection

A

mice died, live bacteria recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

living type R injection

A

mice survived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

dead type S injection

A

mice survived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

dead type S and living type R

A

mice died, living type S recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cause of mice dying?

A

DNA from dead S cells escaped lysed capsules and entered R cells by horizontal gene transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Avery, MacLeod, McCarty

A
  • 1940s, cemented DNA as genetic material
    • experiment involved eliminating DNA, proteins, or RNA
    • concluded that transformation only occurred when DNA is present → DNA is the genetic material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

process of Hershey + Chase experiment

A
  • used 32P to label DNA, 35S to label protein
  • saw that bacteriophage DNA entered the target cell, not protein -> DNA is genetic material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hershey + Chase

A
  • provided evidence that DNA is the genetic material of T2 phage
    • used radioisotopes to distinguish DNA from proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Friedrich Miescher

A

1869, first identified DNA from pus in surgical bandages, called it nuclein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DNA structure

A
  • large macromolecules
  • nucleotides form repeating unit linked to form linear strand, two strands form double helix
  • 3D structures caused by bending and folding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

chromosomes

A

DNA wrapped around histone proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

most common form of DNA out of A, B, and Z

A

B - right handed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

histomes

A

very basic, positive, many amino acids, attract DNA’s negatively charged phosphate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

5 different histomes

A

H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3 Types of DNA: A, B, Z

A
  • A = right handed, wider, thicker, shorter
  • B = right handed, most common
  • Z = left handed, weird and long
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

nucleoside

A
  • base + sugar, no phosphate group
    • adenosine, guanosine, cytidine, uridine, thymidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

structure of nucleotide

A
  • bases attach to the sugar’s 1st carbon
  • phosphate attaches to 5th carbon
  • next base attaches to 3rd carbon
  • forms ester bonds
    • phosphodiester bonding between 5’ carbon - phosphate - 3’ carbon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

hydrogen bonds connect bases

A
  • A:T = 2 bonds, easier to break
  • C:G = 3 bonds, harder to break
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Linus Pauling

A

worked with proteins, proposed a-helix primary structure using ball and stick models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Franklin + Wilkins

A
  • used x-ray diffraction to study wet DNA fibers, determine structures
    • analyzed crystals of molecules using diffraction pattern
    • photo 51 super famous
  • key discoveries: DNA must be helical, more than 1 strand, 10 bp per turn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Erwin Chagraff

A
  • pioneered DNA isolation tech
  • took DNA of over 200 different specimens and discovered that genomes are generally similar, also [A] = [T] and [C] = [G]
    • Chargraff’s rule - concentrations are equal
    • evidence for multiple strands theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DNA specifics

A
  • 10 bps, 3.4 nm per turn
  • 2 nm width
  • two antiparallel strands
  • right handed (clockwise) spiral
  • major/minor grooves determine what proteins can be expressed
    • only certain proteins can bind and interact with certain bases
  • bases oriented with flat parts facing each other
  • only 1 DNA strand used in RNA synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

length of DNA strands

A

100-1000 nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

RNA is similar to DNA except…

A
  • uracil
  • ribose has 2’ OH
  • lots of types
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Eukaryotic ribosome

A

80s (40s and 60s subunits)
more complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Prokaryotic ribosome

A

70s (50s and 30s subunits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

RNA can form…

A

short double-stranded sections with double helix (secondary structure) ex. stem and loop structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

DNA polymerases in prokaryotes

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Meselson + Stahl

A

able to distinguish between part and daughter strands using 15N and 14N (light and heavy nitrogen)
determined DNA replication to be semi-conservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does DNA replication look like in prokaryotes?

