KV SYSTEMS PREP Flashcards
1
Q
What powers the 2 EICAS screens?
A
Battery Bus
2
Q
What do red, amber, green, and white EICAS color codes mean
A
red - warning
amber - caution
green - advisory
white - status
3
Q
Are the 2 EICAS cooling fans powered by the battery bus?
A
No
4
Q
Why is it important to provide APU/External power to the aircraft within 5 minutes of energizing battery?
A
To prevent EICAS screens from overheating (will have no cooling fans)
5
Q
What gathers data for EICAS display?
A
2 DCUs (data concentrator units)
6
Q
How many chimes for a caution and warning?
A
Caution = 1, Warning = 3
7
Q
What other aural warnings can DCU generate?
A
Fire bell (fire), warbler (stall), clacker (overspeed), siren (windshear and terrain)
8
Q
Which aural warnings will DCU audio warning inhibit switches not cancel?
A
Windshear, EGPWS, and TCAS
9
Q
Which 4 ECP buttons are mechanical and not dependent on ECP microprocessors or ECP power?
A
PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP
10
Q
When will oil pressure gauges be present on primary display in addition to the digital readout?
A
With engines shutdown or with low oil pressure
11
Q
When will N1 vibration gauges replace oil gauges?
A
With engines running and normal oil pressure
12
Q
How is N2 vibration monitored?
A
System monitors N2 vibration independently without display. If N2 vib exceeds a predetermined amount, VIB will be displayed inside the N2 gauge.
13
Q
When will flap gauge disappear?
A
With wheel brake temps normal range, and gear/slats/and flaps retracted.
14
Q
When will brake temp indicators disappear?
A
Temps in normal range and gear/slats/and flaps retracted.
15
Q
When can you box caution messages and how?
A
Pressing CAS with both engines running. New messages will appear above boxed MSG icon.
16
Q
When are certain caution messages inhibited on takeoff?
A
Thrust lever advancement to 400 feet
17
Q
When are certain caution messages inhibited on landing?
A
400 agl to weight on wheels + 30 seconds, or when climbing above 400 feet (go around)
18
Q
What will happen if ED1 fails?
A
Primary page will auto revert to ED2
19
Q
If ED1 fails, and primary on ED2, how can synoptic pages be viewed?
A
Select EICAS on MFD reversionary panel and use the ECP (EICAS control panel) to cycle through synoptic pages
20
Q
Name several conditions that must be satisfied for TAKEOFF CONFIG OK message
A
Parking brake off, flight spoilers stowed, flaps between 8-20, stabilizer trim inside green takeoff band, rudder trim inside takeoff range, aileron trim inside takeoff range, auto pilot off
21
Q
(J*) If many messages received at once on EICAS, it no longer lists in order of importance. What order should you use?
A
(EL HYPO) EL = electric HY = hydraulic P = pneumatics O = other
22
Q
When will the ED’s (1 or 2) auto transfer if you have a failure of one or the other?
A
Only auto transfer if you have failure of ED1 (ED1’s primary page would then go to ED2)
23
Q
Give a brief description of the EICAS:
A
- Consists of 2 displays (ED1 and 2)
- 2 DCUs (data concentrator units) process data from aircraft sensors for display on EICAS
- DCUs then pass data to LDU (lamp driver unit), which signals the operation of the switchlights located through the cockpit
24
Q
Give a brief description of the powerplant:
A
- 2 high bypass turbofan engines provide thrust
- each engine controlled by FADEC
25
What are variable geometry vanes?
- Used in compressor section of engine to optimize engine airflow and protect against compressor stall.
- VG movement is controlled by FADEC.
- Inlet guide vane and the 1st 4 stages of the engine include the VG vanes.
26
About what percentage of airflow is bypassed in engine (provided by N1 fan)?
approx 80%
27
Describe the airflow of the engine vs. the APU
Engine = axial flow, APU = annular flow
28
Where is ITT measured?
2nd stage high pressure turbine
29
What is the job of the 2nd stage high pressure turbine?
To drive the compressor section
30
What drives the N1 fan?
4th stage low pressure turbine
31
What drives the accessory gear box?
N2 compressor, which is driven by the high pressure turbine.
32
What items are on the accessory gear box?
Hydraulic pump, fuel pump (3), oil pump, FADEC alternator, integrated drive generator (IDG), and air turbine starter
33
How does reverse thrust work?
Uses bypass air, 3rd section of engine cowling, vanes angled forward, and blocker doors block airflow.
34
What stage does bleed air get extracted from?
6th stage, unless 6th stage is insufficient - then uses 10th stage bleed air into manifold
35
What allows us to obtain proper fuel flow automatically?
FADEC commands the fuel metering unit for target fuel flow
36
What is the function of the operability valve?
- Located at 10th stage valve, works in conjunction with VG vanes
- If too high a pressure is created, it acts as a block
- This helps prevent compressor stalls by dumping bleed air pressure off of the section
- All done automatically
37
Can engines run with out FADEC?
No
38
Does the APU or crossfeed start have to go through PRSOV?
No
39
What is the function of the fuel/oil heat exchanger?
Use engine oil to heat engine fuel and uses cold fuel to cool fuel
40
(*J) Can you use APU bleed air for anti-icing?
No
41
What are 2 things that occur during flameout protection?
FADEC will auto detect and initiate a relight and N2 would spool unless something stopped it.
42
What is continuous ignition?
When ignition A and B are both energized. The only time all 4 come on at once is with manual selection.
43
(*J) What are the conditions to keep N1 synced?
Must be within 1.5% and within 2.5% for N2 sync
44
What 3 interconnected fuel pumps are within the accessory gear box?
Low pressure, high pressure, and motive flow pump
45
What are the rated thrust outputs of the engines?
700 and 900 have same engine, but 700 is downrated to 12,670lbs T/O thrust and 13,790lbs APU thrust
46
What powers the VG vanes?
