L5 - Renal Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary functions of the kidney?

A

The kidney filters blood, excretes waste products, regulates water and salt balance, maintains acid–base balance, and functions as an endocrine organ.

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2
Q

How much blood does the kidney filter daily and what is the approximate urine output?

A

Approximately 1700 litres of blood are filtered daily, producing around 1 litre of urine.

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3
Q

What anatomical structure is essential for blood filtration in the kidney?

A

The glomerulus, an anastomosing network of capillaries, is central to the filtration process.

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4
Q

Why is the glomerular barrier function critical?

A

It allows water and small solutes to pass while preventing the loss of large protein molecules.

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5
Q

What defines nephrotic syndrome clinically?

A

Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by heavy proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoalbuminaemia, severe oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and lipiduria.

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6
Q

How does minimal change disease (MCD) present histologically?

A

MCD shows normal light microscopy with diffuse podocyte foot process fusion on electron microscopy.

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7
Q

What are the key features of membranous glomerulopathy?

A

It is marked by subepithelial electron-dense deposits along the basement membrane, with an antigen–antibody mediated pathogenesis.

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8
Q

What distinguishes focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) from other causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

FSGS involves segmental scarring of some glomeruli and is often associated with conditions like HIV, obesity, or hypertension.

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9
Q

What is the renal impact of diabetic glomerulopathy?

A

It leads to thickening of the basement membrane and increased mesangial matrix due to hyperglycaemia and advanced glycation end-products.

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10
Q

How is amyloidosis identified in the kidney?

A

Amyloidosis is demonstrated by the deposition of amorphous eosinophilic material that shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light after Congo red staining.

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11
Q

What are common features of lupus nephritis in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

SLE shows a range of histological patterns with immune complex deposition, and is associated with a positive ANA and anti-dsDNA on immunofluorescence.

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12
Q

How can chronic glomerular diseases progress to renal failure?

A

Ongoing damage from proteinuria, inflammatory processes, and scarring ultimately lead to chronic renal insufficiency.

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13
Q

What are typical clinical manifestations of acute nephritic syndrome?

A

Haematuria, mild to moderate proteinuria, and hypertension are characteristic.

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14
Q

How is chronic renal failure identified clinically?

A

Chronic renal failure may be asymptomatic initially but is later recognised by reduced glomerular filtration rate and accumulation of metabolic waste.

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15
Q

What role do electron microscopy and immunofluorescence play in renal pathology?

A

They provide detailed insights into glomerular ultrastructure and immune complex deposition, essential for diagnosing specific glomerulopathies.

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16
Q

Why is precise diagnosis of glomerular disease critical for patient management?

A

Accurate diagnosis directs appropriate therapy, which can improve prognosis and prevent progression to end-stage renal disease.

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17
Q

How does the composition of the glomerular basement membrane contribute to its selectivity?

A

Its network of collagen, laminin, and proteoglycans forms a charge- and size-selective barrier essential for filtration.

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18
Q

What ultrastructural change is diagnostic for minimal change disease?

A

Diffuse effacement of podocyte foot processes seen on electron microscopy.

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19
Q

How do immunofluorescence patterns help distinguish membranous glomerulopathy?

A

Granular immunoglobulin deposits along the capillary wall indicate immune complex deposition.

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20
Q

What role does podocyte injury play in the development of proteinuria?

A

Damage disrupts the slit diaphragm, leading to leakage of protein into the urine.

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21
Q

How does focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) contribute to chronic kidney disease?

A

Progressive scarring in parts of some glomeruli reduces overall filtration capacity, leading to renal insufficiency.

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22
Q

What are the key electron microscopic features in diabetic glomerulopathy?

A

A thickened basement membrane, mesangial expansion, and sometimes nodular glomerulosclerosis.

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23
Q

How does amyloidosis present differently from other glomerular diseases on electron microscopy?

A

Amyloid deposits appear as non-branching fibrils approximately 7.5–10 nm in diameter.

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24
Q

What clinical criteria help define acute nephritic syndrome?

A

Haematuria, hypertension, and moderate proteinuria are the hallmarks of acute nephritic syndrome.

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25
Q

What is the primary functional unit of the kidney?

A

The nephron

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26
Q

What three layers make up the glomerular filtration barrier?

A

Fenestrated endothelium, glomerular basement membrane, podocytes

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27
Q

Which part of the nephron is responsible for the majority of sodium reabsorption?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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28
Q

What is the main function of the proximal tubule?

A

Reabsorption of water, electrolytes, and nutrients; secretion of waste products

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29
Q

What is the role of the loop of Henle in urine concentration?

A

Establishes a concentration gradient to facilitate water reabsorption in the collecting duct

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30
Q

What hormone regulates water reabsorption in the collecting duct?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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31
Q

Which ion is most important in regulating extracellular fluid volume?

A

Sodium (Na⁺)

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32
Q

What is the role of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

Regulates blood pressure via renin secretion

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33
Q

How does the kidney contribute to acid–base homeostasis?

