L3.1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Ant-Social behaviour?

A

Actions that cause blight on an area and are a significant concern to the public

This behaviour often leads to a demand for positive action from authorities, particularly the police.

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2
Q

What does the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982 address?

A

It addresses various anti-social behaviours, including urinating or defecating in public places

The Act establishes legal consequences for such behaviours.

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3
Q

What is the offence created by Section 47 of the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982?

A

Urinating or defecating in circumstances likely to cause annoyance to others

This offence can occur anywhere if it causes annoyance.

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4
Q

What action can a Constable take if they believe someone has committed an offence under Section 47?

A

They may issue a Fixed Penalty Notice

This applies unless the person is subject to a supervision order.

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5
Q

Provide an example of a charge under Section 47 of the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982.

A

On 23rd October 2020, Scott Sands did urinate in circumstances likely to cause annoyance

This is a specific instance of the offence being applied.

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6
Q

What are the two offences related to obstruction by pedestrians under Section 53?

A
  1. Obstructing lawful passage after being warned by a Constable
  2. Wilfully obstructing lawful passage

The first requires multiple persons, while the second can be committed by one.

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7
Q

What does the first part of Section 53 require for an offence to occur?

A

More than one person present and a warning given by a Constable in uniform

This part focuses on collective obstruction.

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8
Q

What constitutes a wilful obstruction under Section 53?

A

A single person obstructing the lawful passage of another person intentionally

This highlights individual responsibility in obstruction cases.

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9
Q

What additional behaviour is covered under the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982 regarding obstruction?

A

Displaying goods for sale that overhang a footpath

This relates to how goods can impede pedestrian movement.

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10
Q

What does Section 87(1) of the Environmental Protection Act, 1990 state about littering?

A

Any person who throws down, drops or otherwise deposits litter in a public place shall be guilty of an offence

This includes any action that contributes to the defacement by litter of public places.

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11
Q

What are the exemptions stated in Section 87(2) of the Environmental Protection Act, 1990 regarding littering?

A

There is no offence if the depositing was:
* Authorised by law
* Done with consent of the owner, occupier, or controller of the place

These exemptions provide legal protections to individuals under certain circumstances.

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12
Q

Where does Section 87(3) of the Environmental Protection Act, 1990 state that litter offences may take place?

A

Any public open place

This includes areas that are accessible to the public.

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13
Q

Can an officer issue a Fixed Penalty Notice without witnessing the act of littering?

A

Yes, if there is evidence to support that an offence has been committed

This allows enforcement even if the officer did not directly see the littering.

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14
Q

What is the maximum amount that can be set as a fixed penalty fine for littering?

A

£200

This amount is established to deter littering and maintain public cleanliness.

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15
Q

List the types of places where littering offences apply outside of public open spaces.

A
  • Any relevant highway or relevant road
  • Any trunk road which is a special road
  • Any place on relevant land of a principal litter authority
  • Any place on relevant Crown land
  • Any place on relevant land of any designated statutory undertaker

These categories help define the jurisdiction of littering laws.

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16
Q

True or False: Individuals under the influence of drink or drugs are often involved in littering offences.

A

True

This highlights the correlation between substance influence and antisocial behavior.

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17
Q

What skills are important for officers dealing with littering offences?

A

Good communication skills and mindfulness of officer safety

These skills are essential for effective enforcement and ensuring personal safety.

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18
Q

Fill in the blank: Individuals who place or hang goods over footpaths must have _______ to do so.

A

[lawful authority]

This includes having relevant licenses such as street trader or market operator licenses.

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19
Q

What is the definition of a Public Open Place?

A

A place in the open air, to which the public are entitled or permitted to have access without payment; any covered place open to the air on at least one side and available for public use is also treated as a public open space.

Examples include parks and bus shelters.

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20
Q

What offence does fly tipping overlap with?

A

Littering.

Fly tipping is usually dealt with by Local Authority Officers.

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21
Q

Which legislation addresses the dropping of litter in common property in Scotland?

A

Section 92(9) of the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982.

This includes common stairs, passages, back greens, and private courts.

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22
Q

What action can an authorised officer take when an offence related to littering occurs?

A

Issue the offender with a fixed penalty as an alternative to prosecution.

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23
Q

What is the legal status of littering once litter has been deliberately left?

A

The offence is complete, and it is lawful to convict the accused on the evidence of one person.

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24
Q

Is there a legal requirement for police to allow offenders to pick up litter before charging them?

A

No, there is no legal requirement.

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25
Q

What is the attitude of most Procurator Fiscals regarding littering cases?

A

They are reluctant to proceed unless the offender was given the opportunity to pick up the litter.

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26
Q

What does Part 5 of the Antisocial Behaviour etc. (Scotland) Act 2004 address?

A

Noise nuisance.

It provides local authorities with additional powers to deal with noise nuisance.

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27
Q

What type of noise issues does the Antisocial Behaviour etc. (Scotland) Act 2004 specifically tackle?

