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AUBF LAB FINALS > LAB > Flashcards

LAB Flashcards

1
Q

A positive urine urobilinogen test indicates all of the
following pathologic conditions except:
o Hemolytic anemia
o Obstructive jaundice (Tumor)
o Malaria
o Pernicious anemia

A

o Obstructive jaundice (Tumor)

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1
Q

Urobilinogen is a colorless bile pigment. Urobilin is
also a colorless pigment
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

The first statement is true. Second statement is
false

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2
Q

Which of the following causes the conversion of
urobilinogen in the intestinal tract from conjugated
bilirubin?
o Bacterial action
o Parasitic action
o Viral action
o Fungal action

A

o Bacterial action

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3
Q

When is the best time to collect urine for collection
of increased amount of urobilinogen in urine?
o Anytime of the day
o Early morning
o 2 hours after a meal
o 2-4 hours after 12 noon

A

o 2-4 hours after 12 noon

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4
Q

In which of the following conditions is urobilinogen
present in increased amount in urine?
I. Malaria
II. Pernicious anemia
III. Cholelithiasis
IV. Congestive Heart Failure
V. Nephrotic Disease
VI. Infectious Mononucleosis

o I,III,V,VI
o I, II, III, IV
o I, II, IV, VI
o II, III, V, VI

A

o I, II, IV, VI

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5
Q

Presence of urobilinogen in urine products which of
the following results with Ehrlich’s reagent?
o White precipitate
o Magenta color
o Greenish fluorescence
o Green to blue color

A

o Magenta color

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6
Q

Which two urine chemical tests provide helpful
information for differential diagnosis of hepatic
condition?
o Bilirubin and Urobilinogen
o Occult Blood and Bilirubin
o Urobilin and Bile acids
o Urobilinogen and Protein

A

o Bilirubin and Urobilinogen

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7
Q

The classic Ehrlich’s Reaction is based on the
reaction of urobilinogen with _______
o p-dichlorobenzene diazonium salt
o p-aminobenzoic acid
o diazotized dichloroaniline
o p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

A

o p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

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8
Q

Which of the following tests will not detect
presence of urobilinogen in urine?
o Schwartz-Watson’s Test
o Ehrlich’s Test
o Reagent Strip Test
o Pettenkofer’s Test

A

o Pettenkofer’s Test (BILE ACIDS)

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9
Q

The first step of Ehrlich’s test is to add 10 mL
Ehrlich’s reagent to 1 mL of urine. Development of
dark red color is the result that signify normal
amount of urobilinogen
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

o Both statements are false
10 ml urine and 1 ehrlich reagent
Pink- normal

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10
Q

What is the linear tetrapyrrole compound primarily
responsible for the yellow brown color of urine?
o Bilirubin
o Urobilin
o Melanin
o Stercobilin

A

o Urobilin

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11
Q

Which of the following tests would detect urobilin in
urine?
o Schlesinger’s Test
o Pettenkofer’s Test
o Benzidine Test
o Schwartz-Watson’s Test

A

o Schlesinger’s Test

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12
Q

Green fluorescence indicates a positive result for
Schlesinger’s test. No green fluorescence indicates a
negative result for the Schlesinger’s test
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

o Both statements are true

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13
Q

What liver function test is based upon the bile
pigment metabolism?
o Schlesinger test
o Salt acetic acid test
o Seliwanoff test
o Sulkowitch test

A

o Schlesinger test

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14
Q

What causes the oxidation of urobilinogen into
urobilin?
o Exposure to light and air
o Exposure to dark light and air
o Exposure to chemicals and heat
o Exposure to cold temperature and air

A

o Exposure to light and air

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15
Q

Which of the following test results with Iodine
indicates presence of increased amount of urobilin
in urine?
o White precipitate
o Greenish fluorescence
o Magenta color
o Green to blue color

