LAB Flashcards by pink popcorn

A positive urine urobilinogen test indicates all of the
following pathologic conditions except:
o Hemolytic anemia
o Obstructive jaundice (Tumor)
o Malaria
o Pernicious anemia

o Obstructive jaundice (Tumor)

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Urobilinogen is a colorless bile pigment. Urobilin is
also a colorless pigment
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

The first statement is true. Second statement is
false

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Which of the following causes the conversion of
urobilinogen in the intestinal tract from conjugated
bilirubin?
o Bacterial action
o Parasitic action
o Viral action
o Fungal action

o Bacterial action

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When is the best time to collect urine for collection
of increased amount of urobilinogen in urine?
o Anytime of the day
o Early morning
o 2 hours after a meal
o 2-4 hours after 12 noon

o 2-4 hours after 12 noon

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In which of the following conditions is urobilinogen
present in increased amount in urine?
I. Malaria
II. Pernicious anemia
III. Cholelithiasis
IV. Congestive Heart Failure
V. Nephrotic Disease
VI. Infectious Mononucleosis

o I,III,V,VI
o I, II, III, IV
o I, II, IV, VI
o II, III, V, VI

o I, II, IV, VI

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Presence of urobilinogen in urine products which of
the following results with Ehrlich’s reagent?
o White precipitate
o Magenta color
o Greenish fluorescence
o Green to blue color

o Magenta color

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Which two urine chemical tests provide helpful
information for differential diagnosis of hepatic
condition?
o Bilirubin and Urobilinogen
o Occult Blood and Bilirubin
o Urobilin and Bile acids
o Urobilinogen and Protein

o Bilirubin and Urobilinogen

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The classic Ehrlich’s Reaction is based on the
reaction of urobilinogen with _______
o p-dichlorobenzene diazonium salt
o p-aminobenzoic acid
o diazotized dichloroaniline
o p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

o p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

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Which of the following tests will not detect
presence of urobilinogen in urine?
o Schwartz-Watson’s Test
o Ehrlich’s Test
o Reagent Strip Test
o Pettenkofer’s Test

o Pettenkofer’s Test (BILE ACIDS)

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The first step of Ehrlich’s test is to add 10 mL
Ehrlich’s reagent to 1 mL of urine. Development of
dark red color is the result that signify normal
amount of urobilinogen
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

o Both statements are false
10 ml urine and 1 ehrlich reagent
Pink- normal

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What is the linear tetrapyrrole compound primarily
responsible for the yellow brown color of urine?
o Bilirubin
o Urobilin
o Melanin
o Stercobilin

o Urobilin

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Which of the following tests would detect urobilin in
urine?
o Schlesinger’s Test
o Pettenkofer’s Test
o Benzidine Test
o Schwartz-Watson’s Test

o Schlesinger’s Test

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Green fluorescence indicates a positive result for
Schlesinger’s test. No green fluorescence indicates a
negative result for the Schlesinger’s test
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

o Both statements are true

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What liver function test is based upon the bile
pigment metabolism?
o Schlesinger test
o Salt acetic acid test
o Seliwanoff test
o Sulkowitch test

o Schlesinger test

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What causes the oxidation of urobilinogen into
urobilin?
o Exposure to light and air
o Exposure to dark light and air
o Exposure to chemicals and heat
o Exposure to cold temperature and air

o Exposure to light and air

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Which of the following test results with Iodine
indicates presence of increased amount of urobilin
in urine?
o White precipitate
o Greenish fluorescence
o Magenta color
o Green to blue color

o Greenish fluorescence

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Which of the following substances includes all
others in the list?
o Porphobilinogen
o Bile pigments
o Urobilin
o Urobilinogen

o Bile pigments

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Which of the following substances does not belong
to the group?
o Urobilinogen
o Stercobilin
o Urobilin
o Blood

o Blood

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The first step of Schlesinger’s test is to mix 1 mL of
zinc acetate and 1 mL of alcohol in a test tube. The second step of Schlesinger’s test is to mix 1 mL of
urine specimen and 5 drops of iodine
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

o Both statements are true

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Most of the urobilinogen in feces are oxidized to
stercobilinogen by intestinal bacteria which gives
stool their characteristic brown color. Some
urobilinogen is reabsorbed from the gut into the
portal blood and transported to the kidney, where it
is converted to yellow urobilin and excreted.

