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PSA Airlines Training > KV SYSTEMS PREP > Flashcards

KV SYSTEMS PREP Flashcards

1
Q

What powers the 2 EICAS screens?

A

Battery Bus

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2
Q

What do red, amber, green, and white EICAS color codes mean

A

red - warning
amber - caution
green - advisory
white - status

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3
Q

Are the 2 EICAS cooling fans powered by the battery bus?

A

No

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4
Q

Why is it important to provide APU/External power to the aircraft within 5 minutes of energizing battery?

A

To prevent EICAS screens from overheating (will have no cooling fans)

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5
Q

What gathers data for EICAS display?

A

2 DCUs (data concentrator units)

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6
Q

How many chimes for a caution and warning?

A

Caution = 1, Warning = 3

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7
Q

What other aural warnings can DCU generate?

A

Fire bell (fire), warbler (stall), clacker (overspeed), siren (windshear and terrain)

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8
Q

Which aural warnings will DCU audio warning inhibit switches not cancel?

A

Windshear, EGPWS, and TCAS

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9
Q

Which 4 ECP buttons are mechanical and not dependent on ECP microprocessors or ECP power?

A

PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP

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10
Q

When will oil pressure gauges be present on primary display in addition to the digital readout?

A

With engines shutdown or with low oil pressure

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11
Q

When will N1 vibration gauges replace oil gauges?

A

With engines running and normal oil pressure

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12
Q

How is N2 vibration monitored?

A

System monitors N2 vibration independently without display. If N2 vib exceeds a predetermined amount, VIB will be displayed inside the N2 gauge.

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13
Q

When will flap gauge disappear?

A

With wheel brake temps normal range, and gear/slats/and flaps retracted.

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14
Q

When will brake temp indicators disappear?

A

Temps in normal range and gear/slats/and flaps retracted.

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15
Q

When can you box caution messages and how?

A

Pressing CAS with both engines running. New messages will appear above boxed MSG icon.

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16
Q

When are certain caution messages inhibited on takeoff?

A

Thrust lever advancement to 400 feet

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17
Q

When are certain caution messages inhibited on landing?

A

400 agl to weight on wheels + 30 seconds, or when climbing above 400 feet (go around)

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18
Q

What will happen if ED1 fails?

A

Primary page will auto revert to ED2

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19
Q

If ED1 fails, and primary on ED2, how can synoptic pages be viewed?

A

Select EICAS on MFD reversionary panel and use the ECP (EICAS control panel) to cycle through synoptic pages

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20
Q

Name several conditions that must be satisfied for TAKEOFF CONFIG OK message

A

Parking brake off, flight spoilers stowed, flaps between 8-20, stabilizer trim inside green takeoff band, rudder trim inside takeoff range, aileron trim inside takeoff range, auto pilot off

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21
Q

(J*) If many messages received at once on EICAS, it no longer lists in order of importance. What order should you use?

A 
(EL HYPO)
EL = electric
HY = hydraulic
P = pneumatics
O =  other
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22
Q

When will the ED’s (1 or 2) auto transfer if you have a failure of one or the other?

A

Only auto transfer if you have failure of ED1 (ED1’s primary page would then go to ED2)

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23
Q

Give a brief description of the EICAS:

A
  • Consists of 2 displays (ED1 and 2)
  • 2 DCUs (data concentrator units) process data from aircraft sensors for display on EICAS
  • DCUs then pass data to LDU (lamp driver unit), which signals the operation of the switchlights located through the cockpit
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24
Q

Give a brief description of the powerplant:

A
  • 2 high bypass turbofan engines provide thrust

- each engine controlled by FADEC

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25
Q

What are variable geometry vanes?

A
  • Used in compressor section of engine to optimize engine airflow and protect against compressor stall.
  • VG movement is controlled by FADEC.
  • Inlet guide vane and the 1st 4 stages of the engine include the VG vanes.
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26
Q

About what percentage of airflow is bypassed in engine (provided by N1 fan)?

A

approx 80%

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27
Q

Describe the airflow of the engine vs. the APU

A

Engine = axial flow, APU = annular flow

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28
Q

Where is ITT measured?

A

2nd stage high pressure turbine

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29
Q

What is the job of the 2nd stage high pressure turbine?

A

To drive the compressor section

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30
Q

What drives the N1 fan?

A

4th stage low pressure turbine

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31
Q

What drives the accessory gear box?

A

N2 compressor, which is driven by the high pressure turbine.

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32
Q

What items are on the accessory gear box?

A

Hydraulic pump, fuel pump (3), oil pump, FADEC alternator, integrated drive generator (IDG), and air turbine starter

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33
Q

How does reverse thrust work?

A

Uses bypass air, 3rd section of engine cowling, vanes angled forward, and blocker doors block airflow.

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34
Q

What stage does bleed air get extracted from?

A

6th stage, unless 6th stage is insufficient - then uses 10th stage bleed air into manifold

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35
Q

What allows us to obtain proper fuel flow automatically?

A

FADEC commands the fuel metering unit for target fuel flow

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36
Q

What is the function of the operability valve?

A
  • Located at 10th stage valve, works in conjunction with VG vanes
  • If too high a pressure is created, it acts as a block
  • This helps prevent compressor stalls by dumping bleed air pressure off of the section
  • All done automatically
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37
Q

Can engines run with out FADEC?

A

No

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38
Q

Does the APU or crossfeed start have to go through PRSOV?

A

No

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39
Q

What is the function of the fuel/oil heat exchanger?

A

Use engine oil to heat engine fuel and uses cold fuel to cool fuel

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40
Q

(*J) Can you use APU bleed air for anti-icing?

A

No

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41
Q

What are 2 things that occur during flameout protection?

A

FADEC will auto detect and initiate a relight and N2 would spool unless something stopped it.

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42
Q

What is continuous ignition?

A

When ignition A and B are both energized. The only time all 4 come on at once is with manual selection.

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43
Q

(*J) What are the conditions to keep N1 synced?

A

Must be within 1.5% and within 2.5% for N2 sync

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44
Q

What 3 interconnected fuel pumps are within the accessory gear box?

A

Low pressure, high pressure, and motive flow pump

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45
Q

What are the rated thrust outputs of the engines?

A

700 and 900 have same engine, but 700 is downrated to 12,670lbs T/O thrust and 13,790lbs APU thrust

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46
Q

What powers the VG vanes?

A

Fuel pressure directed by FADEC

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47
Q

What powers the operability valve?

A

Fuel pressure directed by FADEC

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48
Q

How many channels does FADEC have and when do the channels change?