A

o Greenish fluorescence

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16
Q

Which of the following substances includes all
others in the list?
o Porphobilinogen
o Bile pigments
o Urobilin
o Urobilinogen

A

o Bile pigments

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17
Q

Which of the following substances does not belong
to the group?
o Urobilinogen
o Stercobilin
o Urobilin
o Blood

A

o Blood

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18
Q

The first step of Schlesinger’s test is to mix 1 mL of
zinc acetate and 1 mL of alcohol in a test tube. The second step of Schlesinger’s test is to mix 1 mL of
urine specimen and 5 drops of iodine
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

o Both statements are true

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19
Q

Most of the urobilinogen in feces are oxidized to
stercobilinogen by intestinal bacteria which gives
stool their characteristic brown color. Some
urobilinogen is reabsorbed from the gut into the
portal blood and transported to the kidney, where it
is converted to yellow urobilin and excreted.

I. The first statement is true
II. The first statement is false
III. Second statement is false
IV. Second statement is true

o I & III
o I & IV
o II & III
o II & IV

A

o II & IV

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20
Q

The first step of Pettenkofer’s test is to pipet 3 mL of
urine in a test tube. The second step of
Pettenkofer’s test involves adding some sucrose
powder into the same test tube.

I. The first statement is true
II. The first statement is false
III. Second statement is false
IV. Second statement is true
o I & III
o I & IV
o II & III
o II & IV

A

o II & IV

3 mL (2mL urine)

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21
Q

Which of the following tests depends on the
reaction of bile acids and sucrose in acid solution to
form a red colored compound?
o Sulkowitch test
o Pettenkofer’s test
o Schlesinger test
o Ehrlich’s test

A

o Pettenkofer’s test

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22
Q

In testing urine for the presence of bile acids, why
do you have to cool the tube under running water
after the addition of concentrated H2SO4 to the
urine with sucrose solution?
o To avoid the rise of temperature to 90 degrees C
o To avoid the corrosive effect of H2SO4
o To avoid the rise of temperature to 70 deg C
o To provide proper temperature for the reaction
to take place

A

o To avoid the rise of temperature to 70 deg C

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is indicated by the
    positive test for bile acids in urine?
    I. Obstructive Jaundice
    II. Hepatitis
    III. Hepatocellular Jaundice
    IV. Cholelithiasis
    o 1 and 3 (x)
    o 2 and 3
    o 2 and 4
    o 1 and 2
A

o 2 and 3

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24
Q

All of the following concentrations of sucrose
solution is NOT used to test for presence of bile
acids in urine EXCEPT:
o 50%
o 5%
o 15%
o 10%

A

o 5%

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25
Q
  1. Presence of which of the following substances in
    urine would not interfere with the test for bile
    acids?
    o Chromogenic substances
    o Blood (x)
    o Urobilin
    o Urobilinogen
A

o Chromogenic substances

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26
Q

How much urine specimen is required for
Pettenkofer’s test?
o 10 mL
o 2 mL
o 5 drops
o 5 mL

A

o 2 mL

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27
Q

The first step of Hay’s test is to pipet 3 mL of water
into two test tubes. One of those tubes will be
added with one of the bile salt solution

o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

o Both statements are true

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28
Q

What is the acid used in Pettenkofer’s test?
I. Concentrated H2SO4
II. Concentrated HCl
III. Concentrated Acetic Acid
IV. Concentrated Ammonium Hydroxide
o II is correct
o II, III and IV are correct
o I is correct
o I and II are correct

A

I. Concentrated H2SO4

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29
Q

In the Pettenkofer’s test, 15% sucrose solution is
prepared by dissolving 5 grams of reagent sucrose in
water and diluting it to 100 mL. in the Hay’s test, the
bile salt solution is prepared by dissolving 10 grams
of sodium dechocolate in 100 mL water.
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

o Both statements are false

5% sucrose, 1 gram in 100 ml water

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30
Q

All of the following types of renal diseases yield
positive result with Benzidine test except:
1. Goodpasture disease
2. Diabetic nephropathy
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. IgA nephropathy
o 1 and 4
o 1 and 2
o 2 and 3
o NOTA