I. The first statement is true
II. The first statement is false
III. Second statement is false
IV. Second statement is true

o I & III
o I & IV
o II & III
o II & IV

o II & IV

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The first step of Pettenkofer’s test is to pipet 3 mL of
urine in a test tube. The second step of
Pettenkofer’s test involves adding some sucrose
powder into the same test tube.

I. The first statement is true
II. The first statement is false
III. Second statement is false
IV. Second statement is true
o I & III
o I & IV
o II & III
o II & IV

o II & IV

3 mL (2mL urine)

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Which of the following tests depends on the
reaction of bile acids and sucrose in acid solution to
form a red colored compound?
o Sulkowitch test
o Pettenkofer’s test
o Schlesinger test
o Ehrlich’s test

o Pettenkofer’s test

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In testing urine for the presence of bile acids, why
do you have to cool the tube under running water
after the addition of concentrated H2SO4 to the
urine with sucrose solution?
o To avoid the rise of temperature to 90 degrees C
o To avoid the corrosive effect of H2SO4
o To avoid the rise of temperature to 70 deg C
o To provide proper temperature for the reaction
to take place

o To avoid the rise of temperature to 70 deg C

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Which of the following conditions is indicated by the
positive test for bile acids in urine?
I. Obstructive Jaundice
II. Hepatitis
III. Hepatocellular Jaundice
IV. Cholelithiasis
o 1 and 3 (x)
o 2 and 3
o 2 and 4
o 1 and 2

o 2 and 3

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All of the following concentrations of sucrose solution is NOT used to test for presence of bile acids in urine EXCEPT: o 50% o 5% o 15% o 10%

o 5%

6. Presence of which of the following substances in urine would not interfere with the test for bile acids? o Chromogenic substances o Blood (x) o Urobilin o Urobilinogen

o Chromogenic substances

How much urine specimen is required for Pettenkofer’s test? o 10 mL o 2 mL o 5 drops o 5 mL

o 2 mL

The first step of Hay’s test is to pipet 3 mL of water into two test tubes. One of those tubes will be added with one of the bile salt solution o The first statement is true. Second statement is false o The first statement is false. Second statement is true o Both statements are false o Both statements are true

o Both statements are true

What is the acid used in Pettenkofer’s test? I. Concentrated H2SO4 II. Concentrated HCl III. Concentrated Acetic Acid IV. Concentrated Ammonium Hydroxide o II is correct o II, III and IV are correct o I is correct o I and II are correct

I. Concentrated H2SO4

In the Pettenkofer’s test, 15% sucrose solution is prepared by dissolving 5 grams of reagent sucrose in water and diluting it to 100 mL. in the Hay’s test, the bile salt solution is prepared by dissolving 10 grams of sodium dechocolate in 100 mL water. o The first statement is true. Second statement is false o The first statement is false. Second statement is true o Both statements are false o Both statements are true

o Both statements are false 5% sucrose, 1 gram in 100 ml water

All of the following types of renal diseases yield positive result with Benzidine test except: 1. Goodpasture disease 2. Diabetic nephropathy 3. Nephrotic syndrome 4. IgA nephropathy o 1 and 4 o 1 and 2 o 2 and 3 o NOTA

o NOTA

Benzidine test could detect all of the following cells and substances in urine except: o Hemoglobin o Myoglobin o WBCs o RBCs

o WBCs

Which of the following conditions refers to the presence of intact red blood cells in urine? o Hemoglobinuria o Hematuria o Pyuria o Myoglobinuria

o Hematuria

Hematuria will give a speckled pattern in the blood reagent strip. Myoglobin will also give a speckled pattern in the blood reagent strip. o The first statement is true. Second statement is false o The first statement is false. Second statement is true o Both statements are false o Both statements are true