A

replication goes around the circle in both directions and ends at terminus region
(easier in prokaryotes than eukaryotes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

nucleases

A

destroy nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

dimeric DNA polymerase

A

2 DNA poly IIIs work at the same time to replicate leading and lagging strands, move as a unit
- continuous synthesis of leading strand
- discontinuous synthesis of lagging strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

number of DnaA boxes in e. coli

A

usually 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how many origins of rep. per prokaryotic chromosome

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ori C

A

origin of replication in E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

DnaA boxes

A
  • DnaA protein starts replication process by binding to boxes, containing specific sequences
  • rich in T and A
  • sometimes called 9mers (have 9 bps)
  • oligomerization domain allows DnaA to bind to each other
  • DNA binding domain allows DnaA to find boxes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

AT-rich regions

A
  • sites where DNA strands separate (bonds are weaker here, fewer H bonds)
    • also called 13mers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

GATC methylation sites

A
  • help regulate DNA replication
    • region gets methylated when A gains methyl group on both sides prior to replication
    • 11 per sequence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

hemimethylated DNA

A
  • when only 1 strand has a methyl group
    • SeqA binds to hemimethylated DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

DAM

A

DNA adenine methylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

DnaA proteins

A
  1. bind to DnaA boxes and each other
  2. additional proteins bind and cause DNA to bend
  3. strands separate at AT-rich region
55
Q

Dna B/helicase

A

(6 subunits) bonds to origin, unwinds DNA
1. travels in 5’→3’ direction, uses energy from ATP

56
Q

DnaC

A

escorts DnaB/helicase to the replication site, drops it off and leaves 🚕

57
Q

SeqA proteins

A
  • bind to hemimethylated proteins to prevent DNA replication from starting again too early
    • keeps DnaA away from boxes
    • maintains correct number of chromosomes
58
Q

DNA B/helicase in unwinding

A

breaks down hydrogen bonds of 2 strands

59
Q

topoisomerase (DNA gyrase)

A

travels ahead and relieves supercoiling caused by unwinding

60
Q

SSBPS (single-stranded binding proteins)

A

bind to separated DNA strands to keep them apart
- otherwise, exposed bases could H-bond with individual nucleotides

61
Q

termination sequences (ter sequences)

A

opposite the ori C in E. coli
- T1 stops counterclockwise forks
- T2 stops clockwise forks

62
Q

tus protein (termination utilization sequence)

A

binds to ter sequences to stop movement of replication forks

63
Q

what starts dna synthesis?

A

RNA primers

64
Q

RNA primers

A
  • created by 🧬DNA primase
  • usually 10-12 nucleotides long
  • leading strand has 1 primer, lagging strand has multiple
  • eventually removed + replaced w/ DNA
65
Q

DNA poly I

A

excises RNA primers, replaces w/ DNA
- 1 polypeptide
- 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity - removes primers
- 5’ to 3’ polymerization activity - puts in DNA
- 3’ to 5’ exonuclease (proofreading) activity
- stops and goes back to fix mistakes - first line of defense against errors

66
Q

DNA poly III

A

synthesizes new strand of DNA to fill in gaps
- 5’ to 3’ polymerization activity
- does most DNA replication
- 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity fixes mismatches - does NOT remove primers
- 10 subunits make up DNA poly III holoenzyme

67
Q

lagging strand synthesis

A
  • lagging strand is looped, allowing DNA poly III to synthesize in the normal 5’ to 3’ direction
  • poly is moving towards rep. fork
  • clamp releases the lagging strand after completing each Okazaki fragment
  • clamp loader complex reloads the polymerase at the next RNA primer, forms another loop
  • process repeats
68
Q

DNA ligase

A

links together Okazaki fragments of lagging strands

69
Q

3 subunits of DNA poly III core

A

alpha
epsilon
theta

70
Q

dna poly III alpha subunit

A

synthesizes DNA by catalyzing bonds between adjacent nucleotides

71
Q

dna poly III epsilon subunit

A

proofreading DNA ability

72
Q

dna poly III theta subunit

A

stimulates DNA proofreading ability

73
Q

gamma complex

A

gamma subunits
delta and delta prime subunits
chi and psi subunits

74
Q

gamma subunits

A

load the 🧬beta clamp to attach the enzyme complex to DNA

75
Q

delta and delta prime subunits

A

load and open the beta clamp to attach it to DNA

76
Q

chi subunit

A

supervises single-stranded binding proteins (which hold DNA open during replication)