A

2 channels (A and B). Change when N2 rpm falls below 7% on every OTHER engine shut down.

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49
Q

How many FADEC channels are used at once?

A

1 channel commands the engine while the other channel monitors the controlling channel and is in standby in the event the commanding channel fails

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50
Q

Is there ever a time when both FADEC channels will command the engine simultaneously?

A

In engine overspeed situation both FADEC channels will command the fuel valves to close to bring speed into the normal range

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51
Q

Can the left FADEC control the right engine?

A

No

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52
Q

Do the R and L engine’s FADECs cross talk with each other?

A

Yes, they compare engine speed and thrust reverser position info

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53
Q

When an engine fails, what will the operating engine’s FADEC automatically command?

A

APR in TOGA detent, MCT in CLIMB detent, and a proportionate increase throughout the cruise range

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54
Q

What powers the FADEC?

A

Aircraft electrical power with an N2 of less than 50% and the FADEC alternator with and N2 greater than 50%

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55
Q

What is FLEX thrust?

A

A reduced power setting for takeoff calculated using an assumed temp

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56
Q

Which stages of the engine is bleed air extracted from?

A

6 and 10 but not both at the same time

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57
Q

What powers the igniters?

A

Igniter A is powered by AC Essential Bus. Igniter B is powered by aircraft’s battery and an inverter

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58
Q

When will continuous ignition fire automatically?

A

FADEC senses a flameout, approaching a stickshaker during stall, and disruption of airflow is detected through the engine

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59
Q

How are thrust reversers actuated?

A

Hydraulically

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60
Q

(J*) What is the primary purpose of the APU

A

To provide electrical power

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61
Q

How many kva from APU?

A

40

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62
Q

What can APU bleed air be used for?

A

Starting and air conditioning

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63
Q

What tank does APU pull fuel from?

A

Left collector tank

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64
Q

Will APU shut down on ground due to HOTLOP?

A

Yes

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65
Q

What is the reason behind the APU door open in flight/unknown position speed limitation?

A

Prevents APU from windmilling and to ensure rpm remains low enough to start the APU if necessary

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66
Q

If APU fuel pump fails, will APU continue to operate?

A

Yes, but it cannot be restarted without the pump.

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67
Q

What is the purpose of the LCV (load control valve)?

A

Varies pneumatic load from APU to ensure electrical power and 45 psi in the manifold

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68
Q

Min battery voltage for APU start?

A

22 volts

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69
Q

What powers the APU door?

A

APU battery provides power to the door and is secondary for the ECU. Main battery is primary power source for ECU

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70
Q

If APU is left unattended, can ground crew shut it down?

A

Yes, through APU shut off switch on forward nose, or in APU compartment

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71
Q

In the bleed air system, all valves are electrically controlled and pneumatically operated except for ?

A

ISOL valve and wing anti ice valve (both electric)

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72
Q

Which anti ice SOVs fail open?

A

Cowl anti ice SOVs

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73
Q

Which anti ice valves fail in the position they were in?

A

ISOL valve and wing anti ice (bc electric)

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74
Q

What controls the amount of bleed air from the APU and fails safe closed?

A

LCV (Load Control Valve)

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75
Q

(J) For low pressure AC on the ground, what 2 doors must be open?*

A

Avionics bay door and Front Pax Door

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76
Q

What happens when cabin alt reaches 8500 ft?

A

Amber message (caution)

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77
Q

What happens when cabin alt reaches 10,000 ft?

A

Red message (warning)

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78
Q

If the seatbelt sign is in auto, at what cabin alt will CPAM automatically turn on seat belt sign?

A

10k

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79
Q

What happens when cabin alt reaches 14,000 ft?

A

Mask drop

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80
Q

Brief description of pressurization schedule:

A
  • This is a region of flight abort capability
  • When advance throttle for TO, cabin alt drops to -150 below field ele
  • Climb mode = cabin climbs at 350 fpm
  • If in the first 10 mins of flight, you don’t reach 10k feet, it will auto reach field elevation pressure for cabin
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81
Q

Above what altitude can we not use the EMER DEPRES button?

A

Greater than 15k

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82
Q

When bleed air comes from engine, what psi is pressure reg function?

A

45 +/- 3

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83
Q

Left pack and right pack primary?

A

Left = cockpit, right = cabin

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84
Q

Why is it considered standard practice to use the rotary dial for temperature changes?

A

With the rotary dial, we have overheat protection. (Only use manual mode if qrh directed as this can overheat pack)

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85
Q

When would amber fault light illuminate on pack?

A

Over temp or over pressure

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86
Q

Which cargo has temp control?

A

Aft

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87
Q

When we use cargo fan, we also arm what?

A

A heater

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88
Q

How many outflow valves do we have? (pressurization)

A

1 with 3 DC motors

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89
Q

How do you know if you are using pressure control?

A

Says on ECS page

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90
Q

What does switching the DC Service switch to ON do?

A

ON: Connects the DC Service Bus to the APU BATT DIR BUS

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91
Q

What does switching the BATTERY MASTER switch to ON do?

A

ON: Connects the APU and MAIN BATT DIR BUS to the Battery Bus.

(Remember the 5-minute limitation on the EFIS for no AC Fans being powered)

-22V minimum on both buses when powered on

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92
Q

When the AC External Power Switch is in AVAIL what does this mean?

A

AVAIL: When external power is connected and is ready to use.

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93
Q

When does a FAULT light (amber) illuminate on the IDG 1 or 2 DISC Switchlight?

A

Whenever there’s a low oil pressure or high oil temperature.

IDG will automatically disconnect when an over-temp or over-torque condition occurs. IDG cannot be reconnected in-flight needs to be done by maintenance.

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94
Q

What does pressing the AC ESS XFER button do?

A

Pressing switches the essential bus feed from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2. The transfer is automatic during an AC Bus 1 failure.

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95
Q

When you select the generator to AUTO what happens?

A

AUTO- Connects the generator to the associated bus.

“System Logic” “Bus Priority”

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96
Q

What is the AUTO XFER Switch used for?

A

OFF: Indicates auto-transfer is selected off

FAIL light (amber): Indicates a fault preventing auto-transfer

Used to isolate a bad generator.

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97
Q

When doing a fire test (TEST SWITCH) what’re you checking?

A

Testing the FIREX System.

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98
Q

What does selecting the HYD SOV do?

A

Closes the hydraulic shutoff valve. Can aid in a hydraulic leak.

QRC/QRH Driven

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99
Q

What does turning on the NAV lights do?

