L9 - Haematological diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Why do bacteria modulate their surface structures?

A

They modulate surfaces to adapt to different niches, respond to host factors, enhance colonization, and evade the immune response.

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2
Q

How does surface modulation benefit bacterial survival in hostile environments?

A

It allows bacteria to dynamically alter adhesin presentation and evade immune detection, thus increasing survival and transmission.

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3
Q

What is one ecological advantage of altering surface properties?

A

It enables bacteria to switch between adhesion and detachment, facilitating colonization of new sites within the host.

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4
Q

What is antigenic variation and how does it occur?

A

Antigenic variation involves genetic changes—often through recombination or slipped strand mispairing—that alter surface proteins.

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5
Q

How does phase variation differ from antigenic variation?

A

Phase variation refers to reversible on/off switching of gene expression, while antigenic variation results in structural changes in proteins.

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6
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

Antigenic drift is the gradual accumulation of random mutations in surface antigens over time.

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7
Q

Which genetic mechanisms underlie these variations?

A

Mechanisms include homologous recombination, slipped strand mispairing, and RecA-dependent repair processes.

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8
Q

What is the key difference between Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

N. meningitidis is encapsulated and primarily causes systemic infections like meningitis, whereas N. gonorrhoeae lacks a capsule and typically causes gonorrhea.

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9
Q

How do Neisserial adhesins contribute to colonization?

A

They mediate attachment by overcoming charge barriers using pili and outer membrane proteins such as Opa and Opc.

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10
Q

What is the significance of the capsule in N. meningitidis?

A

The capsule enhances immune evasion and is a major virulence factor in systemic disease.

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11
Q

Why is redundancy in adhesins advantageous for Neisseria?

A

Redundancy ensures that multiple adhesins can compensate if one is downregulated, ensuring persistent colonization.

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12
Q

How does homologous recombination contribute to pilin antigenic variation?

A

Recombination between multiple silent pilS copies and the expressed pilE locus generates diverse pilin variants.

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13
Q

What role does RecA play in Neisseria surface variation?

A

RecA facilitates homologous recombination, ensuring genetic diversity and repair that underpin both antigenic and phase variation.

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14
Q

Describe the mechanism of slipped strand mispairing (SSM).

A

SSM occurs during DNA replication when repetitive sequences misalign, resulting in the gain or loss of repeat units and altering gene expression.

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15
Q

How can changes in coding repeat numbers affect protein expression?

A

Variations may shift the reading frame, leading to truncated or non-functional proteins, thereby modulating the presence of surface antigens.

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16
Q

What is meant by genetic redundancy in the context of bacterial surface proteins?

A

It refers to multiple genes performing similar functions so that inactivation of one does not eliminate a critical phenotype.

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17
Q

How does redundancy in adhesins enhance virulence?

A

It allows bacteria to maintain attachment and colonization even if one adhesin is targeted by the immune system.

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18
Q

What additional strategies do Neisseria employ to evade host defenses?

A

They utilize surface sialylation, mimic host molecules, and shed excess outer membrane components to divert antibodies.

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19
Q

Why is continuous variation important for the long-term survival of pathogenic bacteria?

A

It enables rapid adaptation to changing host environments and immune pressures, ensuring persistent colonization and transmission.

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20
Q

What are the normal functions of lymph nodes?

A

Lymph nodes filter lymph, house immune cells, and facilitate antigen presentation.

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21
Q

What are some causes of non-malignant lymph node enlargement?

A

Causes include infections, autoimmune diseases, and reactive hyperplasia.

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22
Q

What is suppurative lymphadenitis?

A

Suppurative lymphadenitis is lymph node inflammation with pus formation due to bacterial infection.

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23
Q

What are the main bacterial causes of acute lymphadenitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

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24
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

A bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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25
Q

How is tuberculosis transmitted?

A

Via airborne droplets from infected individuals.

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26
Q

How does Mycobacterium tuberculosis evade the immune system?

A

By surviving inside macrophages and inhibiting phagosome-lysosome fusion.

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27
Q

What is the Ghon focus?