Fuel pressure directed by FADEC
47
What powers the operability valve?
Fuel pressure directed by FADEC
48
How many channels does FADEC have and when do the channels change?
2 channels (A and B). Change when N2 rpm falls below 7% on every OTHER engine shut down.
49
How many FADEC channels are used at once?
1 channel commands the engine while the other channel monitors the controlling channel and is in standby in the event the commanding channel fails
50
Is there ever a time when both FADEC channels will command the engine simultaneously?
In engine overspeed situation both FADEC channels will command the fuel valves to close to bring speed into the normal range
51
Can the left FADEC control the right engine?
No
52
Do the R and L engine's FADECs cross talk with each other?
Yes, they compare engine speed and thrust reverser position info
53
When an engine fails, what will the operating engine's FADEC automatically command?
APR in TOGA detent, MCT in CLIMB detent, and a proportionate increase throughout the cruise range
54
What powers the FADEC?
Aircraft electrical power with an N2 of less than 50% and the FADEC alternator with and N2 greater than 50%
55
What is FLEX thrust?
A reduced power setting for takeoff calculated using an assumed temp
56
Which stages of the engine is bleed air extracted from?
6 and 10 but not both at the same time
57
What powers the igniters?
Igniter A is powered by AC Essential Bus. Igniter B is powered by aircraft's battery and an inverter
58
When will continuous ignition fire automatically?
FADEC senses a flameout, approaching a stickshaker during stall, and disruption of airflow is detected through the engine
59
How are thrust reversers actuated?
Hydraulically
60
(J*) What is the primary purpose of the APU
To provide electrical power
61
How many kva from APU?
40
62
What can APU bleed air be used for?
Starting and air conditioning
63
What tank does APU pull fuel from?
Left collector tank
64
Will APU shut down on ground due to HOTLOP?
Yes
65
What is the reason behind the APU door open in flight/unknown position speed limitation?
Prevents APU from windmilling and to ensure rpm remains low enough to start the APU if necessary
66
If APU fuel pump fails, will APU continue to operate?
Yes, but it cannot be restarted without the pump.
67
What is the purpose of the LCV (load control valve)?
Varies pneumatic load from APU to ensure electrical power and 45 psi in the manifold
68
Min battery voltage for APU start?
22 volts
69
What powers the APU door?
APU battery provides power to the door and is secondary for the ECU. Main battery is primary power source for ECU
70
If APU is left unattended, can ground crew shut it down?
Yes, through APU shut off switch on forward nose, or in APU compartment
71
In the bleed air system, all valves are electrically controlled and pneumatically operated except for ?
ISOL valve and wing anti ice valve (both electric)
72
Which anti ice SOVs fail open?
Cowl anti ice SOVs
73
Which anti ice valves fail in the position they were in?
ISOL valve and wing anti ice (bc electric)
74
What controls the amount of bleed air from the APU and fails safe closed?
LCV (Load Control Valve)
75
*(J*) For low pressure AC on the ground, what 2 doors must be open?*
Avionics bay door and Front Pax Door
76
What happens when cabin alt reaches 8500 ft?
Amber message (caution)
77
What happens when cabin alt reaches 10,000 ft?
Red message (warning)
78
If the seatbelt sign is in auto, at what cabin alt will CPAM automatically turn on seat belt sign?
10k
79
What happens when cabin alt reaches 14,000 ft?
Mask drop
80
Brief description of pressurization schedule:
- This is a region of flight abort capability
- When advance throttle for TO, cabin alt drops to -150 below field ele
- Climb mode = cabin climbs at 350 fpm
- If in the first 10 mins of flight, you don't reach 10k feet, it will auto reach field elevation pressure for cabin
81
Above what altitude can we not use the EMER DEPRES button?
Greater than 15k
82
When bleed air comes from engine, what psi is pressure reg function?
45 +/- 3
83
Left pack and right pack primary?
Left = cockpit, right = cabin
84
Why is it considered standard practice to use the rotary dial for temperature changes?
With the rotary dial, we have overheat protection. (Only use manual mode if qrh directed as this can overheat pack)
85
When would amber fault light illuminate on pack?
Over temp or over pressure
86
Which cargo has temp control?
Aft
87
When we use cargo fan, we also arm what?
A heater
88
How many outflow valves do we have? (pressurization)
1 with 3 DC motors
89
How do you know if you are using pressure control?
Says on ECS page
90
What does switching the DC Service switch to ON do?
ON: Connects the DC Service Bus to the APU BATT DIR BUS
91
What does switching the BATTERY MASTER switch to ON do?
ON: Connects the APU and MAIN BATT DIR BUS to the Battery Bus.
(Remember the 5-minute limitation on the EFIS for no AC Fans being powered)
-22V minimum on both buses when powered on
92
When the AC External Power Switch is in AVAIL what does this mean?
AVAIL: When external power is connected and is ready to use.
93
When does a FAULT light (amber) illuminate on the IDG 1 or 2 DISC Switchlight?
Whenever there's a low oil pressure or high oil temperature.
IDG will automatically disconnect when an over-temp or over-torque condition occurs. IDG cannot be reconnected in-flight needs to be done by maintenance.
94
What does pressing the AC ESS XFER button do?
Pressing switches the essential bus feed from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2. The transfer is automatic during an AC Bus 1 failure.
95
When you select the generator to AUTO what happens?
AUTO- Connects the generator to the associated bus.
"System Logic" "Bus Priority"
96
What is the AUTO XFER Switch used for?
OFF: Indicates auto-transfer is selected off
FAIL light (amber): Indicates a fault preventing auto-transfer
Used to isolate a bad generator.
97
When doing a fire test (TEST SWITCH) what're you checking?
Testing the FIREX System.
98
What does selecting the HYD SOV do?
Closes the hydraulic shutoff valve. Can aid in a hydraulic leak.
QRC/QRH Driven
99
What does turning on the NAV lights do?
