Lab 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Why has lettuce become important from a microbiological perspective? [4]

A
  • Increased demand for fresh produce
  • Increased demand for pre-washed produce (e.g., salad kits)
  • Increase in packaging/processing from farm to market
  • Shipping (i.e., not only local produce)
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2
Q

What are sources of potentially pathogenic bacteria?

A
  • Contaminated food and water
  • Unsanitary conditions
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3
Q

What is the classic method for identification of food borne pathogens? [4]

A
  • Homogenization of solids
  • Enrichment
  • Selection
  • Biochemical characterization
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4
Q

What is Hektoen agar?

A
  • A selective and differential media
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5
Q

What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using the classic method of identification of food borne pathogens (like Salmonella)?

A
  • One advantage of using the classic method of identification of foodborne pathogens is that it is considered the “gold standard” and is well known for its cost-effectiveness, sensitivity, ability to confirm cell viability, and ease of standardization.
  • However, one disadvantage of using the classic method is that it can be time-consuming and unable to examine novel organisms. Additionally, traditional typing methods cannot provide sufficient information to differentiate among strains.
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6
Q

List four newer methods for identification of food-borne pathogens.

A
  • Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
  • Lateral flow devices (LFD)
  • Fluorescent In-situ hybridization (FISH)
  • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) (also q-PCR - a variation that quantitates the PCR product as the amplification is in progress)

Other methods exist, but will not be discussed in MICB 353.

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7
Q

What can ELISA be used to detect?

A
  • Bacterial toxins
  • Bacterial proteins
  • Virus particles
  • Cannot detect the actual bacteria
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8
Q

Describe sample preparation for ELISA.

A

The sample would be homogenized in a phosphate buffer.

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9
Q

What does ELISA entail?

A
  • Two antibodies that bind to different structures of the target of interest (e.g., toxin)
  • One antibody is conjugated to an enzyme (E).
  • The enzyme cleaves a colourless substrate (S) to a coloured product (P)
  • The amount of the product can be measured (qualitative and quantitative assay)
  • Time to completion = 4 - 6 hours (not including sample preparation)
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10
Q

What can lateral flow devices be used to detect?

A
  • Pathogens (virus, bacteria)
  • Other contaminants (e.g., toxins)
  • In water supplies and foodstuffs.
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11
Q

What does a lateral flow device entail?

A
  • Typically contain a control line to confirm the test is working properly, along with one or more target/test lines.
  • Can be used in a dipstick or in a housed cassette format.
  • Time to completion = 5-10 minutes
  • Qualitative
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12
Q

Describe lateral flow device technology.

A
  • Uses immunoassay tech using nitrocellulose membrane, coloured nanoparticles (or labels), and typically antibodies, to produce results.
  • When a sample is added, it will flow along the test device passing through the conjugate pad into the nitrocellulose membrane and then the absorbent pad.
  • The conjugate pad, which stores the conjugated labels and antibodies, will receive the sample.
  • If the target is present, the immobilized conjugated antibodies and labels will bind to the target and continue to migrate along the test.
  • As the sample moves along the device the binding reagents situated on the nitrocellulose membrane will bind to the target at the test line. A coloured line will form.
  • Very easy to use. Qualitative tests read visually.
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13
Q

What does fluorescent in-situ hybridization detect?

A
  • Detects and locates a specific sequence on a chromosome
  • Allows for the direct quantification of pathogens without the need to culture the bacteria first.
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14
Q

Describe how fluorescent in-situ hybridization works.

A
  • Uses a piece of DNA (probe) that is complementary to a sequence in the chromosome. A fluorescent dye is attached to the probe.
  • Would have DNA probes – e.g., recognizes the sequence of portion of a gene found in a pathogen like Salmonella.
  • Can visualize the test with a fluorescent microscope.
  • Time to completion: about 2 – 3 days (would include preparation of the sample).
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15
Q

What is PCR?

A
  • A laboratory technique used to amplify DNA sequences
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16
Q

What does PCR involve?

A
  • Using short DNA sequences called primers to flank (select) the portion of the genome to be amplified
  • The temperature is repeatedly raised and lowered to help a DNA replication enzyme copy to target the DNA sequence.
  • This technique can produce a billion copies of the target sequence in just a few hours.
  • The presence of the PCR product is detected by gel electrophoresis.
  • Time to completion = 5 - 8 hours (includes sample preparation)
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17
Q

Describe gel electrophoresis in PCR.

A
  • DNA samples are loaded into wells at one end of a gel, and an electric current is applied to pull them through the gel.
  • DNA fragments are negatively charged, so they move towards the positive electrode.
  • When a gel is stained with a DNA-binding dye, the DNA fragments can be seen as bands, each representing a group of same-sized DNA fragments.
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18
Q

Think of one advantage and one disadvantage of these methods to identify potential food pathogens.

How could someone interested in food safety (not necessarily microbiological) and/or food quality use these tests?

A
19
Q

Describe Gram-positive bacteria.

A
  • Thick peptidoglycan layer and no outer membrane
  • Stain purple
  • The peptidoglycan protects the bacteria from osmotic lysis, but not plasmolysis
  • The peptidoglycan provides mechanical strength to the cytoplasmic membrane.
20
Q

Which type of bacteria are responsible for most infections in the bloodstream?