A

Illuminate the red, green, and white position lights.

NAV light remains ON at all times

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100
Q

What does turning on the Beacon lights do?

A

Illuminated red beacon lights on the upper and lower fuselage.

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101
Q

What does pressing in the BOOST PUMP switch light do?

A
  1. Engine Start boost pump is activated
  2. Pump is armed and will operate automatically when low fuel pressure is detected in any engine feed line.

Switchlight illuminates ON when the pump is operating.

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102
Q

When will cabin control pressure 1 automatically switch to CPC2?

A

3 mins after landing

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103
Q

If you had a fault in cabin control pressure 1, how do you manually switch to CPC2?

A

Pushing pressure control button x2

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104
Q

What is CPAM?

A

Cabin pressure acquisition module (aka microprocessor)

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105
Q

CPAM sends a message to what to alert of cabin pressure abnormalities (8500, 10k, 14k)?

A

DCU

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106
Q

What 2 safety valves does the pressurization system contain?

A
  1. over pressurization safety valve - opens at 8.7psi

2. negative pressure relief valve - opens at -.5

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107
Q

How does air from packs get into passenger compartment?

A

Conditioned air from both packs is sent to mixing manifold under after cargo floor, then routed to flight deck and pax compartment.

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108
Q

Ram air functions:

A
  • Helps cool packs by passing through the pack heat exchangers then exiting overboard
  • If both packs fail, can be used as sole source of ventilation
  • Hydraulic sys 1 and 2 are cooled by ram air
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109
Q

Describe the flow of air through the pack components:

A

(“Please Hand Charlie His Red Coat With Tails”)

Precooler, Heat exchanger, Compressor, Heat exchanger (secondary), Reheater, Condenser, Water extractor, Turbine

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110
Q

How is bleed air from both engines kept separate?

A

Isolation valve

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111
Q

Can left engine provide bleed air to right pack?

A

Yes, by selecting ISOL switch to OPEN, and BLEED SOURCE rotary selector to L ENG, and then placing BLEED VALVES rotary selector in MANUAL

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112
Q

Can the aircraft be flown with 1 pack inop?

A

Yes, but limited to 31k feet

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113
Q

What is max differential pressure during taxi?

A

.1

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114
Q

When does bleed air switch from APU to engines?

A

After TO, when thrust levers are pulled out of TOGA detent, with gear up, and flaps 20 or less.

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115
Q

When does bleed air switch from engines to APU on approach?

A

With gear OR flaps extended to 20 or greater, with thrust out of TOGA.

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116
Q

What manages bleed air distribution and the air conditioning system?

A

2 ACSCs (air conditioning system controllers)

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117
Q

What is the water extracted from the pack used for?

A

It is sprayed across the pack heat exchangers in the ram air duct for cooling

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118
Q

How many recirculation fans are there?

A

2 fans, 1 switch

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119
Q

Describe the journey of air from outside aircraft, through, and back out:

A
  • Air first enters the engine
  • Then ducted to the packs as hot bleed air
  • From packs, it enters the cabin as conditioned air
  • From cabin, it exits outside through the outflow valve
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120
Q

What is the function of PRSOVs? (pressure regulating shut off valves)

A

Modulate as commanded by ACSCs to maintain approx 45 psi +/-3 in the bleed air manifolds

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121
Q

Describe the flow of air through the pack components:

A

(“Please Hand Charlie His Red Coat With Tails”)

Precooler, Heat exchanger, Compressor, Heat exchanger (secondary), Reheater, Condenser, Water extractor, Turbine

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122
Q

What happens when the fuel pump is pressed out?

A

The boost pump is disarmed.

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123
Q

Which engine bleed air stage does hot anti ice come from?

A

10th stage

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124
Q

How do the ice detectors detect ice formation?

A

They vibrate constantly, will detect ice because when it forms it will slow the vibrate. Will heat 5 seconds on, 55 seconds off to regain vibrate and ice detecting ability

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125
Q

What action should we take if we receive amber ICE message?

A

Turn on all anti ice. ICE message will turn to green once all anti ice on

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126
Q

Speed limit for wing anti ice

A

230

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127
Q

When looking on EICAS synoptic page and the N2 setting is white and aircraft wings are white, what does that mean?

A

Need higher N2 to turn green

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128
Q

When do we turn windshield heat to high?

A

Only when ice formation seen on windshield. (High turns shields high and side windows low)

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129
Q

ISOL Switch does what?

A

OPEN- Opens the valve to allow crossbleed

CLSD- Isolates both systems

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130
Q

Which probe is the only one not heated on ground?

A

TAT

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131
Q

Which probes are heated when probes ON on the ground?

A

Pitot heat in full, S3, and AOA

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132
Q

The wings and engine cowls are heated by __ bleed air

A

Engine

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133
Q

External probes and the cockpit windshield are heated ___

A

Electrically

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134
Q

How is wing anti ice system controlled?

A

Wing anti ice is manually activated then automatically controlled by the dual channel anti ice leak detection controller (AILC)

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135
Q

How are the anti ice bleed air ducts designed to protect from leaks?

A
  • Ducts are double walled with bleed air passing through inner portion of duct
  • If there is a leak in inner wall, bleed air will escape to the outer duct, and the AILC will detect the leak
  • The double walled ducts are only for cowl anti ice. They wing anti ice ducts utilize the double loop detection system
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136
Q

Are vertical and horizontal stabilizers provided with anti ice protection?

A

No, anti ice is not required for these surfaces bc tests have proven no significant ice can from there

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137
Q

Which engine bleed air stage does hot anti ice come from?

A

10th stage

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138
Q

What happens when you OPEN the GRAVITY XFLOW switch light?

A

The gravity SOV opens, when pressed out the gravity SOV closes.

FAIL- Occurs when the SOV is not in the commanded position.

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139
Q

How can external power be used by ground crew when cockpit door is locked?

A

Press AC PUSH switch light on external service panel

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140
Q

What does pressing in the XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE?

A

Pressed in: Crossflow/APU pump is armed for manual crossflow.

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141
Q

When selecting the WING A/I CROSS BLEED Selector?

A

FROM LEFT: The wing cross bleed valve is open and the right-wing anti-ice valve is closed. FROM RIGHT is the same besides the left-wing anti-ice valve is closed.

NORMAL: The wing cross bleed valve is closed.

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142
Q

What does the BLEED VALVES Selector do?

A

CLSD: Closes all bleed sources and must be used when using an external ground source to prevent damage to the engines or APU.