Illuminate the red, green, and white position lights.
NAV light remains ON at all times
100
What does turning on the Beacon lights do?
Illuminated red beacon lights on the upper and lower fuselage.
101
What does pressing in the BOOST PUMP switch light do?
1. Engine Start boost pump is activated
2. Pump is armed and will operate automatically when low fuel pressure is detected in any engine feed line.
*Switchlight illuminates ON when the pump is operating.*
102
When will cabin control pressure 1 automatically switch to CPC2?
3 mins after landing
103
If you had a fault in cabin control pressure 1, how do you manually switch to CPC2?
Pushing pressure control button x2
104
What is CPAM?
Cabin pressure acquisition module (aka microprocessor)
105
CPAM sends a message to what to alert of cabin pressure abnormalities (8500, 10k, 14k)?
DCU
106
What 2 safety valves does the pressurization system contain?
1. over pressurization safety valve - opens at 8.7psi
| 2. negative pressure relief valve - opens at -.5
107
How does air from packs get into passenger compartment?
Conditioned air from both packs is sent to mixing manifold under after cargo floor, then routed to flight deck and pax compartment.
108
Ram air functions:
- Helps cool packs by passing through the pack heat exchangers then exiting overboard
- If both packs fail, can be used as sole source of ventilation
- Hydraulic sys 1 and 2 are cooled by ram air
109
Describe the flow of air through the pack components:
("Please Hand Charlie His Red Coat With Tails")
| Precooler, Heat exchanger, Compressor, Heat exchanger (secondary), Reheater, Condenser, Water extractor, Turbine
110
How is bleed air from both engines kept separate?
Isolation valve
111
Can left engine provide bleed air to right pack?
Yes, by selecting ISOL switch to OPEN, and BLEED SOURCE rotary selector to L ENG, and then placing BLEED VALVES rotary selector in MANUAL
112
Can the aircraft be flown with 1 pack inop?
Yes, but limited to 31k feet
113
What is max differential pressure during taxi?
.1
114
When does bleed air switch from APU to engines?
After TO, when thrust levers are pulled out of TOGA detent, with gear up, and flaps 20 or less.
115
When does bleed air switch from engines to APU on approach?
With gear OR flaps extended to 20 or greater, with thrust out of TOGA.
116
What manages bleed air distribution and the air conditioning system?
2 ACSCs (air conditioning system controllers)
117
What is the water extracted from the pack used for?
It is sprayed across the pack heat exchangers in the ram air duct for cooling
118
How many recirculation fans are there?
2 fans, 1 switch
119
Describe the journey of air from outside aircraft, through, and back out:
- Air first enters the engine
- Then ducted to the packs as hot bleed air
- From packs, it enters the cabin as conditioned air
- From cabin, it exits outside through the outflow valve
120
What is the function of PRSOVs? (pressure regulating shut off valves)
Modulate as commanded by ACSCs to maintain approx 45 psi +/-3 in the bleed air manifolds
121
Describe the flow of air through the pack components:
("Please Hand Charlie His Red Coat With Tails")
| Precooler, Heat exchanger, Compressor, Heat exchanger (secondary), Reheater, Condenser, Water extractor, Turbine
122
What happens when the fuel pump is pressed out?
The boost pump is disarmed.
123
Which engine bleed air stage does hot anti ice come from?
10th stage
124
How do the ice detectors detect ice formation?
They vibrate constantly, will detect ice because when it forms it will slow the vibrate. Will heat 5 seconds on, 55 seconds off to regain vibrate and ice detecting ability
125
What action should we take if we receive amber ICE message?
Turn on all anti ice. ICE message will turn to green once all anti ice on
126
Speed limit for wing anti ice
230
127
When looking on EICAS synoptic page and the N2 setting is white and aircraft wings are white, what does that mean?
Need higher N2 to turn green
128
When do we turn windshield heat to high?
Only when ice formation seen on windshield. (High turns shields high and side windows low)
129
ISOL Switch does what?
OPEN- Opens the valve to allow crossbleed
CLSD- Isolates both systems
130
Which probe is the only one not heated on ground?
TAT
131
Which probes are heated when probes ON on the ground?
Pitot heat in full, S3, and AOA
132
The wings and engine cowls are heated by __ bleed air
Engine
133
External probes and the cockpit windshield are heated ___
Electrically
134
How is wing anti ice system controlled?
Wing anti ice is manually activated then automatically controlled by the dual channel anti ice leak detection controller (AILC)
135
How are the anti ice bleed air ducts designed to protect from leaks?
- Ducts are double walled with bleed air passing through inner portion of duct
- If there is a leak in inner wall, bleed air will escape to the outer duct, and the AILC will detect the leak
- The double walled ducts are only for cowl anti ice. They wing anti ice ducts utilize the double loop detection system
136
Are vertical and horizontal stabilizers provided with anti ice protection?
No, anti ice is not required for these surfaces bc tests have proven no significant ice can from there
137
Which engine bleed air stage does hot anti ice come from?
10th stage
138
What happens when you OPEN the GRAVITY XFLOW switch light?
The gravity SOV opens, when pressed out the gravity SOV closes.
FAIL- Occurs when the SOV is not in the commanded position.
139
How can external power be used by ground crew when cockpit door is locked?
Press AC PUSH switch light on external service panel
140
What does pressing in the XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE?
Pressed in: Crossflow/APU pump is armed for manual crossflow.
141
When selecting the WING A/I CROSS BLEED Selector?
FROM LEFT: The wing cross bleed valve is open and the right-wing anti-ice valve is closed. FROM RIGHT is the same besides the left-wing anti-ice valve is closed.
NORMAL: The wing cross bleed valve is closed.
142
What does the BLEED VALVES Selector do?
CLSD: Closes all bleed sources and must be used when using an external ground source to prevent damage to the engines or APU.
AUTO: Controller manages system requirements
MANUAL: Allows manual configuration of the system.