A
  • Gram-positive bacteria (62% of infections)
  • Gram-negative bacteria (22%)
  • Some Gram-positive bacteria are significant food-borne pathogens
  • Some Gram-positive bacteria can be part of the microbiota.
21
Q

Define: food borne infection.

A
  • Vegetative form or resting form present in food is eaten (if resting form - then germination results)
  • Vegetative form grows in the intestines producing exotoxins and causing illness
22
Q

Define food borne intoxication.

A
  • Vegetative form or resting form present in food (if resting form - then germination results)
  • Vegetative form grows in food producing exotoxin
  • Food is consumed, causing illness
23
Q

What is resting form and vegetative form?

A

Resting form = dormant cellular form, not dead, but not capable of reproduction
Vegetative form = active cellular form capable of reproduction

24
Q

What is an exotoxin?

A
  • Secreted extracellular proteins
  • Enterotoxins (type of exotoxin) bind to membrane proteins of intestinal cells causing them to secrete large amounts of water (diarrhea)
  • Neurotoxins (type of exotoxin) bind to nerve cells; have different effects depending on the toxin
  • Vary in heat-sensitivity
25
Q

Give an example of a resting cell.

A

Endospores formed by some members of Gram-positive bacteria; some endospore formers are pathogenic

26
Q

Most prokaryotes form resting cells.
True or False?

A

False.
Most do not form resting cells.

27
Q

Most prokaryotes do not form resting cells.
True or False?

A

True.

28
Q

Describe endospores.

A
  • Core is dehydrated (10-15% water by weight)
  • Undetectable metabolic activity due to low water
  • Cells are dormant and long-lived
  • Resistant to penetration of chemicals (e.g., do not stain)
  • Very heat resistant; can survive for hours at normal cooking temperatures, pasteurization temperatures and boiling water.
29
Q

What is the purpose of endospore formation?

A
  • Protect genome until favourable nutritional conditions return.
  • When this occurs, endospore germinates and resumes growth as a vegetative cell
  • If present in a food when packaged, endospores might germinate into vegetative cells and grow during room temperature storage and produce the toxin.
  • Many packaged foods are not subsequently cooked.
30
Q

Describe the heat-sensitivity of exotoxins.

A
  • Some are heat labile (denatured by normal cooking temperatures)
  • Some are heat stable (not denatured by normal cooking temperatures)
31
Q

Gram-negative bacteria form spores.
True or False?

A

False.
They are not spore formers.

32
Q

Gram-negative bacteria do not form spores.
True or False?

A

True.

33
Q

Salmonella causes […].

A

Food-borne infection or intoxication

Various foods

34
Q

Camplyobacter jejuni causes […]

A

Food-borne infection

Typically poultry

35
Q

Vibrio cholerae causes […]

A

Food borne infection

Various foods, water

36
Q

Vibrio parahaemolyticus causes […]

A

Food-borne infection

Raw or undercooked shellfish

37
Q

Escherichia coli causes […]

A

Food-borne infection

Various foods

38
Q

Compare food-borne infection and food-borne intoxication.

A
  • Food-borne infection – bacteria grow in the intestine, produce toxins
  • Food-borne intoxication – toxins present in the food that is ingested
39
Q

Describe Bacillus cereus.

A
  • Spore former
  • Facultative anaerobe (can grow with or without oxygen)
  • Can cause both food-borne infection and intoxication
  • Most commonly ingested in rice that had been sitting at room temperature after cooking
  • A relatively common cause of gastroenterititis worldwide
40
Q

Describe Clostridium perfringens

A
  • Forms spores
  • Anaerobe
  • Can cause food-borne infection
  • Most commonly ingested from contaminated meat and poultry
  • Also causes gas gangrene if it gets into a deep tissue wound.
41
Q

Describe Listeria monocytogenes

A
  • Does not form spores
  • Facultative anaerobe
  • Can cause food-borne infection
  • Associated with foods such as deli meats, soft cheese (e.g., Brie) and refrigerated seafood (e.g., smoked salmon)
  • Grows at refrigerated temperature
  • Serious illness for pregnant people and immunocompromised
42
Q

Describe Clostridium botulinum

A
  • Forms spores
  • Anaerobe
  • Can cause food-borne infection
  • Most commonly ingested from home canned foods
  • Most potent toxin - causes flaccid paralysis
  • People voluntarily inject diluted toxin for cosmetic procedures (Botox)
43
Q

Describe Bacillus anthracis

A
  • Forms spores
  • Anaerobe
  • Can cause food-borne infection
  • Ingested from contaminated meats that are consumed raw or are undercooked
  • Can cause cutaneous, respiratory and GI illness
  • Very high fatality rates for respiratory and GI illness
44
Q

Describe Staphylococcus aureus

A
  • Does not form spores
  • Facultative anaerobe
  • Most dangerous of all the many common staphylococcal bacteria, but can be part of the microbiota of a healthy individual
  • Can cause food born intoxication
  • Ingested from contaminated ready-to-eat food (most likely, contaminated by the food handler)
  • Can also cause toxic shock syndrome