AUTO: Controller manages system requirements

MANUAL: Allows manual configuration of the system.

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143
Q

ISOL Switch does what?

A

OPEN- Opens the valve to allow crossbleed

CLSD- Isolates both systems

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144
Q

PWR FUEL Switchlight gets pushed in what should display?

A

DIGS

APU DOOR OPEN
APU IN BITE
GAUGES DISPLAY
SHUT-OFF VALVE OPENS

(APU Fuel Pump is energized, the APU fuel feed shut-off valve opens.)

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145
Q

What items are on utility bus?

A

Passenger service units - mainly reading lights

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146
Q

CONT ignition switch light will automatically illuminate when what conditions are met:

A

Activates when a stall is detected, regardless of the switch position.

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147
Q

Are the wings protected from getting too hot?

A

Yes, the anti ice leak controller (AILC) monitors wing temp, and regulates the anti ice valves to maintain the appropriate temp

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148
Q

Can 1 bleed provide air to both wings?

A

Yes, by opening WING A/I CROSS BLEED selector to the desired state

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149
Q

What do probe switches do in flight?

A

Nothing, in flight all probes are fully powered regardless of switch position

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150
Q

Hydraulic Pump 2B POSITIONS (AC Motor Pump 2B Switch):

A

ON- Pump will operate at 3000 +/- 200psi output

OFF- Pump is not operating

AUTO- Pump will operate in AUTO position when the flap setting is greater than 0-degrees and the AC Bus 1 powered.

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151
Q

What are the 2 subcomponents of IDG

A

Constant speed drive and generator

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152
Q

How is normal power restored after an ADG deployment if a generator returns?

A

By stowing the ADG handle and pressing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button

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153
Q

Can hydraulic pump 3B be deselected after an ADG deployment?

A

No, it is hardwired to the ADG bus for continuous operation

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154
Q

What does the amber light on IDG switches mean?

A

HOT LOP

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155
Q

Are you able to reconnect an IDG once disconnected in flight?

A

No

156
Q

What are the reasons for an auto shear?

A

Over torque and over temp

157
Q

AC Bus 1 bus priority:

A

Gen 1, APU, Gen 2, ADG (onside, inside, far side, outside)

158
Q

AC System Volts?

A

115VAC

159
Q

TRU amps and volts?

A

120 amps, 28 volts

160
Q

What occurs when you lose AC BUS 1?

A

Knocks out TRU 1 = main tie closes and utility bus is lost (pax reading lights)

161
Q

Tell about APU battery

A

24 volt, 43 amp, in aft equipment bay

162
Q

Hydraulic PUMP 1 POSITIONS (AC Motor Pump 1B):

A

ON- Pump will operate at 3000 +/- 200psi output

OFF- Pump is not operating.

AUTO- Pump will operate in AUTO position when the flap setting is greater than 0-degrees and the AC Bus 2 is powered.

163
Q

How many gallons does the collector tank hold?

A

55 gal

164
Q

Hydraulic Pump 2B POSITIONS (AC Motor Pump 2B Switch):

A

ON- Pump will operate at 3000 +/- 200psi output

OFF- Pump is not operating

AUTO- Pump will operate in AUTO position when the flap setting is greater than 0-degrees and the AC Bus 1 powered.

165
Q

MAN ALT Switch (Manual Cabin Altitude (CABIN ALT) Switch:

A

Controls the position of the outflow valve while the pressurization system is in manual mode. The switch position is spring-loaded to the middle/center.

UP- Outflow valve open (Increases cabin altitude at the selected rate)

DN- Outflow valve closed (Decreases cabin altitude at the selected rate)

HOLD- Stops movement of outflow valve (maintains current cabin altitude).

166
Q

What might the DC Service switch be used for?

A

External aircraft lights while repositioning plane without battery master on

167
Q

PRESS CONT (Pressurization Control) Switchlight:

A

Pressed in:

  • Manual mode is selected
  • Removes electrical supply from both outflow valves and locks them in their existing position
  • Activates manual (pneumatic) operation

Pressed out:
-Auto mode is selected

Pressed twice:
-Redundant controller gains control

FAULT Light (Amber):
-Illuminates when the system detects the failure of both cabin pressure controllers
168
Q

MAN RATE (Manual Rate Control):

A

Pneumatically adjusts outflow valve rate during the manual mode.

169
Q

L/R PACK Switchlight:

A

When pressed in: Pack pressure regulating/shut-off valve opens, allowing air to flow into the pack.

FAULT Light (Amber): Pack has failed

170
Q

When is DC utility bus shed?

A

When main tie or cross tie closes

171
Q

What items are on utility bus?

A

Passenger service units - mainly reading lights

172
Q

What does the EMER DEPRESS Switch do?

A

Depressurizes the airplane during an emergency.

Pressed in-

  1. Outflow valve moves to fully open
  2. At cruise, cabin altitude will ascend to 14,500 (+/- 500) feet.
  3. ON light (amber) will illuminate
  4. EICAS EMER DEPRESS caution message displays

Pressed out-

  1. Outflow valve reverts to automatic operation
  2. ON light (amber) extinguishes.
173
Q

PRESS CONT (Pressurization Control) Switchlight:

A

Pressed in:

  • Manual mode is selected
  • Removes electrical supply from both outflow valves and locks them in their existing position-

Pressed out:

Pressed twice:

FAULT Light (Amber):

174
Q

MAN RATE (Manual Rate Control):

A

Pneumatically adjusts outflow valve rate during the manual mode.

175
Q

How are DC bus ties controlled?

A

DC bus tie control is automatically accomplished through the 2 DC power centers (DCPCs)

176
Q

If APU boost pump fails, will it continue to operate?

A

Yes, but will not start unless pump is operating

177
Q

What items are powered by the ADG?

A

Hydraulic pump 3B, Essential AC bus, flaps and slats at 1/2 speed, ADG bus, stab trim channel 2

178
Q

How much power does ADG produce?

A

115 volts, 15 kva

179
Q

What is min airspeed for ADG operation?

A

135kias

180
Q

Why must ADG handle be pulled even after an auto deployment?

A
  • As aircraft slows below 135 kias on approach, the ADG will no longer be able to generate sufficient power for operation
  • The DC ESS bus will continue to be powered through the batteries, but after landing with WonW, internal logic will cause the loss of power to the DC ESS bus if the handle is not pulled
181
Q

How is normal power restored after an ADG deployment if a generator returns?

A

By stowing the ADG handle and pressing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button

182
Q

L/R PACK Switchlight:

A

When pressed in: Pack pressure regulating/shut-off valve opens, allowing air to flow into the pack.