A

A primary lung lesion seen in tuberculosis.

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28
Q

What are the risk factors for tuberculosis?

A

Malnutrition, immunosuppression, overcrowding, and poor healthcare access.

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29
Q

What is the significance of lymphadenitis in tuberculosis?

A

It indicates systemic spread and involvement of lymph nodes.

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30
Q

How does tuberculosis appear histologically?

A

Tuberculous granulomas contain caseous necrosis, epithelioid cells, and Langhans giant cells.

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31
Q

What is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain used for?

A

Detects acid-fast bacilli, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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32
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A

A granulomatous disease of unknown cause affecting multiple organs.

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33
Q

What are common radiologic findings in sarcoidosis?

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates.

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34
Q

What is the characteristic histological feature of sarcoidosis?

A

Non-caseating granulomas with multinucleated giant cells.

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35
Q

What is toxoplasmosis?

A

A protozoan infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii.

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36
Q

How is toxoplasmosis transmitted?

A

Via ingestion of contaminated food, water, or cat feces.

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37
Q

What are symptoms of toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised individuals?

A

Severe neurological symptoms, chorioretinitis, and encephalitis.

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38
Q

What are the complications of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis.

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39
Q

How is toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Serology, PCR, and histopathology.

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40
Q

What is cat scratch disease?

A

A bacterial infection causing fever and lymphadenopathy.

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41
Q

What is the causative agent of cat scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae.

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42
Q

How is cat scratch disease diagnosed?

A

By serology, PCR, or histopathology.

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43
Q

How is cat scratch disease managed?

A

Usually self-limiting, but sometimes requires antibiotics.

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44
Q

What is Kikuchi disease?

A

A self-limiting necrotizing lymphadenitis of unknown cause.

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45
Q

What are the clinical features of Kikuchi disease?

A

Fever, lymphadenopathy, and fatigue.

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46
Q

Who is most commonly affected by Kikuchi disease?

A

Young women, particularly of Asian descent.

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47
Q

What is the histological hallmark of Kikuchi disease?

A

Necrotizing histiocytic lymphadenitis.

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48
Q

Why is Kikuchi disease sometimes mistaken for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

Both show lymphadenopathy and histiocytic inflammation.

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49
Q

What are the primary mechanisms bacteria use to adhere to host cells?

A

Pili, outer membrane proteins, and lipopolysaccharides.

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50
Q

How does antigenic variation help Neisseria evade immunity?

A

By altering its surface proteins to avoid recognition.

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51
Q

What is the role of pili in Neisseria infections?

A

Mediates adhesion to mucosal surfaces.

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52
Q

What is the significance of sialylation in Neisseria?

A

Prevents complement activation and immune recognition.

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53
Q

How does genetic recombination contribute to bacterial survival?

A

Promotes adaptation and immune evasion.

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54
Q

What is the role of outer membrane vesicles in immune evasion?

A

They bind host antibodies and divert immune attack.

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55
Q

What is the clinical significance of Neisseria gonorrhoeae’s lack of a capsule?

A

It makes it more susceptible to immune clearance.

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56
Q

How does Neisseria meningitidis cause systemic infections?

A

By crossing the blood-brain barrier and inducing inflammation.

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57
Q

What is the main mode of transmission for Neisseria species?

A

Through direct mucosal contact.

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58
Q

Why are Neisseria species restricted to human hosts?

A

They require human-specific nutrients and receptors.

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59
Q

What are the two main categories of bacterial variation mechanisms?

A

Recombinase-dependent and recombinase-independent mechanisms.

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60
Q

How does recombinase-dependent variation work?

A

By rearranging genes to create diversity.

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61
Q

How does recombinase-independent variation contribute to bacterial diversity?

A

Via mutation-based phase variation.

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62
Q

Why is rapid mutation rate an advantage for pathogenic bacteria?

A

It increases adaptability to host defenses.

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63
Q

What is the primary immune response to Neisseria infections?

A

Primarily antibody-mediated responses.

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64
Q

How does iron acquisition contribute to Neisseria virulence?

A

Iron is essential for bacterial growth and infection.