A

o NOTA

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31
Q

Benzidine test could detect all of the following cells
and substances in urine except:
o Hemoglobin
o Myoglobin
o WBCs
o RBCs

A

o WBCs

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32
Q

Which of the following conditions refers to the
presence of intact red blood cells in urine?
o Hemoglobinuria
o Hematuria
o Pyuria
o Myoglobinuria

A

o Hematuria

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33
Q

Hematuria will give a speckled pattern in the blood
reagent strip. Myoglobin will also give a speckled
pattern in the blood reagent strip.
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement is
true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false

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34
Q

What happens when hydrogen peroxide is added to
a mixture of urine with presence of blood and
benzidine solution?
o Reduction of hydrogen peroxide to peroxidase
producing blue or green color
o Oxidation of benzidine due to peroxidase
released by heme
o Production of blue or green color due to action
of benzidine to the hemoglobin
o Decomposition of hydrogen

A

o Oxidation of benzidine due to peroxidase
released by heme

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35
Q

Within 10 minutes, obtaining a blue or pink color in
Benzidine test indicates presence of blood. Blue
color developing after 10 minutes is not a positive
test but is due to the oxidation of benzidine to
atmospheric oxygen
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement
is true
o Both statements are false
o Both statements are true

A

o The first statement is false. Second statement
is true

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36
Q

The first step of Benzidine test is to mix 3 mL of
saturated benzidine solution and 3 mL of urine. The
second step of Benzidine solution is to add 1 mL of
hydrogen peroxide to the benzidine urine mixture
o The first statement is true. Second statement is
false
o The first statement is false. Second statement
is true
o Both statements are false

A

o The first statement is false. Second statement
is true

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37
Q

All of the following substances would cause false
negative result for blood if present in urine except:
o Oxalates
o Urates
o Sulfates
o Ascorbic acid

A

o Oxalates

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38
Q

The principle for the test for blood in urine is based
on the peroxidase-like activity of the _______ which
decomposes hydrogen peroxide with the release of
_________ that oxidizes benzidine producing a
colored compound.
o Globin portion of hemoglobin – O2
o Heme portion of hemoglobin – O2
o Heme portion of hemoglobin – CO2
o Globin Portion of Hemoglobin – CO2

A

o Heme portion of hemoglobin – O2

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39
Q

A positive benzidine test indicates all of the
following conditions except:
o Hemoglobinuria
o Pyuria
o Myoglobinuria
o Hematuria

A

o Pyuria

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40
Q

Which of the following renal disorders is indicated
by a positive Sulkowitch Test?
1. Osteoporosis
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Renal tubular acidosis
4. Renal lithiasis
o 1, 2 and 3
o 1, 2, 3 and 4
o 2 and 3
o 1 and 2

A

o 1, 2, 3 and 4

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41
Q

Michelle, an old lady complained of burning pain in
the pelvic area with difficulty in urinating. Initial
diagnosis is kidney stones. The physician requested
for a Sulkowitch test and the result was positive.
What crystal might be the cause of discomfort to
patient Michelle?
o Uric acid
o Calcium carbonate
o Cystine
o Calcium oxalate dehydrate

A

o Calcium oxalate dehydrate

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42
Q

How much Sulkowitch reagent was added to a
specified volume of urine?
o 3 mL
o 2 mL
o 5 mL
o 10 mL

