Lab 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the standard plate count procedure?

A
  • Used to enumerate bacteria
  • A specified volume is plated and incubated
  • Resulting colonies counted
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2
Q

What are two required properties a diluent for a bacterial dilution?

A
  1. Must have osmolarity like that of sample
  2. Should not support bacterial growth
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3
Q

What are the two important potential sources of error in preparing dilutions?

A
  1. Sampling error resulting from an unequal distribution of bacterial in original sample or dilution blanks (always mix fluids well prior to sampling to avoid this)
  2. Inaccuracy in pipetting; more transfers = greater chance of error (use as few dilutions as possible to avoid this)
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4
Q

Describe King B agar.

A
  • Typical for Pseudomonas, which produce fluorescent pigments.
  • Recommended for production and detection of fluorescent pigments
  • Magnesium chloride and potassium sulfate in the media promote production of pyocyanin, a blue or blue-green, fluorescent pigment.
  • Glycerol provides a carbon source and assists in pyocyanin production.
  • The pigments diffuse from colonies into the agar and can be observed under UV light.
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5
Q

What is the result of an oxidase test if the bacteria is Pseudomonas?

A

Usually positive

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6
Q

Describe nitrate reduction broth.

A
  • Many bacteria reduce nitrate salts to nitrite or nitrogen gas under anaerobic conditions.
  • The nitrate molecule acts as an electron acceptor.
  • Following incubation, nitrite accumulation can be detected by addition of : alpha-napthylamine and sulfanilic acid which react with nitrite to produce a compound that appears red
  • Some species, like Pseudomonas further reduce nitrite to ammonium; this gives a false negative
  • A negative test is confirmed by adding a pinch of zinc; if unreduced nitrate is present, it will produce a red colour (i.e., the zinc reduces nitrate to nitrite which will then react with the previous reagents)
  • If after adding zinc, there is no colour change, this would be considered a positive nitrate reduction test
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7
Q

Describe Bile Esculin Azide Agar.

A
  • Contains bile to inhibit growth of some bacteria (e.g., non-enteric).
  • Useful for identification of Enterococci
  • Bacteria that can hydrolyze esculin release glucose and esculetin.
  • Esculin reacts with iron salts (ferric citrate) in the medium and form dark brown to black complexes
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8
Q

How does the Gram stain procedure differentiate bacteria?

A
  • Gram-negative have an outer membrane and a thin peptidoglycan layer which loses the primary dye when flooded with alcohol
  • Gram-positive have a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains the primary purple dye and no outer membrane
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9
Q

Describe what over or under decolorization can result in during a gram stain.

A
  • Under decolorization can result in a false gram positive result
  • Over decolorization can result in a false gram negative result
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10
Q

Describe how nutrition affects bacterial growth.

A
  • Bacteria also need macronutrients (C H O N P S) and micronutrients (K, Ca, Mg, Fe), trace elements (Cl, Na, Zn, Mn, Mo, Ni, Cu…).
  • The nutrients need to be in a form that bacteria can use (growth depends on nutrient availability).
  • For example, the air is 78% nitrogen (as N2), but very few bacteria can use N2 as a source of nitrogen for making amino acids, nucleotides.
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11
Q

Describe the growth phases of bacteria.

A

Lag: adaptation to new media and/or growth conditions, ‘gearing’ up to take advantage of nutrients
Exponential: cells are growing, dividing, cell numbers (concentration) are increasing
Stationary: cells are adapting to poor environmental conditions, low nutrients, high waste
Death: cells are dying

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12
Q

Describe how temperature affects bacterial growth.

A
  • Growth depends on the preferred temperature of the bacteria of interest.
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13
Q

Describe how pH affects bacterial growth.

A
  • pH represents the concentration of H+ ions which contributes to the availability of other nutrients such as iron
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14
Q

Describe how oxygen affects bacterial growth.

A
  • Some bacteria:
    • have absolute requirement for oxygen
    • cannot tolerate oxygen
    • are somewhat indifferent to oxygen
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15
Q

Obligate aerobes.

A

Need oxygen

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16
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Oxygen is toxic

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17
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Prefer oxygen, but can grow in low oxygen conditions.

18
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Prefer no oxygen, but can grow in its presence.

19
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Require small amounts of oxygen

20
Q

Need oxygen

A

Obligate aerobes.

21
Q

Oxygen is toxic

A

Obligate anaerobes

22
Q

Prefer oxygen, but can grow in low oxygen conditions.

A

Facultative anaerobes

23
Q

Prefer no oxygen, but can grow in its presence.

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

24
Q

Require small amounts of oxygen

A

Microaerophiles

25
Q

What are colony forming units?