FAULT Light (Amber): Pack has failed

183
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel check valve test?

A

To verify that the 1 way check valve is operating correctly and motive flow fuel is not pressurizing the opposite engine.

184
Q

What items are powered by DC emergency bus?

A

Engine fire extinguishers, APU fire extinguisher, fuel SOVs, and hydraulic SOVs

185
Q

Aside from scavenge ejectors, how does fuel enter the collector tanks?

A

1 way flapper valves allow fuel to move by gravity into collector tank

186
Q

When is DC emergency bus displayed on the DC synoptic page?

A

When power is lost from 1 or both its power sources (APU batt dir bus and DC batt bus)

187
Q

When operating only off the batteries in an emergency power situation, how many minutes of battery life does each APU start attempt cost?

A

6 mins

188
Q

Where is the main battery located?

A

Forward nose compartment

189
Q

Where is APU battery located?

A

Aft equipment bay

190
Q

How do transfer ejectors (located in center tank) operate?

A

Motive flow - they have no power source

191
Q

What psi does the pressure relief valve open (hydraulics)?

A

Opens at 3600psi and resets at 3200psi

192
Q

Ejector fuel has to go through what to get to the wings?

A

Scavenger (2 per tank)

193
Q

How many gallons does the collector tank hold?

A

55 gal

194
Q

How do you close the fuel SOV?

A

Engine shut off and fire push switch

195
Q

Min temp for fuel into engine

A

5*c

196
Q

How is the fuel heated?

A

By engine oil in the fuel/oil heat exchanger

197
Q

What occurs when the fuel filter becomes clogged?

A

Fuel will bypass

198
Q

What is the bulk fuel temp limit?

A

30*c

199
Q

What is the only way to close the fuel SOV

A

Engine fire push

200
Q

When do we use the gravity flow line?

A

When auto xfer fails

201
Q

Can you refuel the center tank with pressure refueling or gravity refueling?

A

Pressure only

202
Q

What is min fuel for go around

A

600lbs per side with 10* pitch up

203
Q

Aside from digital readouts, is there any other way to determine fuel quantity?

A

Yes, 5 magnetic level indicators (MLIs) that can manually be checked on the exterior of the aircraft - 2 under each wing and 1 under the fuselage

204
Q

Where is the bulk fuel temp sensor?

A

Right wing tank

205
Q

If ADG is providing power to hyd pump 3B, can it be manually turned off?

A

No, switch will not work

206
Q

Where does APU get fuel from?

A

Dedicated boost pump in left collector tank

207
Q

If APU boost pump fails, will it continue to operate?

A

Yes, but will not start unless pump is operating

208
Q

Will the main engines start without their respective boost pumps running?

A

Yes

209
Q

After starting both engines, what do the fuel switchlights look like?

A

Lights extinguish bc the pumps enter the standby mode. Motive flow supplies the fuel to the engines.

210
Q

At what fuel quantity does the digital fuel readout turn amber?

A

Less than 1200lbs total or less than 600lbs in a wing

211
Q

What is bulk fuel freezing temp for Jet A?

A

-40*c

212
Q

What is min bulk fuel temp for Jet A for takeoff?

A

-30*c

213
Q

What is max fuel imbalance while over wing refueling?

A

2500lbs

214
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel check valve test?

A

To verify that the 1 way check valve is operating correctly and motive flow fuel is not pressurizing the opposite engine.

215
Q

Describe path of fuel from center tanks to engines

A
  • Transfer ejector from center tank to main tanks
  • Scavenge ejector from main tanks to collector tank
  • Main ejector from collector tank to engine
216
Q

Aside from scavenge ejectors, how does fuel enter the collector tanks?

A

1 way flapper valves allow fuel to move by gravity into collector tank

217
Q

What ensures nose wheel is centered prior to retraction into well?

A

ECU sends signal to center after TO, and then a centering cam keeps it centered when hyd pressure is removed

218
Q

Where is hydraulic 3 located?

A

Belly aft of main wheels (hydraulic compartment)

219
Q

What type and color hydraulic fluid do we use?

A

Skydral (sp?) and purple

220
Q

Hydraulic __ pumps are engine driven

A

A

221
Q

Hydraulic __ pumps are back up pumps

A

B

222
Q

What psi does the pressure relief valve open (hydraulics)?

A

Opens at 3600psi and resets at 3200psi

223
Q

What is the purpose of the system accumulator (hydraulics)?

A

Absorbs bumps. 1500psi

224
Q

On ground, the loss of engine and APU generators disables the auto function of the hydraulic system __ and __

A

System 1 and 2 B pumps

225
Q

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?

A

Provides a back up for brakes, approx 6 pumps (anti skid off)

226
Q

Why does hydraulic system 3A only have on/off switch and no auto?

A

3A runs continuously

227
Q

What is the approx fuel burn?

A

About 4000lbs 1st hour and 3000lbs each hr after

228
Q

What is the purpose of MFS?

A
  • Aids in dumping of lift
  • Roll assist
  • Ground spoilers (GLD)
229
Q

How does motive flow work?

A

Created when high pressure fuel is passed through venturi shaped nozzle of ejector

230
Q

What is the only way to close the fuel SOV

A

Engine fire push

231
Q

If there is an engine driven pump problem, hyd 1A or 2A, is the associated engine required to be shutdown?

A

No, a SOV has been positioned between the pump and reservoir to isolate pump from system

232
Q

What is indicated when a hyd system is displayed in amber on synoptic pg

A

System is pressurized less than 1800psi

233
Q

How many total hydraulic pumps?

A 
6: 
4 electric (1B, 2B, 3A, 3B) and 2 engine driven pumps (1A and 2A)
234
Q

Which pumps are not controlled by hyd control panel?

A

1A and 2A bc engine driven

235
Q

What powers hyd pump 3B

A

AC bus 1 and it is hard wired to ADG to be powered when ADG is deployed

236
Q

If ADG is providing power to hyd pump 3B, can it be manually turned off?

A

No, switch will not work

237
Q

What effect will loss of hyd system 2 and 3 have on landing gear?

A

Manual gear ext will be required and nose gear will not extend

238
Q

What is the main sensor for stall protection?

A

AOA computer

239
Q

Which hyd system provides power to outboard brakes?

A

2

240
Q

Which hyd system provides power to nose wheel steering?