A

o 3 mL

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43
Q
  1. Based on what you had learned, what were those
    white precipitates formed when urine was mixed
    with Sulkowitch reagent?
    o Calcium carbonate
    o Ammonium magnesium phosphates
    o Calcium oxalates
    o Calcium phosphates
A

o Calcium oxalates

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is based on the
    precipitation of urinary calcium into insoluble
    calcium oxalate?
    o Pettenkoffer test
    o Gmelin’s test
    o Ehrlich’s test
    o Sulkowitch test
A

o Sulkowitch test

45
Q

Urine calcium level is used to evaluate which of the
following conditions?
I. Calcium intake
II. Arrhythmias
III. Kidney stones
IV. Blood clotting disorder
o I and II
o II, III and IV
o II and IV
o I and II

A

o I and II

46
Q

How much urine is required for Sulkowitch test?
o 3 mL
o 5 mL
o 2 mL
o 10 mL

A

o 5 mL

47
Q

Which of the following diseases is characterized by
depleted serum and urine calcium?
o Renal calculi
o Hypoparathyroidism
o Cardiac arrhythmias
o Paget’s disease

A

o Hypoparathyroidism

48
Q

How long should the Sulkowitch reagent be mixed
with urine to produce a visible result?
o 10 mins
o 2 sec
o 2 mins
o 5 mins

A

o 2 mins

48
Q

Heavy precipitates like milk formed with Sulkowitch
test not indicative of which of the following
conditions?
o Renal calculi
o Hypercalciluria
o Hypocalciluria
o Hypercalcemia

A

o Hypocalciluria

49
Q

What should be done to a pregnancy test result
when the lines developed are very faint or light?
o It should be reported as negative
o It should be reported as positive
o The same specimen should be retested after 24
hours
o Reject the specimen

A

o It should be reported as positive

50
Q

What is the visible positive result for hCG test?
o A line each on the C and T regions
o A line on the T region only
o A line on the C region only
o No line on both regions

A

o A line each on the C and T regions

51
Q

Based on what you had learned, how much urine
sample is needed to test for the presence of hCG?
I. 10 drops
II. 5 drops
III. 3 mL
IV. 3 drops
o III only
o I, II or IV
o I or IV
o IV only

A

o IV only

52
Q

Other than pregnancy, what is the clinical
significance of elevated level of hCG in urine?
o Trophoblastic disease
o Hydatidiform mole
o Testicular tumors
o AOTA

A

o AOTA

53
Q

Test card/kit with negative result may be used to
test another urine sample
o Yes, as long as the test is carefully performed
o No, it will lead to erroneous result
o Yes, anyway the first test was negative
o No, it will lead to a false negative result

A

No, it will lead to erroneous result

54
Q

Pregnancy tests is done by detecting beta=human
chorionic gonadotropin hormone which rise after
the conception and remain elevated during
pregnancy, reaching its peak during the first
trimester of pregnancy. The most popular type of
test kit for this test uses which of the following
principles?
o Coagulation
o Colorimetric assay
o Radioimmunoassay
o Immunochromatographic assay

A

o Immunochromatographic assay

55
Q

The result provided by the pregnancy kit is
_________
o Qualitative
o Semi-qualitative
o Quantitative
o NOTA

A

o Qualitative

56
Q

In which of the following situations will a pregnant
patient have normal level of human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) in urine?
o During the third trimester of a normal
pregnancy
o During a molar pregnancy
o During 10th week of a normal pregnancy
o Ten days following a spontaneous abortion

A

o During the third trimester of a normal
pregnancy

57
Q

As long as the test reagent kit has not been opened
and is properly stored, it can still be used to detect
hCG in urine beyond its expiration date
o Yes
o No
o c. Yes, if no more kit is available
o d. It depends on the chief medtech

A

o No

58
Q

When can you say that the test result for hCG is
valid?
o When there’s one line in the test region and
another line in the control region
o When there’s no line in the control region
o When there’s one line in the test region only
o When there’s one line in the control region

A

o When there’s one line in the control region

59
Q

If the first portion of a semen specimen is not
collected, the semen analysis will have an abnormal
________
o Sperm motility
o Viscosity
o Sperm concentration
o pH