A

Night noise in dwellings.

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28
Q

What should police officers understand regarding noise complaints?

A

They should have an awareness of noise pollution legislation to properly advise the public.

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29
Q

What legal approach is taken for noise caused by a noisy factory or industrial estate?

A

It is dealt with under civil law, provided the noise is associated with the manufacturing process.

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30
Q

True or False: Noise nuisance is not considered a serious problem in the community.

A

False.

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31
Q

What should you explain to a complainer regarding noise pollution from manufacturing?

A

It is a civil matter and they should make a formal complaint to the local authority or seek advice from an agency such as Citizens’ Advice.

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32
Q

Under what circumstances can a complaint about noise be dealt with as a breach of the peace?

A

There are occasions where a complaint can be treated as a breach of the peace, depending on the situation.

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33
Q

What does Section 54 of the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982 address?

A

It creates an offence for causing annoyance through noise in public or private places.

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34
Q

What actions are considered an offence under Section 54?

A
  • Sounding or playing any musical instrument
  • Singing or performing
  • Operating any sound-producing device
35
Q

What is a requirement for the offence under Section 54 to be complete?

A

The accused must fail to desist after being required to do so by a Constable in uniform.

36
Q

What can be issued if the noise problem persists?

A

A Fixed Penalty Notice.

37
Q

What is the minimum age for a person to be issued a Fixed Penalty Notice under Section 54?

38
Q

What powers do police officers have under Section 54 regarding noise-making equipment?

A
  • Enter premises without a warrant
  • Seize noise-making equipment
  • Use reasonable force if necessary
39
Q

How long can police retain seized noise-making equipment?

40
Q

What impression can dealing with noise complaints create?

A

A lasting impression about the police service on the individuals involved.

41
Q

Where can Fixed Penalty Notices be issued?

A
  • In a public or private place
  • On release from custody
  • On the instructions of the custody Inspector/Sergeant
42
Q

True or False: The offence under Section 54 can only be committed in public places.

43
Q

What remains unchanged regarding your power of arrest for crimes under the fixed penalty scheme?

A

Your power of arrest remains unchanged and can be exercised where appropriate

Sufficient evidence and corroboration are still required.

44
Q

What is an example charge under the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982?

A

Playing music so as to cause annoyance and failing to desist when required by a constable

Example: Robin Clarke at 12 Links Place, Brookbank on 15th September 2020.

45
Q

What does the Antisocial Behaviour etc. (Scotland) Act 2004 provide?

A

Extensive powers to deal with complaints about driver behavior

This act addresses the increasing public complaints regarding motor vehicle drivers.

46
Q

What powers does Section 126 of the Antisocial Behaviour Etc. (Scotland) Act 2004 give to a Constable?

A

The power to seize vehicles causing alarm, distress, or annoyance

This is applicable if the Constable has reasonable grounds for belief regarding the vehicle’s use.

47
Q

Under what conditions can a Constable seize a moving motor vehicle?

A

If the Constable orders the driver to stop the vehicle

The Constable can also seize and remove the vehicle.

48
Q

What are the powers related to entering premises under the Antisocial Behaviour etc. (Scotland) Act 2004?

A

A Constable can enter premises where they believe a vehicle to be and may use reasonable force

This excludes private dwelling houses.

49
Q

What does ‘private dwelling house’ exclude according to the text?

A

Any garage or other structure occupied with the dwelling or land apportioned to the dwelling

This definition clarifies the limitations of police entry.

50
Q

What is considered best practice before forcing entry to premises?

A

To seek authorisation unless delay would defeat justice or endanger public safety

This practice aims to ensure lawful and safe police operations.

51
Q

Under what conditions can a vehicle be seized?

A

A vehicle can be seized if:
* A warning has been given that the vehicle will be seized if use continues
* The use has continued or been repeated after the warning

52
Q

What is good practice when issuing a warning before seizing a vehicle?

A

It is good practice to issue a written warning in addition to a verbal warning

53
Q

Can a previous warning be given by a different Constable?

A

Yes, a previous warning does not need to be given by the same Constable

54
Q

For how long does a previous warning remain valid?

A

A previous warning remains valid for 12 months

55
Q

What must be noted on the PNC when seizing a vehicle?

A

Full details of the vehicle and driver must be noted on the PNC

56
Q

Under what circumstances can a vehicle be seized without giving a warning?

A

A vehicle can be seized without a warning if:
* It is impracticable to give a warning
* The person has been warned within the last 12 months regarding the same vehicle or similar circumstances

57
Q

What happens to the warning record if the vehicle is sold?

A

The warning will remain on the record even when the vehicle is sold, as long as the new keeper updates the V5 registration documents

58
Q

What must a person do to have their seized vehicle released?

A

They must pay fees, charges, or any other costs incurred due to the removal and retention of the vehicle

59
Q

Under what conditions is a person not liable to pay fees for a seized vehicle?