o The first statement is true. Second statement is false

What happens when hydrogen peroxide is added to a mixture of urine with presence of blood and benzidine solution? o Reduction of hydrogen peroxide to peroxidase producing blue or green color o Oxidation of benzidine due to peroxidase released by heme o Production of blue or green color due to action of benzidine to the hemoglobin o Decomposition of hydrogen

o Oxidation of benzidine due to peroxidase released by heme

Within 10 minutes, obtaining a blue or pink color in Benzidine test indicates presence of blood. Blue color developing after 10 minutes is not a positive test but is due to the oxidation of benzidine to atmospheric oxygen o The first statement is true. Second statement is false o The first statement is false. Second statement is true o Both statements are false o Both statements are true

o The first statement is false. Second statement is true

The first step of Benzidine test is to mix 3 mL of saturated benzidine solution and 3 mL of urine. The second step of Benzidine solution is to add 1 mL of hydrogen peroxide to the benzidine urine mixture o The first statement is true. Second statement is false o The first statement is false. Second statement is true o Both statements are false

o The first statement is false. Second statement is true

All of the following substances would cause false negative result for blood if present in urine except: o Oxalates o Urates o Sulfates o Ascorbic acid

o Oxalates

The principle for the test for blood in urine is based on the peroxidase-like activity of the _______ which decomposes hydrogen peroxide with the release of _________ that oxidizes benzidine producing a colored compound. o Globin portion of hemoglobin – O2 o Heme portion of hemoglobin – O2 o Heme portion of hemoglobin – CO2 o Globin Portion of Hemoglobin – CO2

o Heme portion of hemoglobin – O2

A positive benzidine test indicates all of the following conditions except: o Hemoglobinuria o Pyuria o Myoglobinuria o Hematuria

o Pyuria

Which of the following renal disorders is indicated by a positive Sulkowitch Test? 1. Osteoporosis 2. Hyperthyroidism 3. Renal tubular acidosis 4. Renal lithiasis o 1, 2 and 3 o 1, 2, 3 and 4 o 2 and 3 o 1 and 2

o 1, 2, 3 and 4

Michelle, an old lady complained of burning pain in the pelvic area with difficulty in urinating. Initial diagnosis is kidney stones. The physician requested for a Sulkowitch test and the result was positive. What crystal might be the cause of discomfort to patient Michelle? o Uric acid o Calcium carbonate o Cystine o Calcium oxalate dehydrate

o Calcium oxalate dehydrate

How much Sulkowitch reagent was added to a specified volume of urine? o 3 mL o 2 mL o 5 mL o 10 mL

o 3 mL

4. Based on what you had learned, what were those white precipitates formed when urine was mixed with Sulkowitch reagent? o Calcium carbonate o Ammonium magnesium phosphates o Calcium oxalates o Calcium phosphates

o Calcium oxalates

5. Which of the following tests is based on the precipitation of urinary calcium into insoluble calcium oxalate? o Pettenkoffer test o Gmelin’s test o Ehrlich’s test o Sulkowitch test

o Sulkowitch test

Urine calcium level is used to evaluate which of the following conditions? I. Calcium intake II. Arrhythmias III. Kidney stones IV. Blood clotting disorder o I and II o II, III and IV o II and IV o I and II

o I and II

How much urine is required for Sulkowitch test? o 3 mL o 5 mL o 2 mL o 10 mL

o 5 mL

Which of the following diseases is characterized by depleted serum and urine calcium? o Renal calculi o Hypoparathyroidism o Cardiac arrhythmias o Paget’s disease

o Hypoparathyroidism

How long should the Sulkowitch reagent be mixed with urine to produce a visible result? o 10 mins o 2 sec o 2 mins o 5 mins

o 2 mins

Heavy precipitates like milk formed with Sulkowitch test not indicative of which of the following conditions? o Renal calculi o Hypercalciluria o Hypocalciluria o Hypercalcemia