A

o Sperm concentration

60
Q

How many sperms are there in 1 mL of semen if the
number of sperms counted in 4 large corner squares
of the hemocytometer are as follows: 215, 250, 220,
and 236? The sample is diluted 1:20
o 460,500,000 sperm/mL of semen
o 46,050,000 sperm/mL of semen
o 46,050 sperm/mL of semen
o 4,605 sperm/mL of semen

A

o 46,050,000 sperm/mL of semen

61
Q

How is sperm count related to male fertility?
o Is directly proportional
o Is indirectly proportional
o Is inversely proportional
o B and C

A

o Is directly proportional

62
Q

What is the sperm concentration (sperm cells/mL) if
semen was diluted 1:20 and 50 sperms were
counted in 2 WBC large squares of the Neubauer
counting chamber?
o 5,000
o 50,000,000
o 50,000
o 5,000,000

A

5,000,000

63
Q

On macroscopic examination of the physical
characteristics and pH of the seminal fluid specimen
of a 32-year-old male, the following results were
obtained:
Liquefaction: coagulation did not occur
Color: white
Viscosity: watery
Volume: 4.0mL
pH: 7.2
Which of the results are not normal?
o Viscosity and pH
o Viscosity, liquefaction, pH colors
o Viscosity, pH and color
o Viscosity and liquefaction (x)

A

o Viscosity, liquefaction, pH color

64
Q

How many hours of sexual abstinence should the
patient observe prior to specimen collection?
o 24 hours
o 32-48 hours
o 48 to 120 hours
o No time required

A

o 48 to 120 hours

65
Q

Which of the following liquefaction time of semen
may not lead male infertility?
o 5-30 minutes
o 30 minutes to 1 hour
o 5 to 35 minutes
o 10 to 20 minutes

A

o 30 minutes to 1 hour

66
Q

A medical technologist will perform a sperm count
but while preparing he/she noticed that the diluting
reagent is not available. What is the best substitute
for the diluting fluid?
o Amylase
o Ematosyline
o Cold water
o Bromelin

A

o Cold water

66
Q

What is the interval for the semen analysis?
o 2 to 6 weeks apart
o 2 to 3 weeks apart
o 3 to 6 weeks apart
o 2 to 4 weeks apart

A

o 2 to 4 weeks apart

67
Q
  1. What is a semen analysis?
    o A routine test for fertility
    o A routine test for infertility
    o A seldom done test for infertility
    o A detailed scan of sperm
A

o A routine test for infertility

68
Q
  1. All of the following can happen if semen analysis is
    not done immediately after collection except:
    o Increase liquefaction time
    o Decrease sperm count
    o Decrease motility count
    o A and B
A

o Decrease sperm count

69
Q

A 3 mL seminal fluid is submitted to the laboratory
for sperm count. The medical technologist counted
443 sperm in 2 WBC squares. The sample is diluted
1:20. Compute for the sperm cells per ejaculate
count.
o 132,000,000
o 132,800,000
o 133,900,000
o 132,900,000

A

o 132,900,000

69
Q

How long can sperm live inside a woman?
o 10 days

o Five days
o One day
o 12 hours

A

o Five days

70
Q

Which of following analysis is not useful in
diagnosing male infertility?
o Semen analysis
o Monitored sexual action
o Physical examination
o Hormone assessment

A

o Monitored sexual action

71
Q

Why do you think the physicians request for semen
analysis?
o To know if the patient is impotent or not
o To know if the patient is healthy or not
o To know if the patient is fertile or not
o To know if the patient has urogenital infection

A

o To know if the patient is fertile or not

72
Q

Semen which fails to liquefy within 1 hour indicates
which of the following conditions?
o Increase acid phosphatase
o Low fructose level
o Low sperm count
o Inadequate prostatic secretion

A

o Inadequate prostatic secretion

73
Q

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a
common has a normal sperm count and markedly
decreased sperm motility. This is indicative of
__________
o Antispermicide in the condom
o Decreased fructose
o Increased semen viscosity
o Increased semen alkalinity