A

A person is not liable to pay fees if:
* They did not know of the use leading to its seizure
* They did not consent to its use
* They could not have prevented its use

60
Q

True or False: A unique PNC identification number is appended to the vehicle upon seizure.

61
Q

What conditions must be met before the Authority can dispose of a seized vehicle?

A

The vehicle cannot be disposed of in the three months following seizure or during the seven-day period specified in the seizure notice.

This ensures that owners have time to claim their vehicle after seizure.

62
Q

What must the retaining authority do before disposing of a vehicle?

A

The retaining authority must have been unable to deliver a seizure notice or the owner must have failed to remove the vehicle.

This ensures proper notification and opportunity for the owner to reclaim their property.

63
Q

How can a seizure notice be delivered?

A

A seizure notice can be delivered by:
* delivering it to the owner
* leaving it at their usual or last known address
* sending it recorded delivery
* sending it via email.

For corporate vehicles, the notice can be sent to the company secretary or an employee at its registered office.

64
Q

True or False: The vehicle can be disposed of immediately after seizure.

A

False.

There are specific timeframes that must be adhered to before disposal.

65
Q

What is the purpose of the Fireworks and Pyrotechnic Articles (Scotland) Act 2022?

A

To address the possession of fireworks and/or pyrotechnics both in public and in designated venues or events.

This legislation aims to reduce damage and injury associated with fireworks.

66
Q

Fill in the blank: The Fireworks and Pyrotechnic Articles (Scotland) Act 2022 aims to reduce _______.

A

damage and injury to people and property.

67
Q

What types of antisocial offences are related to fireworks?

A

Antisocial offences related to fireworks occur all year round but are more common around:
* bonfire night
* specific festivals.

These times see an increase in the use of fireworks in uncontrolled environments.

68
Q

What should police officers check regarding the administration of vehicle seizure legislation?

A

Police officers should check force procedures for the application and administration of this legislation.

This ensures that officers are following proper protocols when dealing with vehicle seizures.

69
Q

What does the legislation regulate regarding fireworks?

A

The use, supply, and possession of fireworks and other pyrotechnic articles

This includes specific provisions for possession without reasonable excuse and designated venues.

70
Q

What is an offence under Section 35?

A

Possessing a pyrotechnic article, other than a category F1 firework, in a public place without reasonable excuse

Category F1 fireworks are low hazard items like party poppers and certain sparklers.

71
Q

Under what conditions is it not an offence to possess a pyrotechnic article?

A

If it is in connection with employment or as a visual distress signal

This allows certain professional uses and emergency signaling without penalties.

72
Q

Define ‘pyrotechnic article’.

A

An article containing explosive substances designed to produce heat, light, sound, gas, or smoke

This includes a wide range of fireworks and similar devices.

73
Q

What is meant by ‘Public Place’ in this context?

A

Any place other than premises occupied as a private dwelling

This includes areas like gardens and yards that are not used in common by multiple occupants.

74
Q

What does Section 36 establish regarding possession of pyrotechnic articles?

A

It is an offence to possess a pyrotechnic article in a designated venue or event without reasonable excuse

This applies even if the event is not a sporting event or if attendees have not paid to attend.

75
Q

Who can designate a sports ground or event under Section 36?

A

The Scottish Ministers

They can regulate various types of grounds and events for safety.

76
Q

What constitutes a firework control zone according to Section 27?

A

An area designated by a local authority where fireworks are controlled

Local authorities can amend or revoke these zones as needed.

77
Q

What actions are prohibited in a firework control zone?

A

Igniting, throwing, or firing a firework

This does not apply to category F1 fireworks.

78
Q

Fill in the blank: A category F1 firework means a firework which presents a very low _______ and minimal noise level.

A

hazard

Category F1 fireworks are intended for use in confined areas.

79
Q

True or False: Attendees at a music event are exempt from the regulations regarding pyrotechnic articles if they have paid to attend.

A

False

Regulations apply regardless of whether attendees have paid.

80
Q

What is the purpose of a ‘Firework Control Zone’?

A

To regulate the use of fireworks on specified days unless otherwise designated

The offence applies on all days that the zone has effect unless specific days are mentioned.

81
Q

Under what conditions can a constable search a person according to Section 41?

A

If the constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a person has committed or is committing an offence

This includes searching without a warrant.

82
Q

What actions can a constable take when conducting a search under Section 41?

A

The constable may:
* Search the person without warrant
* Stop and search a vehicle
* Seize and retain any relevant item found in the course of the search

These actions are part of the powers granted to the police under this act.

83
Q

True or False: The offence related to a ‘Firework Control Zone’ applies only on the days specifically mentioned in the designation.

A

False

The offence applies on all days unless specific days are designated.

84
Q

Fill in the blank: A constable may stop and search a _______ if they suspect an offence is being committed.

A

[vehicle]

This action is part of the powers granted under Section 41.