143
ISOL Switch does what?
OPEN- Opens the valve to allow crossbleed
CLSD- Isolates both systems
144
PWR FUEL Switchlight gets pushed in what should display?
DIGS
APU DOOR OPEN
APU IN BITE
GAUGES DISPLAY
SHUT-OFF VALVE OPENS
(*APU Fuel Pump is energized, the APU fuel feed shut-off valve opens.*)
145
What items are on utility bus?
Passenger service units - mainly reading lights
146
CONT ignition switch light will automatically illuminate when what conditions are met:
Activates when a stall is detected, regardless of the switch position.
147
Are the wings protected from getting too hot?
Yes, the anti ice leak controller (AILC) monitors wing temp, and regulates the anti ice valves to maintain the appropriate temp
148
Can 1 bleed provide air to both wings?
Yes, by opening WING A/I CROSS BLEED selector to the desired state
149
What do probe switches do in flight?
Nothing, in flight all probes are fully powered regardless of switch position
150
Hydraulic Pump 2B POSITIONS (AC Motor Pump 2B Switch):
ON- Pump will operate at 3000 +/- 200psi output
OFF- Pump is not operating
AUTO- Pump will operate in AUTO position when the flap setting is greater than 0-degrees and the AC Bus 1 powered.
151
What are the 2 subcomponents of IDG
Constant speed drive and generator
152
How is normal power restored after an ADG deployment if a generator returns?
By stowing the ADG handle and pressing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button
153
Can hydraulic pump 3B be deselected after an ADG deployment?
No, it is hardwired to the ADG bus for continuous operation
154
What does the amber light on IDG switches mean?
HOT LOP
155
Are you able to reconnect an IDG once disconnected in flight?
No
156
What are the reasons for an auto shear?
Over torque and over temp
157
AC Bus 1 bus priority:
Gen 1, APU, Gen 2, ADG (onside, inside, far side, outside)
158
AC System Volts?
115VAC
159
TRU amps and volts?
120 amps, 28 volts
160
What occurs when you lose AC BUS 1?
Knocks out TRU 1 = main tie closes and utility bus is lost (pax reading lights)
161
Tell about APU battery
24 volt, 43 amp, in aft equipment bay
162
Hydraulic PUMP 1 POSITIONS (AC Motor Pump 1B):
ON- Pump will operate at 3000 +/- 200psi output
OFF- Pump is not operating.
AUTO- Pump will operate in AUTO position when the flap setting is greater than 0-degrees and the AC Bus 2 is powered.
163
How many gallons does the collector tank hold?
55 gal
164
Hydraulic Pump 2B POSITIONS (AC Motor Pump 2B Switch):
ON- Pump will operate at 3000 +/- 200psi output
OFF- Pump is not operating
AUTO- Pump will operate in AUTO position when the flap setting is greater than 0-degrees and the AC Bus 1 powered.
165
MAN ALT Switch (Manual Cabin Altitude (CABIN ALT) Switch:
Controls the position of the outflow valve while the pressurization system is in manual mode. The switch position is spring-loaded to the middle/center.
UP- Outflow valve open (Increases cabin altitude at the selected rate)
DN- Outflow valve closed (Decreases cabin altitude at the selected rate)
HOLD- Stops movement of outflow valve (maintains current cabin altitude).
166
What might the DC Service switch be used for?
External aircraft lights while repositioning plane without battery master on
167
PRESS CONT (Pressurization Control) Switchlight:
Pressed in:
- Manual mode is selected
- Removes electrical supply from the outflow valve and locks them in their existing position
- Activates manual (pneumatic) operation
Pressed out:
-Auto mode is selected
Pressed twice:
-Redundant controller gains control
```
FAULT Light (Amber):
-Illuminates when the system detects the failure of both cabin pressure controllers
```
168
MAN RATE (Manual Rate Control):
Pneumatically adjusts outflow valve rate during the manual mode.
169
L/R PACK Switchlight:
When pressed in: Pack pressure regulating/shut-off valve opens, allowing air to flow into the pack.
FAULT Light (Amber): Pack has failed
170
When is DC utility bus shed?
When main tie or cross tie closes
171
What items are on utility bus?
Passenger service units - mainly reading lights
172
What does the EMER DEPRESS Switch do?
Depressurizes the airplane during an emergency.
Pressed in-
1. Outflow valve moves to fully open
2. At cruise, cabin altitude will ascend to 14,500 (+/- 500) feet.
3. ON light (amber) will illuminate
4. EICAS EMER DEPRESS caution message displays
Pressed out-
1. Outflow valve reverts to automatic operation
2. ON light (amber) extinguishes.
173
PRESS CONT (Pressurization Control) Switchlight:
Pressed in:
- Manual mode is selected
- Removes electrical supply from both outflow valves and locks them in their existing position-
Pressed out:
Pressed twice:
FAULT Light (Amber):
174
MAN RATE (Manual Rate Control):
Pneumatically adjusts outflow valve rate during the manual mode.
175
How are DC bus ties controlled?
DC bus tie control is automatically accomplished through the 2 DC power centers (DCPCs)
176
If APU boost pump fails, will it continue to operate?
Yes, but will not start unless pump is operating
177
What items are powered by the ADG?
Hydraulic pump 3B, Essential AC bus, flaps and slats at 1/2 speed, ADG bus, stab trim channel 2
178
How much power does ADG produce?
115 volts, 15 kva
179
What is min airspeed for ADG operation?
135kias
180
Why must ADG handle be pulled even after an auto deployment?
- As aircraft slows below 135 kias on approach, the ADG will no longer be able to generate sufficient power for operation
- The DC ESS bus will continue to be powered through the batteries, but after landing with WonW, internal logic will cause the loss of power to the DC ESS bus if the handle is not pulled
181
How is normal power restored after an ADG deployment if a generator returns?