A

3

241
Q

Landing gear is __ operated and __ controlled

A

Hydraulically operated (sys 3) and electronically controlled

242
Q

Max turn radius for nose wheel

A

80*

243
Q

What monitors the position sensors and is in charge of sequencing landing gear ext and retraction?

A

PSEU (proximity sensing electronic unit)

244
Q

What holds MLG in ext position?

A

Mechanical over centering with down locks

245
Q

What holds nose gear in retracted position?

A

Spring loaded, over center type locking mechanism

246
Q

What holds MLG in retracted position?

A

Mechanical up locks and hyd system 3 pressure

247
Q

Where do yaw dampers receive data from?

A

YD1 = FCC1, YD2 = FCC2

248
Q

What do yaw dampers do?

A

Improve lateral stability and prevent dutch roll

249
Q

Why is it important to not move tiller in flight w gear extended?

A

Steering will be inop

250
Q

What is locked wheel protection?

A
  • ASCU (anti skid control unit) monitors each wheel to ensure even rotation.
  • If 1 wheel enters skid, ASCU will release brake pressure to that wheel to balance speeds
251
Q

What is touchdown protection?

A

Guards from landing w brakes applied

252
Q

What colors do BTMS (brake temp monitoring system) display?

A

Green - normal 0-6
White - caution 7-14
Red - overeat 15
(each digit is 35*c)

253
Q

Can braking be accomplished through use of accumulator pressure?

A

Yes, 6 applications w anti skid off

254
Q

How are tires protected from blowout?

A

Through use of 4 thermal fuse plugs in each wheel. Will melt and deflate tire before able to blowout.

255
Q

Can brake wear indicators be checked without brakes applied?

A

No, hyd sys 2 and 3 must be activated and brakes applied

256
Q

(J*) Flight controls that end with “oiler” means they are

A

Fly by wire

257
Q

What is the emer flap switch a back up for?

A

The actual flap handle being inop

258
Q

How are the MFS (multifunction spoilers) wired?

A

Crosswired

259
Q

What is the purpose of MFS?

A
  • Aids in dumping of lift
  • Roll assist
  • Ground spoilers (GLD)
260
Q

What are artificial feel units?

A
  • Helps provide pilot w sense of force on ailerons

- The faster you are flying, more difficult to move ctrl wheel

261
Q

Where is the autopilot servo located?

A

FO side

262
Q

What are the 3 equipment systems that detect fire?

A

Engine, APU, MLG

263
Q

If ailerons are not neutral when power advanced for TO, what message will we get

A

Master warning “config ailerons”

264
Q

The elevator has how many PCUs per side?

A

3

  • If hyd fails, acts as redundancy
  • Also acts as gust locks
  • Load limiters are installed between the torque tubes and elevator PCUs
265
Q

Yaw dampers are completely __

A

Electric

266
Q

Spost 2 test occurs every 50th flight and checks what

A
  • Stab trim, PCUs, rudder travel limiter

- Takes about 75 seconds

267
Q

Functions of MFS

A
  • Roll assist
  • Flight spoilers
  • GLD
268
Q

When will ground spoilers auto deploy

A
  • L/R thrust levers idle

- Will stay deployed for 40 secs, unless thrust lever moved above idle (go around)

269
Q

What is the main sensor for stall protection?

A

AOA computer

270
Q

What is order of stall function?

A
  • Cont ignition
  • Stick shaker
  • Auto pilot disengage
  • Stall switchlight
  • Warbler
  • Stick pusher activates
271
Q

(J*) Why must PSA remain w/in 60 mins of a suitable airport?

A

Due to 60 min fire suppression in cargo

272
Q

What does the MEL allow us to do?

A

Fly with things broken

273
Q

What does CDL allow us to do?

A

Fly with things missing

274
Q

Which hydraulic systems power flight controls?

A

All 3

275
Q

How does lav fire extinguisher work?

A

In trash, sealed w heat sensitive plug. Plug will melt if fire and release halon into trash.

276
Q

Which control column is autopilot pitch servo connected to?

A

Captain

277
Q

What indications will be present with PCU runaway?

A

1 of the 2 green roll select lights will be illuminated

278
Q

Where do yaw dampers receive data from?

A

YD1 = FCC1, YD2 = FCC2

279
Q

What do yaw dampers do?

A

Improve lateral stability and prevent dutch roll

280
Q

When ROLL DISC handle is pulled, what ROLL control surfaces will each yoke have?

A

L yoke, L aileron; R yoke, R aileron. Each yoke controls the opposite side’s mfs.

281
Q

How many PCUs power the rudder

A

3

282
Q

Other than ED2, where can oxygen bottle pressures be read?

A

Outside aircraft on oxygen service panel

283
Q

How many stab trim motors active at once?

A

1 motor drives jackscrew at a time. Other motor free wheels with operative motor and assumes control if operating motor fails.

284
Q

Will autopilot disengage if manual control yoke trim used?

A

Yes

285
Q

What are 4 different trims in order of priority?

A

(“MAAM”)

  • Manual trim (from either yoke but captain’s has priority)
  • Autopilot trim
  • Auto trim (flap compensation trim)
  • Mach trim
286
Q

Will alternate flap extension switch move slats and flaps when flying above 230kias?

A

No

287
Q

Will alternate flap extension switch override position of flap handle?

A

Yes

288
Q

If ground spoilers fail to deploy after touch down, what action taken?

A

Move GND LIFT DUMPING switch to MAN ARM

289
Q

What protects ailerons from flutter in event of loss of pressure to PCUs?

A

Flutter dampers

290
Q

What protects flight controls in event of PCU runaway?

A

Bungee breakouts

291
Q

What are slats and flaps powered by?

A

2 electric motors, each controlled by 2 slat/flap electronic control units (SFECUs)

292
Q

Will a yaw damper failure cause autopilot to disconnect?

A

Yes

293
Q

What are the 3 equipment systems that detect fire?

A

Engine, APU, MLG

294
Q

What fire protection does the lav have?

A

Detection - smoke detector

Protection - extinguisher in trash can

295
Q

What electrical bus controls fire PROTECTION

A

DC emer bus

296
Q

The _ and _ are separate from the FIDEX system

A

Lav smoke detector (bc FAs can test) and MLG bay (bc has its own switch)

297
Q

What is the only system that does not have dual fire detection?

A

MLG

298
Q

What is the purpose of dual loop fire detection?

A
  • Redundancy
  • False warnings minimized
  • If 1 loop fails, it ops and monitors only on 2nd loop (deferrable - dispatch is possible w faulted loop)
299
Q

What will happen if APU fire on ground?

A

APU auto shutdown and bottles auto discharge

300
Q

What will happen if APU fire in air?