A

Excretes hydrogen ions and reabsorbs bicarbonate to maintain pH balance

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34
Q

What is the role of aldosterone in renal physiology?

A

Increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the distal tubule

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35
Q

What are the histological features of acute tubular injury?

A

Tubular epithelial necrosis, loss of brush border, and granular casts

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36
Q

How does hypertension contribute to kidney disease?

A

Causes endothelial damage, leading to glomerulosclerosis and nephron loss

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37
Q

What are the common causes of acute kidney injury?

A

Ischaemia, nephrotoxins, sepsis

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38
Q

What distinguishes nephritic syndrome from nephrotic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome presents with haematuria, hypertension, and mild proteinuria, whereas nephrotic syndrome is characterised by heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

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40
Q

What immune mechanism underlies membranous nephropathy?

A

Immune complex deposition along the basement membrane

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41
Q

What is the characteristic finding in post-infectious glomerulonephritis?

A

Subepithelial humps of immune complexes

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42
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in anti-GBM disease?

A

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

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43
Q

How does IgA nephropathy typically present?

A

Episodic haematuria, often following an upper respiratory infection

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44
Q

What is the characteristic light microscopic finding in rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?

A

Crescents composed of fibrin and macrophages within Bowman’s space

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45
Q

How is Alport syndrome diagnosed?

A

Genetic testing for mutations in COL4A5 and characteristic lamellated basement membranes on electron microscopy

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46
Q

What are the characteristic features of thrombotic microangiopathies affecting the kidney?

A

Endothelial injury, thrombosis, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

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47
Q

What are the primary causes of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) infection, complement dysregulation

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48
Q

How does sickle cell disease affect renal function?

A

Medullary infarction, haematuria, proteinuria, and papillary necrosis

49
Q

Which glomerular disease is most commonly associated with HIV infection?

A

Collapsing focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

50
Q

What renal changes are seen in multiple myeloma?

A

Cast nephropathy due to light chain deposition

51
Q

How do NSAIDs contribute to kidney injury?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis, renal papillary necrosis

52
Q

What is the renal impact of lithium therapy?

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, chronic tubulointerstitial nephropathy

53
Q

Which systemic disease is most commonly associated with crescentic glomerulonephritis?

A

Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)-associated vasculitis

54
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hypertensive nephrosclerosis?

A

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis, glomerular ischaemia, interstitial fibrosis

55
Q

How does chronic kidney disease (CKD) affect bone metabolism?

A

Hyperphosphataemia, decreased vitamin D activation, secondary hyperparathyroidism

56
Q

What is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease?

A

Diabetes mellitus

57
Q

What laboratory findings indicate acute kidney injury?

A

Elevated serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and metabolic acidosis

58
Q

How does the kidney compensate for decreased perfusion in prerenal AKI?

A

Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to increase blood pressure and sodium retention

59
Q

What is the significance of muddy brown casts in urine microscopy?

A

Granular casts composed of necrotic tubular epithelial cells

60
Q

How does chronic kidney disease lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Phosphate retention stimulates parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion, leading to bone resorption

61
Q

What are the main clinical features of uraemia?

A

Fatigue, anorexia, nausea, pruritus, pericarditis

62
Q

Which imaging modality is most useful for diagnosing renal artery stenosis?

A

Doppler ultrasound, magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

63
Q

What is the most common cause of drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis?

A

NSAIDs, antibiotics (e.g., beta-lactams), proton pump inhibitors

64
Q

How does myoglobinuria cause acute kidney injury?

A

Myoglobin is toxic to renal tubules, causing acute tubular necrosis

65
Q

What is the pathogenesis of contrast-induced nephropathy?

A

Vasoconstriction and oxidative stress from contrast media exposure

66
Q

What are the primary indications for kidney biopsy?

A

Unexplained proteinuria, haematuria, or renal dysfunction

67
Q

Which metabolic derangements are common in chronic kidney disease?

A

Hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis, hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia

68
Q

What is the role of erythropoietin in renal disease?

A

Stimulates red blood cell production in response to hypoxia

69
Q

How does nephrotic syndrome contribute to hypercoagulability?

A

Urinary loss of antithrombin III and increased fibrinogen levels promote clot formation

70
Q

What is the pathogenesis of lupus nephritis?

A

Immune complex deposition and complement activation

71
Q

Which autoantibody is most specific for lupus nephritis?

A

Anti-dsDNA

72
Q

What are the histological classes of lupus nephritis?

A

Class I (minimal), II (mesangial), III (focal proliferative), IV (diffuse proliferative), V (membranous), VI (advanced sclerosis)

73
Q

What is the key finding in pauci-immune glomerulonephritis?

A

Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis shows no immune deposits on immunofluorescence

74
Q

How does the kidney contribute to systemic hypertension?

A

Increases blood volume by regulating sodium and water retention

75
Q

What are the most common causes of papillary necrosis?

A

Diabetes mellitus, sickle cell disease, analgesic nephropathy

76
Q

What is the typical presentation of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Flank pain, haematuria, and an abdominal mass

77
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with renal cell carcinoma?