By stowing the ADG handle and pressing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button
182
L/R PACK Switchlight:
When pressed in: Pack pressure regulating/shut-off valve opens, allowing air to flow into the pack.
FAULT Light (Amber): Pack has failed
183
What is the purpose of the fuel check valve test?
To verify that the 1 way check valve is operating correctly and motive flow fuel is not pressurizing the opposite engine.
184
What items are powered by DC emergency bus?
Engine fire extinguishers, APU fire extinguisher, fuel SOVs, and hydraulic SOVs
185
Aside from scavenge ejectors, how does fuel enter the collector tanks?
1 way flapper valves allow fuel to move by gravity into collector tank
186
When is DC emergency bus displayed on the DC synoptic page?
When power is lost from 1 or both its power sources (APU batt dir bus and DC batt bus)
187
When operating only off the batteries in an emergency power situation, how many minutes of battery life does each APU start attempt cost?
6 mins
188
Where is the main battery located?
Forward nose compartment
189
Where is APU battery located?
Aft equipment bay
190
How do transfer ejectors (located in center tank) operate?
Motive flow - they have no power source
191
What psi does the pressure relief valve open (hydraulics)?
Opens at 3600psi and resets at 3200psi
192
Ejector fuel has to go through what to get to the wings?
Scavenger (2 per tank)
193
How many gallons does the collector tank hold?
55 gal
194
How do you close the fuel SOV?
Engine shut off and fire push switch
195
Min temp for fuel into engine
5*c
196
How is the fuel heated?
By engine oil in the fuel/oil heat exchanger
197
What occurs when the fuel filter becomes clogged?
Fuel will bypass
198
What is the bulk fuel temp limit?
30*c
199
What is the only way to close the fuel SOV
Engine fire push
200
When do we use the gravity flow line?
When auto xfer fails
201
Can you refuel the center tank with pressure refueling or gravity refueling?
Pressure only
202
What is min fuel for go around
600lbs per side with 10* pitch up
203
Aside from digital readouts, is there any other way to determine fuel quantity?
Yes, 5 magnetic level indicators (MLIs) that can manually be checked on the exterior of the aircraft - 2 under each wing and 1 under the fuselage
204
Where is the bulk fuel temp sensor?
Right wing tank
205
If ADG is providing power to hyd pump 3B, can it be manually turned off?
No, switch will not work
206
Where does APU get fuel from?
Dedicated boost pump in left collector tank
207
If APU boost pump fails, will it continue to operate?
Yes, but will not start unless pump is operating
208
Will the main engines start without their respective boost pumps running?
Yes
209
After starting both engines, what do the fuel switchlights look like?
Lights extinguish bc the pumps enter the standby mode. Motive flow supplies the fuel to the engines.
210
At what fuel quantity does the digital fuel readout turn amber?
Less than 1200lbs total or less than 600lbs in a wing
211
What is bulk fuel freezing temp for Jet A?
-40*c
212
What is min bulk fuel temp for Jet A for takeoff?
-30*c
213
What is max fuel imbalance while over wing refueling?
2500lbs
214
What is the purpose of the fuel check valve test?
To verify that the 1 way check valve is operating correctly and motive flow fuel is not pressurizing the opposite engine.
215
Describe path of fuel from center tanks to engines
- Transfer ejector from center tank to main tanks
- Scavenge ejector from main tanks to collector tank
- Main ejector from collector tank to engine
216
Aside from scavenge ejectors, how does fuel enter the collector tanks?
1 way flapper valves allow fuel to move by gravity into collector tank
217
What ensures nose wheel is centered prior to retraction into well?
ECU sends signal to center after TO, and then a centering cam keeps it centered when hyd pressure is removed
218
Where is hydraulic 3 located?
Belly aft of main wheels (hydraulic compartment)
219
What type and color hydraulic fluid do we use?
Skydral (sp?) and purple
220
Hydraulic __ pumps are engine driven
A
221
Hydraulic __ pumps are back up pumps
B
222
What psi does the pressure relief valve open (hydraulics)?
Opens at 3600psi and resets at 3200psi
223
What is the purpose of the system accumulator (hydraulics)?
Absorbs bumps. 1500psi
224
On ground, the loss of engine and APU generators disables the auto function of the hydraulic system __ and __
System 1 and 2 B pumps
225
What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?
Provides a back up for brakes, approx 6 pumps (anti skid off)
226
Why does hydraulic system 3A only have on/off switch and no auto?
3A runs continuously
227
What is the approx fuel burn?
About 4000lbs 1st hour and 3000lbs each hr after
228
What is the purpose of MFS?
- Aids in dumping of lift
- Roll assist
- Ground spoilers (GLD)
229
How does motive flow work?
Created when high pressure fuel is passed through venturi shaped nozzle of ejector
230
What is the only way to close the fuel SOV
Engine fire push
231
If there is an engine driven pump problem, hyd 1A or 2A, is the associated engine required to be shutdown?
No, a SOV has been positioned between the pump and reservoir to isolate pump from system
232
What is indicated when a hyd system is displayed in amber on synoptic pg
System is pressurized less than 1800psi
233
How many total hydraulic pumps?
```
6:
4 electric (1B, 2B, 3A, 3B) and 2 engine driven pumps (1A and 2A)
```
234
Which pumps are not controlled by hyd control panel?
1A and 2A bc engine driven
235
What powers hyd pump 3B
AC bus 1 and it is hard wired to ADG to be powered when ADG is deployed
236
If ADG is providing power to hyd pump 3B, can it be manually turned off?
No, switch will not work
237
What effect will loss of hyd system 2 and 3 have on landing gear?
Manual gear ext will be required and nose gear will not extend
238
What is the main sensor for stall protection?
AOA computer
239
Which hyd system provides power to outboard brakes?
2
240
Which hyd system provides power to nose wheel steering?