A

APU auto shutdown and crew must discharge bottles

301
Q

Which test is performed independently of the fire test?

A

MLG fire/overheat

302
Q

(J*) Why must PSA remain w/in 60 mins of a suitable airport?

A

Due to 60 min fire suppression in cargo

303
Q

How many fire detectors in fwd and aft cargo?

A

Fwd = 3, aft = 2

304
Q

Aft cargo smoke indication does what automatically?

A

Shuts down fan and aux heater

305
Q

How does fire loops work?

A
  • Inner wire surrounded by heat sensitive insulator
  • Wrapped in steel outer conductor
  • Loops heated - insulation melts and allows electrical current to pass from inner to outer
  • Both ends of loop monitored by FIDEX
  • Connection made - flight deck warning is presented
306
Q

How does lav fire extinguisher work?

A

In trash, sealed w heat sensitive plug. Plug will melt if fire and release halon into trash.

307
Q

If you extinguish a fire with cargo bottle in forward cargo, what can be done for fire in aft?

A

Nothing, land asap

308
Q

Why are there 2 cargo fire bottles?

A

1 extinguishes, other released slowly over 60 mins to suppress fire until landing

309
Q

Which busses are hot (always powered by battery)?

A

APU batt bus, main batt bus, and DC emer bus

310
Q

What will happen if DC service switch is left on?

A

Will discharge APU battery

311
Q

Which battery can be deferred if inop?

A

Can defer and remove main battery, cannot defer APU battery

312
Q

IDGs have their own __ system

A

Oil

313
Q

Other than ED2, where can oxygen bottle pressures be read?

A

Outside aircraft on oxygen service panel

314
Q

What system controls pax mask auto deploy?

A

CPAM (cabin pressure acquisition module)

315
Q

How many mins of oxy are provided by pax oxy generators?

A

13 mins

316
Q

How many walk around oxygen bottles do we have?

A

2 - one in fwd cabin and one if aft cabin overhead bin

317
Q

What protects oxy system from pressure and temp extremes?

A

Oxygen blowout disc on left nose of aircraft. Will rupture if pressure within system rises above 2500 psi

318
Q

Climb mode generates at least how many fpm climb?

A

50

319
Q

If autopilot and flight directors are off, which FMAs will be active if autopilot is engaged?

A

Pitch and roll

320
Q

In vertical speed mode, is there structural speed protection?

A

Yes

321
Q

What do TOGA buttons do on thrust lever for normal TO?

A
  • Commands TOTO mode as active vertical and lateral
  • Disengages autopilot
  • Moves flight directors to optimized pitch
  • Updates rwy position in FMS
322
Q

What do TOGA buttons do on thrust lever during go around?

A
  • GAGA mode active
  • Disengages autopilot
  • Moves flight directors up to 10* pitch
  • Inhibits 1/2 bank switch
  • Holds present heading within 5* bank limit
  • Sequences FMS missed app waypoints to active flight plan
323
Q

Will a yaw damper failure cause autopilot to disconnect?

A

Yes

324
Q

Alignment takes __ in MAG, and __ in DG mode (on ground)

A

70 seconds in MAG and 10 mins in DG mode

325
Q

Can you realign in flight?

A

Yes, takes 10-35 seconds

326
Q

To get traffic to display, you must have _ or less set

A

40nm

327
Q

What info does the trend vector tell us on speed tape?

A

Where you will be 10 seconds from now if conditions remain the same

328
Q

What is ISI and where does it receive its power and information from?

A

Integrated Standby Instrument - receives power from DC battery bus and receives info from Nav1

329
Q

If aircraft exceeds +30/-20* of pitch or 65* of bank, what will PFD automatically do?

A

Declutter and provide sky pointer

330
Q

What does DCP2 message on captain’s flight display mean?

A

FO’s display control panel is controlling flight instruments

331
Q

What powers each AHRS if its respective power source is lost?

A

Battery power for up to 11 mins

332
Q

Which pitot tube provides info to ISI?

A

P3

333
Q

During a RA, what happens to the MFD range automatically?

A

Reduces to 2.5 miles

334
Q

What does selecting the RECIRC FAN to ON do?

A

ON: Both fans are turned on

335
Q

What happens when you push the RAM AIR switch in?

A

Pressed IN:

RAM AIR vent valve opens to provide air for the cockpit supply.

336
Q

HOT COLD toggle switch:

A

Used in manual mode to control the temperature control valve. The switch is spring-loaded into the center position.

Don’t activate and hold the switch for extended periods of time, as excessive temperatures will occur.

337
Q

CKPT MAN and CABIN MAN Switchlight

A

Two individual switches which allow manual control of each are either CKPT or CABIN.

338
Q

CKPT/CABIN Automatic Mode Temperature Control:

A

Provides temperature control for the cockpit when in AUTO mode for temperature control.

339
Q

AFT Cargo Ventilation Switch:

A

OFF: Both shut-off valves are closed and the system is disabled

AIR: Both shut-off valves open to allow recirculated air into the aft cargo compartment to maintain the compartment temperature above freezing.

COND AIR: Both shut-off valves open, the heater is enabled, and the recirculation fan is powered to blow heated air into the cargo compartment.

340
Q

WING A/I Switch:

A

ON: A/I Controller operates the modulating/shutoff valves to maintain a constant wing leading-edge temperature.

341
Q

LH/RH Cowl A/I Switch:

A

ON: Command the L/R Cowl A/I SOV to the open position.

342
Q

ICE LIGHT (amber):

A

Illuminates when the airplane enters icing conditions with both anti-icing systems selected OFF. (Both Wing and Cowl need to be selected on to cancel alert).

343
Q

ICE TEST:

A

Simulates accumulation of ice on the ice detectors, and checks the probe’s heater system.

344
Q

Windshield Heat:

A

Not needed above 30 degrees celsius

The main windows can be set to high and the side windows can only be set to low.

LOW- Used for de-misting or de-fogging

345
Q

LH/RH PROBES A/I Switch for ground ops:

A

OFF:
-All probe heaters are off when there’s no AC Power online or when the APU GEN is on.

ON (AC POWER):

  • TAT and Pitot base: OFF
  • STATIC and AOA: ON
  • Pitot: Half power heat
ON (EXTERNAL POWER/NO GENS):
-TAT: OFF
-STATIC and AOA: ON
-Pitot and base: Half power heat.
NOTE: Same as AC POWER
346
Q

LH/RH PROBES A/I Switch for In-Flight ops:

A

In the flight mode, the automatic control function is completely independent of the control switches. The controllers automatically supply full power to all air data probes and sensors, regardless of PROBES switch position.