A

Paraneoplastic erythrocytosis, hypercalcaemia, hypertension

78
Q

What are the histological subtypes of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Clear cell carcinoma, papillary carcinoma, chromophobe carcinoma

79
Q

Which genetic syndrome is associated with multiple renal cysts?

A

Von Hippel–Lindau syndrome

80
Q

What is the most common cause of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?

A

PKD1 or PKD2 gene mutation leading to cyst formation

81
Q

How does medullary sponge kidney differ from polycystic kidney disease?

A

Medullary sponge kidney is non-hereditary and characterised by cystic dilation of collecting ducts

82
Q

What is the typical presentation of nephrocalcinosis?

A

Nephrolithiasis and nephrocalcinosis

83
Q

Which renal disease is most commonly associated with hyperuricaemia?

A

Gouty nephropathy, urate nephrolithiasis

84
Q

What are the key histological features of chronic pyelonephritis?

A

Tubular atrophy, thyroidisation of tubules, interstitial fibrosis

85
Q

How does vesicoureteral reflux contribute to renal pathology?

A

Chronic reflux leads to scarring and atrophy of renal parenchyma

86
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of acute pyelonephritis?

A

Escherichia coli

87
Q

What are the characteristic findings in xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?

A

Foamy macrophages, giant cells, chronic inflammation

88
Q

What is the most common cause of obstructive uropathy in older men?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

89
Q

How does urinary tract obstruction lead to renal dysfunction?

A

Hydronephrosis, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

90
Q

What is the characteristic finding in renal papillary necrosis?

A

Coagulative necrosis of renal papillae

91
Q

What is the role of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in kidney disease?

A

Regulates blood pressure and fluid balance through renin and aldosterone

92
Q

How do ACE inhibitors affect renal function?

A

Dilate efferent arterioles, decreasing glomerular pressure

93
Q

Which renal condition is commonly associated with sarcoidosis?

A

Granulomatous interstitial nephritis

94
Q

What is the role of podocyte injury in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Disruption of podocyte slit diaphragm leads to increased permeability to proteins

95
Q

How does C3 glomerulopathy differ from immune complex-mediated glomerulonephritis?

A

C3 glomerulopathy results from alternative complement pathway dysregulation

96
Q

What is the typical presentation of fibromuscular dysplasia in the kidney?

A

Young woman with hypertension, renal artery stenosis

97
Q

How does the kidney regulate phosphate balance?

A

Regulates phosphate excretion and vitamin D metabolism

98
Q

What is the role of FGF23 in phosphate homeostasis?

A

Inhibits phosphate reabsorption and vitamin D activation

99
Q

How does renal osteodystrophy develop in CKD?

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica, adynamic bone disease

100
Q

What are the characteristic findings in thin basement membrane disease?

A

Uniformly thin glomerular basement membrane

101
Q

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of Alport syndrome?

A

X-linked dominant inheritance

102
Q

Which renal pathology is associated with ANCA-positive vasculitis?

A

ANCA-associated vasculitis (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

103
Q

How does chronic kidney disease contribute to cardiovascular disease?

A

Increases cardiovascular risk via hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and vascular calcification

104
Q

What is the pathophysiology of renal anaemia?

A

Deficient erythropoietin production, leading to normocytic anaemia

105
Q

Which electrolyte disturbances are common in end-stage renal disease?

A

Hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, metabolic acidosis, hypocalcaemia

106
Q

What are the histological findings in acute tubulointerstitial nephritis?

A

Interstitial oedema, eosinophilic infiltrate, tubulitis

107
Q

How does Fanconi syndrome affect renal tubular function?

A

Proximal tubular dysfunction, leading to loss of glucose, amino acids, phosphate, and bicarbonate

108
Q

What is the typical presentation of Bartter syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis, polyuria, failure to thrive

109
Q

Which genetic mutation is associated with Gitelman syndrome?

A

SLC12A3 gene mutation affecting thiazide-sensitive sodium chloride cotransporter

110
Q

What are the renal complications of obstructive sleep apnoea?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, nocturia

111
Q

How does hyperaldosteronism affect renal function?

A

Hypernatraemia, hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis

112
Q

What are the renal manifestations of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Renal angiomyolipomas, cysts, and increased risk of renal cell carcinoma

113
Q

What is the main difference between nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and central diabetes insipidus?

A

Nephrogenic DI results from renal insensitivity to ADH; central DI results from lack of ADH production

114
Q

What is the effect of volume depletion on renal autoregulation?

A

Increases renal vascular resistance to maintain perfusion

115
Q

What are the primary causes of renal infarction?

A

Thromboembolism, trauma, vasculitis, atherosclerosis

116
Q

How does sickle cell trait differ from sickle cell disease in renal pathology?

A

Milder renal involvement compared to sickle cell disease, with a lower risk of infarction

117
Q

What is the role of endothelin in kidney disease?

A

Vasoconstriction and fibrosis in renal vasculature

118
Q

Which renal pathology is associated with monoclonal gammopathy of renal significance (MGRS)?

A

Monoclonal light chain deposition causes glomerular or tubulointerstitial damage