3
241
Landing gear is __ operated and __ controlled
Hydraulically operated (sys 3) and electronically controlled
242
Max turn radius for nose wheel
80*
243
What monitors the position sensors and is in charge of sequencing landing gear ext and retraction?
PSEU (proximity sensing electronic unit)
244
What holds MLG in ext position?
Mechanical over centering with down locks
245
What holds nose gear in retracted position?
Spring loaded, over center type locking mechanism
246
What holds MLG in retracted position?
Mechanical up locks and hyd system 3 pressure
247
Where do yaw dampers receive data from?
YD1 = FCC1, YD2 = FCC2
248
What do yaw dampers do?
Improve lateral stability and prevent dutch roll
249
Why is it important to not move tiller in flight w gear extended?
Steering will be inop
250
What is locked wheel protection?
- ASCU (anti skid control unit) monitors each wheel to ensure even rotation.
- If 1 wheel enters skid, ASCU will release brake pressure to that wheel to balance speeds
251
What is touchdown protection?
Guards from landing w brakes applied
252
What colors do BTMS (brake temp monitoring system) display?
Green - normal 0-6
White - caution 7-14
Red - overeat 15
(each digit is 35*c)
253
Can braking be accomplished through use of accumulator pressure?
Yes, 6 applications w anti skid off
254
How are tires protected from blowout?
Through use of 4 thermal fuse plugs in each wheel. Will melt and deflate tire before able to blowout.
255
Can brake wear indicators be checked without brakes applied?
No, hyd sys 2 and 3 must be activated and brakes applied
256
(J*) Flight controls that end with "oiler" means they are
Fly by wire
257
What is the emer flap switch a back up for?
The actual flap handle being inop
258
How are the MFS (multifunction spoilers) wired?
Crosswired
259
What is the purpose of MFS?
- Aids in dumping of lift
- Roll assist
- Ground spoilers (GLD)
260
What are artificial feel units?
- Helps provide pilot w sense of force on ailerons
| - The faster you are flying, more difficult to move ctrl wheel
261
Where is the autopilot servo located?
FO side
262
What are the 3 equipment systems that detect fire?
Engine, APU, MLG
263
If ailerons are not neutral when power advanced for TO, what message will we get
Master warning "config ailerons"
264
The elevator has how many PCUs per side?
3
- If hyd fails, acts as redundancy
- Also acts as gust locks
- Load limiters are installed between the torque tubes and elevator PCUs
265
Yaw dampers are completely __
Electric
266
Spost 2 test occurs every 50th flight and checks what
- Stab trim, PCUs, rudder travel limiter
| - Takes about 75 seconds
267
Functions of MFS
- Roll assist
- Flight spoilers
- GLD
268
When will ground spoilers auto deploy
- L/R thrust levers idle
| - Will stay deployed for 40 secs, unless thrust lever moved above idle (go around)
269
What is the main sensor for stall protection?
AOA computer
270
What is order of stall function?
- Cont ignition
- Stick shaker
- Auto pilot disengage
- Stall switchlight
- Warbler
- Stick pusher activates
271
(J*) Why must PSA remain w/in 60 mins of a suitable airport?
Due to 60 min fire suppression in cargo
272
What does the MEL allow us to do?
Fly with things broken
273
What does CDL allow us to do?
Fly with things missing
274
Which hydraulic systems power flight controls?
All 3
275
How does lav fire extinguisher work?
In trash, sealed w heat sensitive plug. Plug will melt if fire and release halon into trash.
276
Which control column is autopilot pitch servo connected to?
Captain
277
What indications will be present with PCU runaway?
1 of the 2 green roll select lights will be illuminated
278
Where do yaw dampers receive data from?
YD1 = FCC1, YD2 = FCC2
279
What do yaw dampers do?
Improve lateral stability and prevent dutch roll
280
When ROLL DISC handle is pulled, what ROLL control surfaces will each yoke have?
L yoke, L aileron; R yoke, R aileron. Each yoke controls the opposite side's mfs.
281
How many PCUs power the rudder
3
282
Other than ED2, where can oxygen bottle pressures be read?
Outside aircraft on oxygen service panel
283
How many stab trim motors active at once?
1 motor drives jackscrew at a time. Other motor free wheels with operative motor and assumes control if operating motor fails.
284
Will autopilot disengage if manual control yoke trim used?
Yes
285
What are 4 different trims in order of priority?
("MAAM")
- Manual trim (from either yoke but captain's has priority)
- Autopilot trim
- Auto trim (flap compensation trim)
- Mach trim
286
Will alternate flap extension switch move slats and flaps when flying above 230kias?
No
287
Will alternate flap extension switch override position of flap handle?
Yes
288
If ground spoilers fail to deploy after touch down, what action taken?
Move GND LIFT DUMPING switch to MAN ARM
289
What protects ailerons from flutter in event of loss of pressure to PCUs?
Flutter dampers
290
What protects flight controls in event of PCU runaway?
Bungee breakouts
291
What are slats and flaps powered by?
2 electric motors, each controlled by 2 slat/flap electronic control units (SFECUs)
292
Will a yaw damper failure cause autopilot to disconnect?
Yes
293
What are the 3 equipment systems that detect fire?
Engine, APU, MLG
294
What fire protection does the lav have?
Detection - smoke detector
| Protection - extinguisher in trash can
295
What electrical bus controls fire PROTECTION
DC emer bus
296
The _ and _ are separate from the FIDEX system
Lav smoke detector (bc FAs can test) and MLG bay (bc has its own switch)
297
What is the only system that does not have dual fire detection?
MLG
298
What is the purpose of dual loop fire detection?
- Redundancy
- False warnings minimized
- If 1 loop fails, it ops and monitors only on 2nd loop (deferrable - dispatch is possible w faulted loop)
299
What will happen if APU fire on ground?
APU auto shutdown and bottles auto discharge
300
What will happen if APU fire in air?
APU auto shutdown and crew must discharge bottles
301
Which test is performed independently of the fire test?