347
Q

SEAT BELTS SIGN:

A

AUTO: SEAT BELTS sign illuminates when the landing gear is extended or cabin altitude is greater than 10,000ft., when the landing gear extended, or when flaps are greater than 0 degrees.

348
Q

EMER LTS:

A

ON: Illuminates all emergency lights.

OFF: Prevents activation of emer. lights when airplane electrical power is lost or is turned off.

ARM: All interior and exterior emer. lights illuminate if DC ESS power fails or is turned off.

349
Q

STALL TEST:

A

CA Stick Shaker
CONT IGNITION
FO Stick Shaker
Stick Pusher Activates and the STALL switch lights flash

NOTE: THEN ENDS IN REVERSE ORDER BESIDES CA STICK SHAKER STOPS FIRST

350
Q

FIRE PUSH Switchlight pushed in:

A
  1. Squibs on both firex bottles arm
  2. Fuel Feed SOV closes
  3. Bleed Air SOV closes
  4. Hyd. SOV closes
  5. Engine-driven generator shuts down
351
Q

WIPER Selector:

A

INT- Operates wipers at one cycle every 5 seconds

352
Q

N/W STRG:

A

ARMED: Activates with WOW
OFF: Nose wheel is set in free castering mode

353
Q

Display Selector (MFD Selector):

A

PFD, EICAS: Revert to the associated MFD dependent on FO or CA Selector

NORM: Normal setting

354
Q

NAV Source Selector:

A

Pushing X-Side displays the opposite side navigational source on MFD.

355
Q

TIME/DATE Display:

A

Displays GPS Time, Internal UTC Time, local time, or date

356
Q

DCU Switchlight:

A

Disables and silences the aural warnings of a faulty DCU.

357
Q

AP/SP DISC:

A

Disengages the autopilot and deactivates the stick pusher.

358
Q

ANTI-SKID Switch:

A

Arms the anti-skid system:

ARMED: System is activated when wheel speed reaches 35kts.

359
Q

HIGH PWR SCHEDULE:

A

When selected ON, engines will operate on the one-engine inoperative power schedule.

Advances up one detent.

360
Q

LAMP TEST:

A

1/2: Tests all lamps on the respective driver unit channel.

361
Q

GRND PROX TERRAIN Switch:

A

Inhibits the terrain map display. Basic GPWS modes (1-6) and wind shear mode (7) remain active.

362
Q

GRND PROX FLAP Switch:

A

Mutes “TOO LOW FLAPS”

363
Q

GND LIFT DUMPING Toggle Switch:

A

AUTO- Arms the ground lift dumping system automatically when the airplane is in the landing configuration.

MAN ARM: Manual arm in case AUTO Fails

MAN DISARM: Disarms the ground lift dumping system in the event of an inadvertent deployment or failure of the automatic system.

364
Q

DG/MAG Switch:

A

DG: HSI performs like a directional gyro and doesn’t use flux detectors

MAG: HSI is continuously adjusted using the flux detectors.

365
Q

ADG PWR TXFR:

A

Transfers the AC essential bus power source from the ADG bus back to the main AC bus.

366
Q

EMER Flap Switch:

A

SFECUs overrides the control lever selection, and will select slats and flaps to 20 degrees, and extend the slats.

367
Q

(SEC) Scan Switch on the RADAR Panel:

A

Selects a 30 degrees sector scan instead of the normal 60 sector scan.

368
Q

Transfer (XFR) Switch RADAR Panel:

A

Transfers control of display range to opposite side display control panel.

369
Q

Mode Select Switch:

A

OFF: Removes power from the transmitter and places radar in standby mode.

TEST: Starts radar self-test and displays test pattern on the MFD.

MAP: Displays ground targets on MFD in cyan, green, yellow, or magenta (depending on the strength)

WX: Displays detectable weather on MFD in green, yellow, red, or magenta (depending on estimated rainfall rate)

370
Q

TILT Control Knob:

A

Changes antenna vertical tilt angle for desired radar scanning plus or minus 15 degrees.

AUTO- When pressed in, tilt is automatically adjusted for changes in altitude and/or range

371
Q

VOICE/BOTH Switch ACP:

A

VOICE- Station ID is filtered out allowing only voice signals to be audible.

BOTH- No filtering

372
Q

EMER/NORM Switch ACP:

A

NORM: Provides normal comm. functions

EMER: Bypasses audio electronics control unit.

373
Q

APU Fire push switch light:

A
  1. APU bottle squib is armed
  2. BOTTLE ARM PUSH TO DISC Switchlight illuminates
  3. APU Fuel Feed SOV Closes
  4. APU Fire shutoff relay is energized
  5. APU LCV closes
  6. APU Gen is tripped off
374
Q

The goal of the Generator Control Unit (GCU):

A 
Protect from:
Over/under voltage
Over/underfrequency
Generator or bus overcurrent
Generator phase sequence
375
Q

When will the ADG automatically deploy?

A

AC BUS 1 and 2 Unpowered
NO WOW Signal
Aircraft gen. last power source online (prevent deployment on jacks)

376
Q

What are the three functions of the Fuel Boost Pumps?

A
  1. Move fuel from the collector tanks
  2. Back up ejectors during start
  3. Back up the ejectors during an ejector failure
377
Q

What functions does the Anti-Skid System provide?

A

Wheel skid control (no wheel skid)
Touchdown protection (locked wheel on touchdown)
Locked wheel protection (no locked wheel during rollout)

378
Q

Low Pressure Air is connected what must you do?

A

Turn off PACKs, Not req’d to turn off RECIRC fans.

379
Q

Pressing ROLL SEL gives you what?

A

Normal operation is onside ailerons, farside MFS. When you select ROLL SEL it will also give you onside MFS.

380
Q

Tell about Main Battery?

A

24V, 17ampere-hours

381
Q

How is the hydraulic systems 1 and 2 cooled on the ground?

A

Electric driven fan.

382
Q

How is the CSD oil cooled?

A

Air to oil heat exchanger.

383
Q

Why would you MAN DISARM when doing an evacuation?

A

Stows boards/allows passengers to not get tripped up on the way out.

384
Q

When does the EGPWS cue the Flaps?

A

245’

385
Q

When do you get the EICAS Caution message for spoilers?

A

Below 300’

386
Q

What is the trim setting set for on takeoff?

A

Single Engine V1 cut

PSA Airlines Training (7 decks)

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