A

o Decreased fructose

74
Q

What is the single most important measure of
semen quality?
o Sperm viability
o Sperm motility
o Sperm morphology
o Sperm count

A

o Sperm motility

75
Q

All of the following are TRUE in doing semen
analysis, except:
o To diagnose infertility
o Post vasectomy check, to verify sterility
o To test for cancer testes
o Failure to conceive after 1 year of unprotected
sex

A

To test for cancer testes

76
Q

What inference can you make if on microscopic
examination of stained sperm smear,
morphologically abnormal sperm predominate?
Sperms were forcefully ejaculated
o Patient is fertile
o Patient is infertile
o Patient is sexually active

A

o Patient is infertile

77
Q
  1. Round cells that are of concern and may be included
    in sperm counts and morphology analysis are which
    of the following cells?
    o Leukocytes
    o RBCs
    o Spermatids
A

o Spermatids

78
Q
  1. What is the normal value for sperm concentration?
    o 10 million sperm per mL
    o 20 million sperm per mL
    o 30 million sperm per mL
    o 50 million sperm per mL
A

o 20 million sperm per mL

79
Q
  1. All of the following can potentially cause infertility
    except:
    o Smoking
    o Cocaine
    o Ethanol
    o Caffeine
A

o Caffeine

80
Q

How soon should the specimen be analyzed?
o Within 3 hours
o Within 10 minutes
o Within 1 day
o Within 1 hour

A

o Within 1 hour

80
Q

How soon should the specimen be analyzed?
o Within 3 hours
o Within 10 minutes
o Within 1 day
o Within 1 hour

A

o Within 1 hour

81
Q

How soon should the specimen be analyzed?
o Within 3 hours
o Within 10 minutes
o Within 1 day
o Within 1 hour

A

o Within 1 hour

82
Q
  1. What is the normal volume of an ejaculate per
    millimeter?
    o 1 mL to 5.0 mL
    o 2 mL to 5.5 mL
    o 2 mL to 5.0 mL
    o 2.5 mL to 5.5 mL
A

o 2 mL to 5.0 mL

83
Q

Yeast infection is common in patients with which of
the following conditions?
o Glomerulonephritis
o Diabetes mellitus
o Bacterial infection
o Renal failure

A

o Diabetes mellitus

84
Q

How will erythrocytes appear in hypertonic urine?
o Crenated

o Swollen
o Ghost cells
o Biconcave discs

A

o Crenated

85
Q

Which of the following is true about Tamm-Horsfall
protein?
o Matrix only of hyaline cast
o Appears only in normal urine
o Excreted by renal tubule in small quantities
o Measured using a reagent strip

A

Excreted by renal tubule in small quantities

86
Q

Moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely
results from which of the following conditions?
o Acute glomerulonephritis
o Chronic pyelonephritis
o Renal calculi
o Cystitis

A

o Acute glomerulonephritis

87
Q

Which of the following casts are known as renal
failure casts?
o Broad casts
o Waxy casts
o Red blood cell casts
o Epithelial casts

A

o Broad casts

88
Q

The urine sediment was not discarded and was
reexamined microscopically 5 hours after the results
were reported. A second technologist reported the
same results, except 2+ bacteria and no hyaline cast
was found. The most probable explanation for the
second technologist’s findings
o Cast dissolved due to decrease urine pH
o Sediment was not completely resuspended
before preparing the microscope slide
o Cast dissolved due to increase urine pH
o Cast were never present in the specimen

