Lab 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Rubber band around head procedure; what types of sensory receptors are being stimulated and are they phasic or tonic?

A

mechanoreceptors (touch, pressure), phasic bc they adapt to stimulus.

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2
Q

Rubber band around head procedure; what has occurred with each change in stimulus (application of the rubber band and removal of the band?

A

a graded potential happens when the stimulus changes which leads to an AP. so aps happen when the stimulus changes.

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3
Q

distribution and testing of cutaneous receptors; used marker, toothpick, cool metal rod and warm metal rod. What are the receptor types, are they phasic or tonic, and which type is more numerous?

A

mechanoreceptors/tactile - touch (tonic or phasic), nociceptors - pain (tonic), thermoreceptors - heat and cold (phasic). mechano were more numerous, then pain, then cold, then heat.

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4
Q

what happens during the two-point discrimination procedure?

A

use aesthesiometer to touch parts of skin and move tip apart small distance to see when they can discriminate btwn two points.

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5
Q

two-point discrimination procedure; what type of receptors, where on body is two-point discrimination the greatest, and why?

A

mechanoreceptors, greatest on fingertips bc points are the closest. want to feel accurately with fingertips.

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6
Q

two-point discrimination procedure; which area has the greatest density of receptors and which the least?

A

greatest density is fingertips least density is back of hand.

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7
Q

what happens during the using proprioception to locate a stimulus procedure? Where are the receptors more numerous, and where in the brain are the stimuli perceived?

A

partner touches skin, and person has to try to touch same spot, whole time eyes closed. fingertips more numerous. sensory info goes to somatesonsory cortex an postcentral gyrus.

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8
Q

what procedures test visual acuity?

A

snellen eye chart, astigmatism chart, and ishiharas colour plates.

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9
Q

What happens during the snellen eye test?

A

stand 20 feet away and read lines of letters, and try to read smallest line of letters.

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10
Q

What happens during the astigmatism test?

A

stand 20 feet away from chart and identify the spokes you can see clearly

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11
Q

what is tested with ishiharas colour plates, and what are the different cone types?

A

deficiencies in colour photoreceptor cells, one type absorbs red wavelengths, one blue wavelengths, one green wavelengths.

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12
Q

What is convergence?

A

medial mvmt of the eyes, which helps to maintain partial overlap of the visual field of each eye when viewing objects close up

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13
Q

What is nystagmus?

A

involuntary, rapid, rhythmic mvmt of one or both eyeballs, produced by weak extrinsic mms or damage to a branch of cranial nerve that innervates an extrinsic eye mm.

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14
Q

How do you test convergence?

A

slowly brining a pencil to bridge of nose. eyes will be misaligned if theres convergence

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15
Q

How do you test nystagmus?

A

hold pencil away from bridge of nose, move side to die and up and down, eyes would shake if nystagmus present.

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16
Q

What does the Weber test do?

A

tests if conductive or sensorineural hearing loss by striking tuning forehead and placing on forehead. if can hear sound better on one side then; CHL may be in the ear thats louder (bc no enviro noise to interfere with sound heard by bone conduction), or SHL where sounds louder in oppo ear bc of damage to nerve making it quieter.

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17
Q

What does the Rinné test do?

A

tests for middle ear deafness by having tuning fork on mastoid to hear sound via bone conduction, and then moving to ear to hear via air conduction. if no problems should be able to hear both fine. if problems wont be able to hear air conduction after, indicating that bone conduction is better, so smthn is causing middle ear deafness.

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18
Q

in rinné test what sensory receptors are being stimulated, and what cranial nerve will carry signals toward the cns?

A

hair cells are specialized mechanoreceptors. cranial nerve 8, vestibulocochlear nerve, cochlear branch.

19
Q

What is the light pupillary reflex?

A

autonomic reflex that regulates amount of light entering the eye to optimize vision and protect photoreceptor cells. constriction of pupils happens when light shines into eye.

20
Q

What is the light puillary reflex; receptor, effector, C or S, ipsi/contra, system, innervation of effector?

A

R= photocreceptors E= smooth mm in iris. Cranial nerve 2 optic. ipsilateral. ANS; PSNS. constricts, Cranial nerve 3 oculomotor nerve.

21
Q

What is the consensual light reflex; receptor, effector, C or S, ipsi/contra, system, innervation of effector?

A

R= photoreceptors E= smooth mm in iris. cranial nerve 2 optic. contralateral. ANS; PSNS. constricts. cranial nerve 3 oculomotor nerve.

22
Q

What is the ciliospinal reflex?

A

tests fxn of sympathetic pathways involved in pupillary dilation. stimulate skin if neck face or shoulders and pupil dilates.

23
Q

What is the ciliospinal reflex; receptor, effector, C or S, ipsi/contra, system, innervation of effector?