o Hypocalciluria

What should be done to a pregnancy test result when the lines developed are very faint or light? o It should be reported as negative o It should be reported as positive o The same specimen should be retested after 24 hours o Reject the specimen

o It should be reported as positive

What is the visible positive result for hCG test? o A line each on the C and T regions o A line on the T region only o A line on the C region only o No line on both regions

o A line each on the C and T regions

Based on what you had learned, how much urine sample is needed to test for the presence of hCG? I. 10 drops II. 5 drops III. 3 mL IV. 3 drops o III only o I, II or IV o I or IV o IV only

o IV only

Other than pregnancy, what is the clinical significance of elevated level of hCG in urine? o Trophoblastic disease o Hydatidiform mole o Testicular tumors o AOTA

o AOTA

Test card/kit with negative result may be used to test another urine sample o Yes, as long as the test is carefully performed o No, it will lead to erroneous result o Yes, anyway the first test was negative o No, it will lead to a false negative result

No, it will lead to erroneous result

Pregnancy tests is done by detecting beta=human chorionic gonadotropin hormone which rise after the conception and remain elevated during pregnancy, reaching its peak during the first trimester of pregnancy. The most popular type of test kit for this test uses which of the following principles? o Coagulation o Colorimetric assay o Radioimmunoassay o Immunochromatographic assay

o Immunochromatographic assay

The result provided by the pregnancy kit is _________ o Qualitative o Semi-qualitative o Quantitative o NOTA

o Qualitative

In which of the following situations will a pregnant patient have normal level of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in urine? o During the third trimester of a normal pregnancy o During a molar pregnancy o During 10th week of a normal pregnancy o Ten days following a spontaneous abortion

o During the third trimester of a normal pregnancy

As long as the test reagent kit has not been opened and is properly stored, it can still be used to detect hCG in urine beyond its expiration date o Yes o No o c. Yes, if no more kit is available o d. It depends on the chief medtech

o No

When can you say that the test result for hCG is valid? o When there’s one line in the test region and another line in the control region o When there’s no line in the control region o When there’s one line in the test region only o When there’s one line in the control region

o When there’s one line in the control region

If the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected, the semen analysis will have an abnormal ________ o Sperm motility o Viscosity o Sperm concentration o pH

o Sperm concentration

How many sperms are there in 1 mL of semen if the number of sperms counted in 4 large corner squares of the hemocytometer are as follows: 215, 250, 220, and 236? The sample is diluted 1:20 o 460,500,000 sperm/mL of semen o 46,050,000 sperm/mL of semen o 46,050 sperm/mL of semen o 4,605 sperm/mL of semen

o 46,050,000 sperm/mL of semen

How is sperm count related to male fertility? o Is directly proportional o Is indirectly proportional o Is inversely proportional o B and C

o Is directly proportional

What is the sperm concentration (sperm cells/mL) if semen was diluted 1:20 and 50 sperms were counted in 2 WBC large squares of the Neubauer counting chamber? o 5,000 o 50,000,000 o 50,000 o 5,000,000

5,000,000

On macroscopic examination of the physical characteristics and pH of the seminal fluid specimen of a 32-year-old male, the following results were obtained: Liquefaction: coagulation did not occur Color: white Viscosity: watery Volume: 4.0mL pH: 7.2 Which of the results are not normal? o Viscosity and pH o Viscosity, liquefaction, pH colors o Viscosity, pH and color o Viscosity and liquefaction (x)

o Viscosity, liquefaction, pH color

How many hours of sexual abstinence should the patient observe prior to specimen collection? o 24 hours o 32-48 hours o 48 to 120 hours o No time required

o 48 to 120 hours

Which of the following liquefaction time of semen may not lead male infertility? o 5-30 minutes o 30 minutes to 1 hour o 5 to 35 minutes o 10 to 20 minutes

o 30 minutes to 1 hour

A medical technologist will perform a sperm count but while preparing he/she noticed that the diluting reagent is not available. What is the best substitute for the diluting fluid? o Amylase o Ematosyline o Cold water o Bromelin