A

CFU = the concentration (# of cells in a given volume) can be approximated using a colony count method.

CFU = a unit that estimates the # of cells in a sample that are (1) viable, (2) able to multiply via binary fission.

SEM: a single bacterial colony
26
Q

Why does CFU only provide approximate counts?

A
  • 1 colony may not have arisen from 1 cell
  • We’re only counting living cells that can grow in the environment provided
  • CFU assumes that every colony is separate and founded by a single viable microbial cell, which may not be the case.
27
Q

What can the gram stain identify? [4]

A
  • Shape of bacteria
  • Arrangement of bacteria
  • Nature of the cell wall
  • Presence of spores
28
Q

Compare a gram stain of a pure versus mixed culture.

A
29
Q

Describe the gram-stain process.

A
  1. Flood the slide with Crystal violet. Wash off with water after 1 minute.
  2. Flood the slide with iodine-mordant – holds CV-I complex in cell membrane. Wash off after 1 minute.
  3. Decolorize slide with ethanol.
  4. Counter-stain with safranin or aqueous fuschin. Wash off with water after 1 minute. Tap of excess water and let slide dry.
30
Q

Describe the gram-stain process.

A
  1. Flood the slide with Crystal violet. Wash off with water after 1 minute.
  2. Flood the slide with iodine-mordant – holds CV-I complex in cell membrane. Wash off after 1 minute.
  3. Decolorize slide with ethanol.
  4. Counter-stain with safranin or aqueous fuschin. Wash off with water after 1 minute. Tap off excess water and let slide dry.
31
Q

Describe the first step of the gram stain process.

A
  • Flood the slide with Crystal violet.
  • Crystal violet is positively charged and binds to the negatively charged cell wall structures. In this step, all cells are stained purple
32
Q

Describe the second step of the gram stain process.

A
  • Flood the slide with iodine-mordant. Iodine (I) molecules is a “dye-fixator” or mordant.
  • Iodine molecules binds to CV molecules (via non-covalent bonds) and form large insoluble complexes (CV-I) in the peptidoglycan and inner membrane.
  • In this step, all cells are still stained purple.
33
Q

Describe the third step of the gram stain process.

A
  • Decolorize slide with ethanol. Alcohol dissolves the outer membrane of Gram-negative and disrupts the thin peptidoglycan layer so that Crystal-violet-iodine complexes escape.
  • In Gram positive cells, Crystal-violet-iodine complexes are retained.
  • Gram-positive bacteria are still purple, Gram-negative bacteria are colourless.
34
Q

Describe the last step of the gram stain process.

A
  • Counter-stain with safranin or aqueous fuschin.
    Safranin is used to counter stain the Gram-negative bacteria that were colourless in step 3, can now be visualized as pink.
  • Safranin is a positively charged stain that binds to the negatively charged cell wall structures in Gram negative bacteria.
35
Q

When gram-staining an unknown bacteria, is it important to have a positive control (a sample of bacteria that is known to be Gram-positive) and a negative control (a sample of bacteria that is known to be Gram-negative).

Why?

A
  • To ensure the gram-stain procedure was conducted correctly
36
Q

What could possibly go wrong in a gram stain procedure?

A
  • Contaminated sample
  • Overheating; not heating enough heating
  • Stain for too long
  • Overwashing/destaining
  • Too heavy a smear
  • Too old a culture
  • Not washing long enough with ethanol
  • Washing too long with ethanol
  • Using reagents in the wrong order
37
Q

Describe a compound light microscope.

A
  • Uses visible light
  • A condenser lens focuses the light onto the specimen
  • The objective lens picks up the light transmitted by the specimen and magnifies the image
  • The image is viewed and further magnified through eye pieces.

Example application: viewing cells after gram-staining; looking for somatic cells in a raw milk sample

38
Q

Describe the magnification of compound light microscopes.

A
  • 10X - difficult to view bacteria
  • 40X - better, but bacteria are small
  • 100X - best viewed - requires immersion oil
39
Q

How is actual magnification calculated?

A

objective x eyepiece

40
Q

What is resolution?

A
  • Resolution is the ability of the microscope to distinguish between 2 objects/detail. Shortest distance between 2 points on a specimen that can be distinguished.
  • At higher magnifications, the ability to “resolve” 2 points is dependent on the light and the objective lens (numerical aperture).
41
Q

Why do oil immersion objective lenses improve resolving power?

A
  • Oil has a high refractive index - it will ‘bend’ light back toward the lens
42
Q

What plates are considered valid for counting (via CFU) in this class?

A

Those that have between 30 - 300 colonies