A

R= mechanoreceptors, nociceptors E= smooth mm in iris. spinal/cranial? , 1st order neuron. ipsilateral. ANS; SNS. pre- and post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons

24
Q

What is the corneal reflex?

A

blink reflex, where if smthn touches cornea, we blink to avoid damage to eye.

25
What is the corneal reflex; receptor, effector, C or S, ipsi/contra, system, innervation of effector?
R= mechanoreceptors in cornea E= skel mm, orbicularis oculi. cranial nerve 5 trigeminal. bilateral. SomNS. cranial nerve 7 facial nerve
26
What is the patellar (knee jerk) reflex?
stretch reflex which maintains mm tone and posture and prevents overstretching and injury by causing immediate contraction of quads when theyre stretched.
27
What is the patellar reflex; receptor, effector, C or S, ipsi/contra, system, E/F, innervation of effector, nt released at effector?
R= mm spindle in quad fem E= quad fem. spinal. ipsilateral. SomNS. extensor. femoral nerve. ACh
28
What is the achilles tendon reflex?
stretch reflex, that occurs in gastrocnemius.
29
What is the achilles tendon reflex; receptor, effector, C or S, ipsi/contra, system, E/F, innervation of effector, nt released at effector?
R= mm spindle in gastroc E= gastroc. spinal. ipsilateral. SomNS. flexor. tibial nerve, ACh.
30
What is the plantar reflex?
reflex elicited in toes when cutaneous receptors on sole of foot are stimulated. protects sole of foot from injury and contributes to motor control and coordination of foot mvmts.
31
What is the plantar reflex; receptor, effector, C or S, ipsi/contra, system, E/F, innervation of effector, nt released at effector?
R= mechanoreceptors E= skel mm, flexor digitorum longus. spinal. ipsilateral. SomNS. flexor. medial plantar nerve of tibial nerve branch. ACh
32
What's the difference btwn a phasic and tonic receptor?
phasic; adapts to an ongoing stimulus, and only reacts to a change in that stimulus. tonic; constantly sending signal about stimulus.
33
Poliomelytis affects the anterior horn of the spinal gray matter and destroys the cell bodies of motor neuron located there. Would you expect a person with severer polio to exhibit spastic or flaccid paralysis of skel mms?
LMNs would be damaged so flaccid paralysis bc signals not getting sent past spinal cord.
34
Which of the reflexes or tests could be used to assess the fxn of the femoral nerve?
patellar knee jerk reflex.
35
Which of the reflexes or tests could be used to assess the fxn of the cranial nerve VII?
corneal reflex assesses the facial nerve
36
Which of the reflexes or tests could be used to assess the fxn of the cranial nerve VIII?
weber test or rinné test assesses the vestibulocochlear nerve.
37
(look at pic in NB album) On the images provided, your choices are labeled a to e for questions 1 and 2: 1. which of the labeles images shows a biological hazard? 2. Which of the labeled images shows both a chemical and physical hazard?
1. c) 2. e) (bc clear substances are just assumed to be a chemical instead of water, so there was a chemical spill).
38
For the graph provided, use the following choices to answer questions 3 and 4: a) time of day b) cortisol lvl c) cortisol lvls increase with age d) cortisol lvls are highest in the evening e) older individuals have lower cortisol lvls 3. what is the dependent variable on the graph? 4. what trend in cortisol lvls does the graph show?
3. b) 4. e)
39
For the apparatus provided, use the following choices to answer questions 5 and 6: a) simple diffusion b) facilitated diffusion c) osmosis d) 70:30 e) 40:60 5. What types of cell membrane transport is demonstrated by this apparatus? 6. Which ratio of bead molecules would result in the greatest movement of molecules across the membrane?
5. b) facilitated diffusion (holes are supposed to be membrane channel proteins) 6. d)
40
On the apparatus provided, your choices are labeled a and b for questions 7 and 8: 7. Which of the labeled test tubes contains a solution that has a lower osmotic pressure compared to red blood cells? 8. Which of the labeled test tubes demonstrates that hemolysis has occurred?
7. b) 8. b) (clearer bc the membranes have popped)
41
On the graph provided, your choices are labeled a to e for questions 9 and 10: 9. Where on the graph do Na voltage gated channels open? 10. Which part of the graph represents the relative refractory period?
9. b) 10. d)
42
(multi-select) Which of the following are involved in the patellar (knee-jerk) reflex? a. generator potential on the 1st order neuron b. EPSP on the 3rd order neuron c. IPSP on the postganglionic neuron d. release of ACh by the lower motor neuron e. EPSP on an interneuron in a monosynaptic pathway
a. generator potential on the 1st order neuron & d. release of ACh by the lower motor neuron
43
A Rinné test is performed with which of the following pieces of equipment? a. aesthesiometer b. tuning fork c. von frey filament d. ishiharas colour plates e. pen light
b. tuning fork
44
Which of the following reflexes is both cranial and sympathetic?
ciliospinal reflex (dont know why its cranial very confusing)