o Cold water

What is the interval for the semen analysis? o 2 to 6 weeks apart o 2 to 3 weeks apart o 3 to 6 weeks apart o 2 to 4 weeks apart

o 2 to 4 weeks apart

10. What is a semen analysis? o A routine test for fertility o A routine test for infertility o A seldom done test for infertility o A detailed scan of sperm

o A routine test for infertility

11. All of the following can happen if semen analysis is not done immediately after collection except: o Increase liquefaction time o Decrease sperm count o Decrease motility count o A and B

o Decrease sperm count

A 3 mL seminal fluid is submitted to the laboratory for sperm count. The medical technologist counted 443 sperm in 2 WBC squares. The sample is diluted 1:20. Compute for the sperm cells per ejaculate count. o 132,000,000 o 132,800,000 o 133,900,000 o 132,900,000

o 132,900,000

How long can sperm live inside a woman? o 10 days o Five days o One day o 12 hours

o Five days

Which of following analysis is not useful in diagnosing male infertility? o Semen analysis o Monitored sexual action o Physical examination o Hormone assessment

o Monitored sexual action

Why do you think the physicians request for semen analysis? o To know if the patient is impotent or not o To know if the patient is healthy or not o To know if the patient is fertile or not o To know if the patient has urogenital infection

o To know if the patient is fertile or not

Semen which fails to liquefy within 1 hour indicates which of the following conditions? o Increase acid phosphatase o Low fructose level o Low sperm count o Inadequate prostatic secretion

o Inadequate prostatic secretion

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a common has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. This is indicative of __________ o Antispermicide in the condom o Decreased fructose o Increased semen viscosity o Increased semen alkalinity

o Decreased fructose

What is the single most important measure of semen quality? o Sperm viability o Sperm motility o Sperm morphology o Sperm count

o Sperm motility

All of the following are TRUE in doing semen analysis, except: o To diagnose infertility o Post vasectomy check, to verify sterility o To test for cancer testes o Failure to conceive after 1 year of unprotected sex

To test for cancer testes

What inference can you make if on microscopic examination of stained sperm smear, morphologically abnormal sperm predominate? Sperms were forcefully ejaculated o Patient is fertile o Patient is infertile o Patient is sexually active

o Patient is infertile

21. Round cells that are of concern and may be included in sperm counts and morphology analysis are which of the following cells? o Leukocytes o RBCs o Spermatids

o Spermatids

22. What is the normal value for sperm concentration? o 10 million sperm per mL o 20 million sperm per mL o 30 million sperm per mL o 50 million sperm per mL

o 20 million sperm per mL

23. All of the following can potentially cause infertility except: o Smoking o Cocaine o Ethanol o Caffeine

o Caffeine

How soon should the specimen be analyzed? o Within 3 hours o Within 10 minutes o Within 1 day o Within 1 hour

o Within 1 hour

How soon should the specimen be analyzed? o Within 3 hours o Within 10 minutes o Within 1 day o Within 1 hour

o Within 1 hour

How soon should the specimen be analyzed? o Within 3 hours o Within 10 minutes o Within 1 day o Within 1 hour

o Within 1 hour

26. What is the normal volume of an ejaculate per millimeter? o 1 mL to 5.0 mL o 2 mL to 5.5 mL o 2 mL to 5.0 mL o 2.5 mL to 5.5 mL

o 2 mL to 5.0 mL

Yeast infection is common in patients with which of the following conditions? o Glomerulonephritis o Diabetes mellitus o Bacterial infection o Renal failure

o Diabetes mellitus

How will erythrocytes appear in hypertonic urine? o Crenated o Swollen o Ghost cells o Biconcave discs

o Crenated

Which of the following is true about Tamm-Horsfall protein? o Matrix only of hyaline cast o Appears only in normal urine o Excreted by renal tubule in small quantities o Measured using a reagent strip