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65
Q

Why is Neisseria gonorrhoeae particularly difficult to vaccinate against?

A

Due to its high antigenic variability.

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66
Q

What are the two peaks of disease prevalence for N. meningitidis?

A

Neonates and adolescents.

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67
Q

How does Neisseria gonorrhoeae cause asymptomatic infections?

A

By modifying surface proteins to prevent detection.

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68
Q

What is the impact of antibiotic resistance in Neisseria species?

A

It complicates treatment and vaccine development.

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69
Q

What is the function of Opa proteins in Neisseria?

A

Mediates tight adherence to host cells.

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70
Q

What is the function of Opc proteins in Neisseria?

A

Facilitates invasion of endothelial cells.

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71
Q

How does Neisseria avoid complement-mediated killing?

A

By binding factor H to avoid complement deposition.

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72
Q

What is the importance of studying bacterial variation for public health?

A

It helps predict and prevent emerging infections.

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73
Q

How does tuberculosis differ in HIV-positive vs. HIV-negative individuals?

A

HIV-positive patients have a higher risk of disseminated TB.

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74
Q

What is the relationship between tuberculosis and socioeconomic factors?

A

Poverty, malnutrition, and inadequate healthcare access increase TB risk.

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75
Q

Why is tuberculosis considered a chronic granulomatous disease?

A

It leads to chronic granuloma formation.

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76
Q

How does tuberculosis cause delayed hypersensitivity?

A

By triggering a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction.

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77
Q

What are the treatment challenges for tuberculosis?

A

Long treatment duration and resistance.

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78
Q

Why is tuberculosis more common in crowded conditions?

A

Close contact increases transmission risk.

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79
Q

What is the role of alveolar macrophages in tuberculosis pathogenesis?

A

They ingest bacteria but fail to kill them.

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80
Q

What is the significance of the Mantoux test?

A

A tuberculin skin test detecting immune response.

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81
Q

How does latent tuberculosis differ from active tuberculosis?

A

Latent TB is asymptomatic and non-infectious.

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82
Q

What role do cytokines play in tuberculosis?

A

Cytokines drive granuloma formation and immune response.

83
Q

Why does tuberculosis require long-term antibiotic therapy?

A

Due to slow bacterial replication and persistence.

84
Q

How do granulomas form in tuberculosis?

A

By macrophage aggregation and cytokine signaling.

85
Q

What are the key diagnostic tests for tuberculosis?

A

Chest X-ray, sputum culture, and PCR.

86
Q

How is toxoplasmosis treated?

A

With antiparasitic drugs such as pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine.

87
Q

What is the role of the immune system in controlling toxoplasmosis?

A

Cell-mediated immunity controls infection.

88
Q

How does Toxoplasma gondii manipulate host immunity?

A

By interfering with host cytokine responses.

89
Q

What is the epidemiological significance of toxoplasmosis?

A

It is globally widespread with zoonotic potential.

90
Q

Why is cat ownership associated with toxoplasmosis?

A

Cats excrete oocysts that infect humans.

91
Q

What are the histopathological features of Kikuchi disease?

A

Histiocytic necrosis and paracortical hyperplasia.

92
Q

How does Kikuchi disease typically resolve?

A

It is self-limiting over weeks to months.

93
Q

What are the potential misdiagnoses for Kikuchi disease?

A

It can be mistaken for lymphoma or lupus.

94
Q

How does sarcoidosis lead to granuloma formation?

A

By stimulating macrophages and T-cells.

95
Q

What are the systemic manifestations of sarcoidosis?

A

Pulmonary, ocular, and neurological effects.

96
Q

Why is sarcoidosis often an incidental finding?

A

It may be asymptomatic or diagnosed via biopsy.

97
Q

What is the clinical significance of enlarged lymph nodes?

A

Lymphadenopathy can indicate infection, malignancy, or autoimmune disease.

98
Q

How does the body’s immune system regulate lymph node size?

A

By regulating immune cell trafficking and proliferation.

99
Q

What are the functions of erythrocytes?