MLG fire/overheat
302
(J*) Why must PSA remain w/in 60 mins of a suitable airport?
Due to 60 min fire suppression in cargo
303
How many fire detectors in fwd and aft cargo?
Fwd = 3, aft = 2
304
Aft cargo smoke indication does what automatically?
Shuts down fan and aux heater
305
How does fire loops work?
- Inner wire surrounded by heat sensitive insulator
- Wrapped in steel outer conductor
- Loops heated - insulation melts and allows electrical current to pass from inner to outer
- Both ends of loop monitored by FIDEX
- Connection made - flight deck warning is presented
306
How does lav fire extinguisher work?
In trash, sealed w heat sensitive plug. Plug will melt if fire and release halon into trash.
307
If you extinguish a fire with cargo bottle in forward cargo, what can be done for fire in aft?
Nothing, land asap
308
Why are there 2 cargo fire bottles?
1 extinguishes, other released slowly over 60 mins to suppress fire until landing
309
Which busses are hot (always powered by battery)?
APU batt bus, main batt bus, and DC emer bus
310
What will happen if DC service switch is left on?
Will discharge APU battery
311
Which battery can be deferred if inop?
Can defer and remove main battery, cannot defer APU battery
312
IDGs have their own __ system
Oil
313
Other than ED2, where can oxygen bottle pressures be read?
Outside aircraft on oxygen service panel
314
What system controls pax mask auto deploy?
CPAM (cabin pressure acquisition module)
315
How many mins of oxy are provided by pax oxy generators?
13 mins
316
How many walk around oxygen bottles do we have?
2 - one in fwd cabin and one if aft cabin overhead bin
317
What protects oxy system from pressure and temp extremes?
Oxygen blowout disc on left nose of aircraft. Will rupture if pressure within system rises above 2500 psi
318
Climb mode generates at least how many fpm climb?
50
319
If autopilot and flight directors are off, which FMAs will be active if autopilot is engaged?
Pitch and roll
320
In vertical speed mode, is there structural speed protection?
Yes
321
What do TOGA buttons do on thrust lever for normal TO?
- Commands TOTO mode as active vertical and lateral
- Disengages autopilot
- Moves flight directors to optimized pitch
- Updates rwy position in FMS
322
What do TOGA buttons do on thrust lever during go around?
- GAGA mode active
- Disengages autopilot
- Moves flight directors up to 10* pitch
- Inhibits 1/2 bank switch
- Holds present heading within 5* bank limit
- Sequences FMS missed app waypoints to active flight plan
323
Will a yaw damper failure cause autopilot to disconnect?
Yes
324
Alignment takes __ in MAG, and __ in DG mode (on ground)
70 seconds in MAG and 10 mins in DG mode
325
Can you realign in flight?
Yes, takes 10-35 seconds
326
To get traffic to display, you must have _ or less set
40nm
327
What info does the trend vector tell us on speed tape?
Where you will be 10 seconds from now if conditions remain the same
328
What is ISI and where does it receive its power and information from?
Integrated Standby Instrument - receives power from DC battery bus and receives info from Nav1
329
If aircraft exceeds +30/-20* of pitch or 65* of bank, what will PFD automatically do?
Declutter and provide sky pointer
330
What does DCP2 message on captain's flight display mean?
FO's display control panel is controlling flight instruments
331
What powers each AHRS if its respective power source is lost?
Battery power for up to 11 mins
332
Which pitot tube provides info to ISI?
P3
333
During a RA, what happens to the MFD range automatically?
Reduces to 2.5 miles
334
What does selecting the RECIRC FAN to ON do?
ON: Both fans are turned on
335
What happens when you push the RAM AIR switch in?
Pressed IN:
| RAM AIR vent valve opens to provide air for the cockpit supply.
336
HOT COLD toggle switch:
Used in manual mode to control the temperature control valve. The switch is spring-loaded into the center position.
Don't activate and hold the switch for extended periods of time, as excessive temperatures will occur.
337
CKPT MAN and CABIN MAN Switchlight
Two individual switches which allow manual control of each are either CKPT or CABIN.
338
CKPT/CABIN Automatic Mode Temperature Control:
Provides temperature control for the cockpit when in AUTO mode for temperature control.
339
AFT Cargo Ventilation Switch:
OFF: Both shut-off valves are closed and the system is disabled
AIR: Both shut-off valves open to allow recirculated air into the aft cargo compartment to maintain the compartment temperature above freezing.
COND AIR: Both shut-off valves open, the heater is enabled, and the recirculation fan is powered to blow heated air into the cargo compartment.
340
WING A/I Switch:
ON: A/I Controller operates the modulating/shutoff valves to maintain a constant wing leading-edge temperature.
341
LH/RH Cowl A/I Switch:
ON: Command the L/R Cowl A/I SOV to the open position.
342
ICE LIGHT (amber):
Illuminates when the airplane enters icing conditions with both anti-icing systems selected OFF. (Both Wing and Cowl need to be selected on to cancel alert).
343
ICE TEST:
Simulates accumulation of ice on the ice detectors, and checks the probe's heater system.
344
Windshield Heat:
Not needed above 30 degrees celsius
The main windows can be set to high and the side windows can only be set to low.
LOW- Used for de-misting or de-fogging
345
LH/RH PROBES A/I Switch for ground ops:
OFF:
-All probe heaters are off when there's no AC Power online or when the APU GEN is on.
ON (AC POWER):
- TAT and Pitot base: OFF
- STATIC and AOA: ON
- Pitot: Half power heat
```
ON (EXTERNAL POWER/NO GENS):
-TAT: OFF
-STATIC and AOA: ON
-Pitot and base: Half power heat.
NOTE: Same as AC POWER
```
346
LH/RH PROBES A/I Switch for In-Flight ops:
In the flight mode, the automatic control function is completely independent of the control switches. The controllers automatically supply full power to all air data probes and sensors, regardless of PROBES switch position.