Excreted by renal tubule in small quantities

Moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from which of the following conditions? o Acute glomerulonephritis o Chronic pyelonephritis o Renal calculi o Cystitis

o Acute glomerulonephritis

Which of the following casts are known as renal failure casts? o Broad casts o Waxy casts o Red blood cell casts o Epithelial casts

o Broad casts

The urine sediment was not discarded and was reexamined microscopically 5 hours after the results were reported. A second technologist reported the same results, except 2+ bacteria and no hyaline cast was found. The most probable explanation for the second technologist’s findings o Cast dissolved due to decrease urine pH o Sediment was not completely resuspended before preparing the microscope slide o Cast dissolved due to increase urine pH o Cast were never present in the specimen

o Cast dissolved due to increase urine pH

During examination of a urine sample submitted at 8 in the morning, the medical technologist had difficulty in identifying the oval colorless crystals present. After adding HCl it was noticed that the crystals were dissolved. What were those crystals must be? o Uric acid o Amorphous urates o Amorphous phosphate o Calcium oxalate

o Calcium oxalate

10. What is the highest objective used for microscopic examination of urinary sediments? o Scanner o HPO o OIO o LPO

o HPO

Which of the following statements regarding the microscopic examination of urine sediment is false? o If large numbers of leukocytes are present microscopically, then bacteria are present o If large numbers of leukocytes are present microscopically, then bacteria are present (x) o If large numbers of casts are present microscopically, then the chemical test for protein should be positive (x) o If large numbers of red blood cells are present microscopically, then the chemical test for blood should be positive

o If large numbers of red blood cells are present microscopically, then the chemical test for blood should be positive

Which of the following feature is not a distinguishing characteristic of yeast? o Colorless ovoid forms o Budding o Hyphae formation o Motility

o Motility

Which of the following includes all others in the list? o Physical examination o Urinalysis o Microscopic analysis o Chemical analysis

o Urinalysis

Which of the following urinary crystals appears as a long, thin hexagonal plate and is linked to ingestion of a large amount of benzoic acid? o Uric acid o Calcium oxalate o Cystine o Oxalic acid

o Cystine

During microscopic examination of urine sediments, how can you tell that the pH of urine is acidic? o There are many epithelial cells o There are amorphous urates and/or uric acid o There are many bacteria o There are triple phosphates

There are amorphous urates and/or uric acid

Cast will dissolve at what pH of urine? o 5.5 o 6.0 o 8.0 o 5.0

o 8.0

Which of the following parasites is most frequently seen contaminant in the urine? o Trichomonas vaginalis o Enterobius vermicularis o Schistosoma haematobium o Ascaris lumbricoides

o Enterobius vermicularis

19. Which of the following factors contribute to the formation of urinary crystals? 1. High temperature 2. Concentrated urine 3. pH of the specimen o 1,2,3 o 1 and 2 o 1 and 3 o 2 and 3

o 2 and 3

The following are reasons why is freshly voided and preferably first morning urine specimen is recommended for routine urinalysis except: o Components are not altered o Because it is concentrated o So that the results will be reliable o Because routine urinalysis is done only in the morning

Because routine urinalysis is done only in the morning

21. Casts are classified based on their ______________ o Length o Site of formation o Contents o Color

o Contents

22. Which of the following artifacts is the most commonly found in urine and other body fluids and is characterized as having a dimple center? o Oil droplets o Muscle fiber o Starch granules o Mucous

o Starch granules

Which of the following urinary crystals – description pairs is not correctly matched? o Leucine – concentric circle with radial striations o Bilirubin – clumped needles with yellow color o Calcium phosphate – coffin-lid shape o Cystine - colorless hexagonal plates

Calcium phosphate – coffin-lid shape

Which of the following crystals is considered nonpathologic? o Bilirubin o Ammonium biurate o Cystine o Cholesterol

o Ammonium biurate

All of the following urinary sediments could be mistaken as red blood cells except: o Oil droplets o Bubbles o Yeast cells o Renal Epithelial cells

o Renal Epithelial cells

28. When examining urine sediments, which of the following findings is considered NOT normal? o 0-1 hyaline cast per low power field o 2-12 WBCs per high per field o Few mucous threads per low power field o 0-2 RBCs per high power field

o 2-12 WBCs per high per field