77
Q

psi subunit

A

interacts w/ gamma and chi subunits

78
Q

beta clamp

A

attaches to DNA to allow DNA polymerase to slide along w/o falling off

79
Q

Tau subunit

A

dimerization of poly III core complex allows holoenzymes to interact w/ both strands at once

80
Q

primosome

A

helicase + primase, interact during replication

81
Q

replisome

A

helicase + primase + poly III

82
Q

replisome is made up of

A

dimerized DNA poly III, primosome

83
Q

5 eukaryotic DNA polymerases

A

α, β, γ, δ, ε

84
Q

eukaryotic DNA poly α

A

synthesizes RNA primer, initiates DNA synthesis and lagging strand

85
Q

β clamp

A

forms dimer in ring shape around DNA, keeps DNA poly III on DNA strand for longer - can polymerize at least 500,000 nucleotides at a rate of 750 nucleotides/second

86
Q

γ subunit

A

replicates mitochondrial DNA

87
Q

δ DNA poly in Eukaryotes

A

synthesizes leading strand, fills in gaps after primer is removed

88
Q

ε DNA polyamerase

A

repairs DNA - 3’ to 5’ exonuclease

89
Q

eukaryotic DNA replication

A
  • large linear chromosomes w/ multiple origins of replication
  • chromatin is packed tightly in nucleosomes
  • many rep. bubbles
90
Q

end replication problem

A

how does DNA replication end in eukaryotes when DNA poly I cannot easily remove primers and fill in gaps?
- gaps at the end need an OH group to end replication
- DNA poly III can’t fix it from scratch
- cells will destroy single stranded unfinished DNA

91
Q

telomeres

A
  • put in place by 🧬telomerase
    • made up of RNA and proteins
    • the aglets of DNA strands!
    • telomeres provide stability, protect ends of chromosomes from nucleases, protect chromosomes from end-to-end fusion
    • when they become too short, they stop allowing replication - cell stops dividing and dies
92
Q

senescence

A

when cells stop dividing and die

93
Q

telomeres sequence

A

usually TTAGGG
- RNA is complementary -AAUCCC

94
Q

telomerase

A
  • ribonucleoprotein - the protein is a reverse transcriptase
    • most active in germ cells which constantly regenerate, and stem cells
    • somatic cells lack telomerase activity
95
Q

enzymatic activity of telomerase

A
  1. binding to 3’ overhang region of chromosome
  2. polymerization - synthesizes 6-nucleotide repeating sequence
  3. translocation - moves 6 nucleotides to the right
96
Q

promoter

A

specific DNA region designed to start transcription

97
Q

+1

A

transcriptional start site

98
Q

direction of transcription

A

3’ -> 5’
upstream towards 5’ end of coding strand
denoted by negative #s

99
Q

-10 and -35 consensus sequences

A
  • recognized by RNA poly structure
  • TTGACAT and TATAAT (Pribnow box)
100
Q

Pribnow box

101
Q

RNA polymerase holoenzyme contains

A

core and sigma factor

102
Q

RNA poly core

A
  • 2 alpha subunits
  • 1 beta subunit
  • 1 beta’ subunit
  • 1 omega subunit
103
Q

sigma factor

A

assigns specificity to RNA poly
- bonds to the -10 and -35 regions of promoter so transcription starts correctly
- only bonds under certain conditions for gene expression

104
Q

sigma factors in E. coli

A
  • multiple sigma factors to recognize a distinct set of promoters
  • σ70 recognizes housekeeping genes - basic survival, metabolic function, etc.
  • σ32 recognizes promoters for genes needed to survive under stressful conditions like high temperatures - leads to production of heat shock proteins
  • σ38 recognizes promotors for when cells are starving and in a state of no growth
105
Q

DNA-RNA hybrid

A
  • found where the RNA follows leading strand template
    • hybrid gets cut off to disconnect mRNA
106
Q

stages of transcription

A

initiation, elongation, termination

107
Q

transcription initiation (prokaryotic)