A

Erythrocytes transport oxygen and carbon dioxide using hemoglobin.

100
Q

What is the normal lifespan of a red blood cell?

A

A red blood cell typically lives for about 120 days.

101
Q

How does erythropoietin regulate red blood cell production?

A

Erythropoietin, produced by the kidneys, stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells in response to hypoxia.

102
Q

What is anemia?

A

Anemia is a condition characterized by a reduced red blood cell count or hemoglobin concentration.

103
Q

What are the common causes of anemia?

A

Common causes of anemia include blood loss, decreased red blood cell production, and increased red blood cell destruction.

104
Q

How is anemia classified based on red blood cell size?

A

Anemia is classified as microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic based on mean corpuscular volume (MCV).

105
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of anemia?

A

Symptoms of anemia include fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath, and tachycardia.

106
Q

What is iron-deficiency anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia is caused by insufficient iron levels, leading to decreased hemoglobin synthesis.

107
Q

What are the common causes of iron-deficiency anemia?

A

Common causes include chronic blood loss, dietary deficiency, and malabsorption.

108
Q

How is iron-deficiency anemia diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis involves low serum iron, low ferritin, increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC), and microcytic hypochromic red cells on blood smear.

109
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

Pernicious anemia is an autoimmune condition causing vitamin B12 deficiency.

110
Q

What causes pernicious anemia?

A

It results from autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells that produce intrinsic factor.

111
Q

What is the role of intrinsic factor in vitamin B12 absorption?

A

Intrinsic factor is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum.

112
Q

What is megaloblastic anemia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by large, immature red blood cells due to impaired DNA synthesis.

113
Q

How does folate deficiency cause megaloblastic anemia?

A

Folate is required for DNA synthesis; its deficiency leads to ineffective erythropoiesis.

114
Q

What are the main laboratory findings in megaloblastic anemia?

A

Findings include macrocytic red blood cells, hypersegmented neutrophils, and low serum B12 or folate levels.

115
Q

What is hemolytic anemia?

A

Hemolytic anemia is caused by the destruction of red blood cells before their normal lifespan.

116
Q

What are some causes of hemolytic anemia?

A

Causes include autoimmune diseases, infections, hereditary defects, and mechanical trauma.

117
Q

What is the difference between intravascular and extravascular hemolysis?

A

Intravascular hemolysis occurs within blood vessels, while extravascular hemolysis occurs in the spleen or liver.

118
Q

What are the key laboratory findings in hemolysis?

A

Laboratory findings include elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin, and increased reticulocyte count.

119
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder causing abnormal hemoglobin S production.

120
Q

What genetic mutation causes sickle cell disease?

A

It is caused by a point mutation in the β-globin gene, leading to hemoglobin polymerization and sickling.

121
Q

How does sickle cell disease affect red blood cell function?

A

Sickled red blood cells are rigid and can block blood vessels, causing pain and organ damage.

122
Q

What is the clinical presentation of sickle cell disease?

A

Symptoms include vaso-occlusive crises, anemia, jaundice, and increased infection risk.

123
Q

What are common complications of sickle cell disease?

A

Complications include stroke, acute chest syndrome, and avascular necrosis.

124
Q

What is thalassemia?

A

Thalassemia is a genetic disorder causing decreased or absent production of globin chains in hemoglobin.

125
Q

What are the types of thalassemia?

A

Types include alpha-thalassemia and beta-thalassemia.

126
Q

How does thalassemia affect hemoglobin production?

A

Thalassemia leads to ineffective erythropoiesis, hemolysis, and anemia.

127
Q

What are the laboratory findings in thalassemia?

A

Findings include microcytic anemia, target cells on blood smear, and hemoglobin electrophoresis abnormalities.

128
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder causing defects in red blood cell membrane proteins.

129
Q

How does hereditary spherocytosis affect red blood cell shape?

A

It leads to spherical red blood cells that are prone to destruction in the spleen.

130
Q

What is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an X-linked disorder affecting red blood cell metabolism.

131
Q

How does G6PD deficiency lead to hemolysis?