347
SEAT BELTS SIGN:
AUTO: SEAT BELTS sign illuminates when the landing gear is extended or cabin altitude is greater than 10,000ft., when the landing gear extended, or when flaps are greater than 0 degrees.
348
EMER LTS:
ON: Illuminates all emergency lights.
OFF: Prevents activation of emer. lights when airplane electrical power is lost or is turned off.
ARM: All interior and exterior emer. lights illuminate if DC ESS power fails or is turned off.
349
STALL TEST:
CA Stick Shaker
CONT IGNITION
FO Stick Shaker
Stick Pusher Activates and the STALL switch lights flash
NOTE: THEN ENDS IN REVERSE ORDER BESIDES CA STICK SHAKER STOPS FIRST
350
FIRE PUSH Switchlight pushed in:
1. Squibs on both firex bottles arm
2. Fuel Feed SOV closes
2. Bleed Air SOV closes
3. Hyd. SOV closes
4. Engine-driven generator shuts down
351
WIPER Selector:
INT- Operates wipers at one cycle every 5 seconds
352
N/W STRG:
ARMED: Activates with WOW
OFF: Nose wheel is set in free castering mode
353
Display Selector (MFD Selector):
PFD, EICAS: Revert to the associated MFD dependent on FO or CA Selector
NORM: Normal setting
354
NAV Source Selector:
Pushing X-Side displays the opposite side navigational source on MFD.
355
TIME/DATE Display:
Displays GPS Time, Internal UTC Time, local time, or date
356
DCU Switchlight:
Disables and silences the aural warnings of a faulty DCU.
357
AP/SP DISC:
Disengages the autopilot and deactivates the stick pusher.
358
ANTI-SKID Switch:
Arms the anti-skid system:
ARMED: System is activated when wheel speed reaches 35kts.
359
HIGH PWR SCHEDULE:
When selected ON, engines will operate on the one-engine inoperative power schedule.
Advances up one detent.
360
LAMP TEST:
1/2: Tests all lamps on the respective driver unit channel.
361
GRND PROX TERRAIN Switch:
Inhibits the terrain map display. Basic GPWS modes (1-6) and wind shear mode (7) remain active.
362
GRND PROX FLAP Switch:
Mutes "TOO LOW FLAPS"
363
GND LIFT DUMPING Toggle Switch:
AUTO- Arms the ground lift dumping system automatically when the airplane is in the landing configuration.
MAN ARM: Manual arm in case AUTO Fails
MAN DISARM: Disarms the ground lift dumping system in the event of an inadvertent deployment or failure of the automatic system.
364
DG/MAG Switch:
DG: HSI performs like a directional gyro and doesn't use flux detectors
MAG: HSI is continuously adjusted using the flux detectors.
365
ADG PWR TXFR:
Transfers the AC essential bus power source from the ADG bus back to the main AC bus.
366
EMER Flap Switch:
SFECUs overrides the control lever selection, and will select slats and flaps to 20 degrees, and extend the slats.
367
(SEC) Scan Switch on the RADAR Panel:
Selects a 30 degrees sector scan instead of the normal 60 sector scan.
368
Transfer (XFR) Switch RADAR Panel:
Transfers control of display range to opposite side display control panel.
369
Mode Select Switch:
OFF: Removes power from the transmitter and places radar in standby mode.
TEST: Starts radar self-test and displays test pattern on the MFD.
MAP: Displays ground targets on MFD in cyan, green, yellow, or magenta (depending on the strength)
WX: Displays detectable weather on MFD in green, yellow, red, or magenta (depending on estimated rainfall rate)
370
TILT Control Knob:
Changes antenna vertical tilt angle for desired radar scanning plus or minus 15 degrees.
AUTO- When pressed in, tilt is automatically adjusted for changes in altitude and/or range
371
VOICE/BOTH Switch ACP:
VOICE- Station ID is filtered out allowing only voice signals to be audible.
BOTH- No filtering
372
EMER/NORM Switch ACP:
NORM: Provides normal comm. functions
EMER: Bypasses audio electronics control unit.
373
APU Fire push switch light:
1. APU bottle squib is armed
2. BOTTLE ARM PUSH TO DISC Switchlight illuminates
3. APU Fuel Feed SOV Closes
4. APU Fire shutoff relay is energized
5. APU LCV closes
6. APU Gen is tripped off
374
The goal of the Generator Control Unit (GCU):
```
Protect from:
Over/under voltage
Over/underfrequency
Generator or bus overcurrent
Generator phase sequence
```
375
When will the ADG automatically deploy?
AC BUS 1 and 2 Unpowered
NO WOW Signal
Aircraft gen. last power source online (prevent deployment on jacks)
376
What are the three functions of the Fuel Boost Pumps?
1. Move fuel from the collector tanks
2. Back up ejectors during start
3. Back up the ejectors during an ejector failure
377
What functions does the Anti-Skid System provide?
Wheel skid control (no wheel skid)
Touchdown protection (locked wheel on touchdown)
Locked wheel protection (no locked wheel during rollout)
378
Low Pressure Air is connected what must you do?
Turn off PACKs, Not req’d to turn off RECIRC fans.
379
Pressing ROLL SEL gives you what?
Normal operation is onside ailerons, farside MFS. When you select ROLL SEL it will also give you onside MFS.
380
Tell about Main Battery?
24V, 17ampere-hours
381
How is the hydraulic systems 1 and 2 cooled on the ground?
Electric driven fan.
382
How is the CSD oil cooled?
Air to oil heat exchanger.
383
Why would you MAN DISARM when doing an evacuation?
Stows boards/allows passengers to not get tripped up on the way out.
384
When does the EGPWS cue the Flaps?
245’
385
When do you get the EICAS Caution message for spoilers?
Below 300’
386
What is the trim setting set for on takeoff?
Single Engine V1 cut