A

RNA poly binds to promoter
1. helicase “melts” the two strands apart to form transcription bubble
2. continues until sigma factor falls off (is no longer needed)

108
Q

elongation

A

RNA poly unwinds DNA ahead of it, then rewinds it after transcription

109
Q

elongation factor

A

replaces sigma factor
ex. NusA

110
Q

termination

A

strands ditch DNA poly
2 possible methods - rho-dependent or intrinsic

111
Q

rho-dependent termination

A
  1. depends on transcription terminator protein with both ATPase and helicase activity, accounts for 20%-50% of termination events
    1. this protein has 6 subunits
    2. binds to rut (Rho utilization site)
    3. rich in cytosines
    4. 70 nucleotides of growing RNA chain will wrap around the Rho protein, activate ATPase activity
    5. uses energy released to translocate up to the DNA-RNA hybrid - speeds up, sites ahead slow down RNA poly so Rho can catch up
      • RNA poly pauses at Rho sensitive pause sites - stem-loops like roadblocks
    6. at hybrid region, Rho uses helicase activity to separate and release RNA molecule - RNA poly falls off
112
Q

intrinsic termination

A

rho-independent, relies on a signal within RNA to terminate
1. hairpin of RNA strand forms when RNA is released from hybrid → stem binds to NusA → A and U strands have weak bonds, causes overall destabilization → mRNA and RNA poly fall off → transcription ends

113
Q

_____ and _____ take place in eukaryotic nucleus at the same time

A

transcription; RNA processing

114
Q

steps of RNA processing

A
  1. addition of a modified guanosine cap at the 5’ end
  2. remove introns from premessenger RNA
  3. combine exons
  4. polyadenylation (cleavage) at 3’ end
115
Q

how many RNA poly in eukaryotes

A

3 - each transcribe different types of genes

116
Q

E RNA poly I

A

rRNA in nucleolus

117
Q

E RNA poly II

A

mRNA, small nuclear RNA in nucleoplasm

118
Q

E RNA poly III

A

5S RNA, tRNA in nucleoplasm

119
Q

eukaryotic promoters are first recognized by…

A

General Transcription Factors (GTFS) a.k.a. basal transcription factors

120
Q

GTFs - examples

A

TFIIA, TFIIB, TFIID, TBP, TFIIE, TFIIF, TFIIH

121
Q

important GTFs

A

TFIID and TBP (TATA Box Binding Protein) start nucleation process

122
Q

GTFs function

A

attract RNA poly II to start at transcription site

123
Q

preinitiation complex (PIC)

A

GTFs + RNA II poly core

124
Q

RTFs

A

regulatory transcription factors - bind to specific sequences

125
Q

transcription elongation

A

occurs inside transcription bubble - capping, phosphorylization of CTD, phosphates removed, splicing

126
Q

capping

A

nascent RNA emerges from RNA poly II, cap is added to 5’ end by proteins that interact with CTD
- cap made up of 7-methylguanosine residue linked to transcript by 3 phosphate groups
- protects RNA from degradation
- required for translation

127
Q

what is the cap made up of

A

7-methylguanosine residue

128
Q

CTD

A
  • carboxy terminal domain - gets phosphorylated - recruits phosphorylation enzymes (🧬tinases)
    • controls all processing
129
Q

phosphotases

A

new enzymes brought in in elongation- remove phosphates after capping

130
Q

splicing

A

removal of introns, joining of exons, done by the 🧬spliceosome
1. introns almost always have GU at the 5’ end and AG at the 3’ end - GU-AG rule

131
Q

spliceosome made up of

A

SNURPS: small nuclear RNAs and ribonucleoproteins

132
Q

SNURPS examples

A

U1, U2, U4, U5, U6 (U3 is chilling in the nucleolus)

133
Q

sequences that end RNA elongation

A

AAUAAA or AUUAAA

134
Q

end of elongation

A
  • enzyme recognizes sequence, cuts off the end of the RNA ~20 bases further down
    -adds poly-A tail - sequence of 150-200 adenine bases