A

G6PD deficiency reduces the ability to handle oxidative stress, leading to hemolysis.

132
Q

What triggers hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

A

Triggers include infections, certain medications (e.g., sulfa drugs), and fava beans.

133
Q

What are Heinz bodies?

A

Heinz bodies are aggregates of denatured hemoglobin seen in G6PD deficiency.

134
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

Aplastic anemia is a failure of bone marrow to produce blood cells.

135
Q

What are the causes of aplastic anemia?

A

Causes include radiation, chemicals, infections, and autoimmune diseases.

136
Q

How is aplastic anemia diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis involves pancytopenia, hypocellular bone marrow, and low reticulocyte count.

137
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Polycythemia is an increased red blood cell mass.

138
Q

What are the types of polycythemia?

A

Types include polycythemia vera (a myeloproliferative disorder) and secondary polycythemia (due to hypoxia or EPO-secreting tumors).

139
Q

What are the clinical features of polycythemia?

A

Symptoms include headache, dizziness, hypertension, and thrombotic complications.

140
Q

What is leukemia?

A

Leukemia is a malignancy of white blood cells.

141
Q

What are the types of leukemia?

A

Types include acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), and chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).

142
Q

How does acute leukemia differ from chronic leukemia?

A

Acute leukemia is characterized by rapid progression and immature cells, while chronic leukemia progresses slowly with mature cells.

143
Q

What are the common symptoms of leukemia?

A

Symptoms include fatigue, recurrent infections, bleeding, and hepatosplenomegaly.

144
Q

What is the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

The Philadelphia chromosome is a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, leading to BCR-ABL fusion.

145
Q

How does the Philadelphia chromosome relate to leukemia?

A

It is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).

146
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Lymphoma is a malignancy of lymphocytes affecting lymphoid tissue.

147
Q

What are the main types of lymphoma?

A

Main types include Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

148
Q

How does Hodgkin lymphoma differ from non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells, while non-Hodgkin lymphoma has diverse subtypes.

149
Q

What are Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells are large, binucleated cells seen in Hodgkin lymphoma.

150
Q

What are the symptoms of lymphoma?

A

Symptoms of lymphoma include painless lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, and weight loss.

151
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy affecting the bone marrow.

152
Q

How does multiple myeloma affect the bone marrow?

A

It leads to excessive monoclonal antibody production, bone destruction, and renal dysfunction.

153
Q

What are the common symptoms of multiple myeloma?

A

Symptoms include bone pain, fractures, anemia, hypercalcemia, and renal failure.

154
Q

What laboratory findings suggest multiple myeloma?

A

Findings include monoclonal (M) spike on electrophoresis, lytic bone lesions, and Bence Jones proteins in urine.

155
Q

What are Bence Jones proteins?

A

Bence Jones proteins are free light chains excreted in urine, associated with multiple myeloma.

156
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder caused by clotting factor deficiencies.

157
Q

What are the types of hemophilia?

A

Types include hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency) and hemophilia B (factor IX deficiency).

158
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hemophilia?

A

It follows an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern.

159
Q

What clotting factors are deficient in hemophilia A and B?

A

Hemophilia A is due to factor VIII deficiency, while hemophilia B is due to factor IX deficiency.

160
Q

What are the clinical features of hemophilia?

A

Symptoms include prolonged bleeding, hemarthrosis, and easy bruising.

161
Q

What is von Willebrand disease?

A

Von Willebrand disease is a disorder of platelet adhesion due to von Willebrand factor deficiency.

162
Q

How does von Willebrand disease affect coagulation?

A

It impairs clot formation and leads to mucosal and skin bleeding.

163
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a pathological activation of coagulation leading to widespread clotting and bleeding.

164
Q

What are the causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Causes include sepsis, trauma, malignancy, and obstetric complications.

165
Q

How is disseminated intravascular coagulation diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis involves elevated D-dimer, prolonged PT and aPTT, and thrombocytopenia.

166
Q

What is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune disorder causing platelet destruction.

167
Q

What causes immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

ITP is caused by autoantibodies against platelets.