A

o Cast dissolved due to increase urine pH

89
Q

During examination of a urine sample submitted at
8 in the morning, the medical technologist had
difficulty in identifying the oval colorless crystals
present. After adding HCl it was noticed that the
crystals were dissolved. What were those crystals
must be?
o Uric acid

o Amorphous urates
o Amorphous phosphate
o Calcium oxalate

A

o Calcium oxalate

90
Q
  1. What is the highest objective used for microscopic
    examination of urinary sediments?
    o Scanner
    o HPO
    o OIO
    o LPO
A

o HPO

91
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the
microscopic examination of urine sediment is false?
o If large numbers of leukocytes are present
microscopically, then bacteria are present
o If large numbers of leukocytes are present
microscopically, then bacteria are present (x)
o If large numbers of casts are present
microscopically, then the chemical test for
protein should be positive (x)
o If large numbers of red blood cells are present
microscopically, then the chemical test for blood
should be positive

A

o If large numbers of red blood cells are present
microscopically, then the chemical test for blood
should be positive

92
Q

Which of the following feature is not a
distinguishing characteristic of yeast?
o Colorless ovoid forms
o Budding
o Hyphae formation
o Motility

A

o Motility

93
Q

Which of the following includes all others in the list?
o Physical examination
o Urinalysis
o Microscopic analysis
o Chemical analysis

A

o Urinalysis

94
Q

Which of the following urinary crystals appears as a
long, thin hexagonal plate and is linked to ingestion
of a large amount of benzoic acid?
o Uric acid
o Calcium oxalate
o Cystine
o Oxalic acid

A

o Cystine

95
Q

During microscopic examination of urine sediments,
how can you tell that the pH of urine is acidic?
o There are many epithelial cells
o There are amorphous urates and/or uric acid
o There are many bacteria
o There are triple phosphates

A

There are amorphous urates and/or uric acid

96
Q

Cast will dissolve at what pH of urine?
o 5.5
o 6.0
o 8.0
o 5.0

A

o 8.0

97
Q

Which of the following parasites is most frequently
seen contaminant in the urine?
o Trichomonas vaginalis
o Enterobius vermicularis
o Schistosoma haematobium
o Ascaris lumbricoides

A

o Enterobius vermicularis

97
Q
  1. Which of the following factors contribute to the
    formation of urinary crystals?
  2. High temperature
  3. Concentrated urine
  4. pH of the specimen
    o 1,2,3
    o 1 and 2
    o 1 and 3
    o 2 and 3
A

o 2 and 3

98
Q

The following are reasons why is freshly voided and
preferably first morning urine specimen is
recommended for routine urinalysis except:
o Components are not altered
o Because it is concentrated
o So that the results will be reliable
o Because routine urinalysis is done only in the
morning

A

Because routine urinalysis is done only in the
morning

99
Q
  1. Casts are classified based on their ______________
    o Length
    o Site of formation
    o Contents
    o Color
A

o Contents

100
Q
  1. Which of the following artifacts is the most
    commonly found in urine and other body fluids and
    is characterized as having a dimple center?
    o Oil droplets
    o Muscle fiber
    o Starch granules
    o Mucous
A

o Starch granules

101
Q

Which of the following urinary crystals – description
pairs is not correctly matched?
o Leucine – concentric circle with radial striations
o Bilirubin – clumped needles with yellow color
o Calcium phosphate – coffin-lid shape
o Cystine - colorless hexagonal plates

A

Calcium phosphate – coffin-lid shape

102
Q

Which of the following crystals is considered
nonpathologic?
o Bilirubin
o Ammonium biurate
o Cystine
o Cholesterol

A

o Ammonium biurate

103
Q

All of the following urinary sediments could be
mistaken as red blood cells except:
o Oil droplets
o Bubbles
o Yeast cells
o Renal Epithelial cells

A

o Renal Epithelial cells

104
Q
  1. When examining urine sediments, which of the
    following findings is considered NOT normal?
    o 0-1 hyaline cast per low power field
    o 2-12 WBCs per high per field
    o Few mucous threads per low power field
    o 0-2 RBCs per high power field
A

o 2-12 WBCs per high per field

AUBF LAB FINALS (3 decks)

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