168
Q

How does immune thrombocytopenic purpura present clinically?

A

Symptoms include petechiae, purpura, and increased bleeding.

169
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with thrombocytopenia.

170
Q

What is the pathophysiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

It is caused by ADAMTS13 deficiency, leading to platelet aggregation and vessel occlusion.

171
Q

What are the symptoms of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Symptoms include fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, and neurological symptoms.

172
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is an immune-mediated reaction to heparin.

173
Q

What causes heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

It occurs when antibodies form against heparin-platelet factor 4 complexes.

174
Q

How is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis involves thrombocytopenia, thrombosis, and positive HIT antibody testing.

175
Q

What is factor V Leiden mutation?

A

Factor V Leiden mutation increases the risk of venous thrombosis.

176
Q

How does factor V Leiden mutation increase the risk of thrombosis?

A

It causes resistance to activated protein C, reducing anticoagulation.

177
Q

What is antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome is an autoimmune disorder leading to thrombosis.

178
Q

What are the clinical features of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Symptoms include recurrent thrombosis, pregnancy complications, and livedo reticularis.

179
Q

What laboratory findings suggest antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Findings include lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin antibodies, and anti-β2 glycoprotein antibodies.

180
Q

What is the role of plasmin in fibrinolysis?

A

Plasmin degrades fibrin clots in fibrinolysis.

181
Q

How does fibrinolysis contribute to hemostasis?

A

Fibrinolysis prevents excessive clot formation and aids in clot resolution.

182
Q

What is the function of protein C and protein S in coagulation?

A

Protein C and protein S inhibit clotting by inactivating factors Va and VIIIa.

183
Q

What is the function of antithrombin III?

A

Antithrombin III inhibits thrombin and factor Xa to regulate coagulation.

184
Q

What is warfarin and how does it affect coagulation?

A

Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X).

185
Q

What is the mechanism of action of heparin?

A

Heparin activates antithrombin III, accelerating clot breakdown.

186
Q

How do direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) work?

A

Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) inhibit thrombin or factor Xa.

187
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in coagulation?

A

Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.

188
Q

What is the function of platelets in hemostasis?

A

Platelets form a temporary plug in hemostasis.

189
Q

How is platelet aggregation regulated?

A

Platelet aggregation is regulated by ADP, thromboxane A2, and fibrinogen.

190
Q

What are the stages of primary hemostasis?

A

Primary hemostasis includes platelet adhesion, activation, and aggregation.

191
Q

What is the role of thromboxane A2 in platelet function?

A

Thromboxane A2 promotes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.

192
Q

What are the laboratory tests used to assess coagulation?

A

Coagulation tests include PT, aPTT, fibrinogen, and D-dimer.

193
Q

What is the significance of an elevated D-dimer level?

A

Elevated D-dimer indicates active clot formation and breakdown.

194
Q

What is the role of tissue factor in coagulation?

A

Tissue factor initiates the extrinsic coagulation pathway.

195
Q

How does endothelial injury promote thrombosis?

A

Endothelial injury triggers clot formation via the coagulation cascade.

196
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A

Virchow’s triad includes endothelial injury, stasis, and hypercoagulability.

197
Q

How does deep vein thrombosis (DVT) develop?

A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) occurs due to blood stasis and hypercoagulability.

198
Q

What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis?

A

Risk factors include immobility, surgery, and thrombophilia.

199
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of deep vein thrombosis?

A

Symptoms include leg swelling, pain, and redness.

200
Q

What is the treatment for deep vein thrombosis?

A

Treatment includes anticoagulation (heparin, warfarin, DOACs).

201
Q

What is the significance of a pulmonary embolism?

A

Pulmonary embolism occurs when a clot dislodges and blocks lung arteries.

202
Q

How is pulmonary embolism diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis involves D-dimer, CT angiography, and ultrasound.

203
Q

What are the common causes of acquired thrombophilia?

A

Acquired thrombophilias include antiphospholipid syndrome and cancer.

204
Q

How do inherited and acquired thrombophilias differ?

A

Inherited thrombophilias are genetic conditions increasing clot risk.