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Fire Lieutenant > Known Study Deck IV > Flashcards

Known Study Deck IV Flashcards

1
Q

This command status term is only used to indicate that incident management is no longer needed but the incident remains open to account for crews remaining on the scene.

A

Terminate Command

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2
Q

As an investigator in an accident/injury, you will make recommendations for corrective, disciplinary or administrative action. (T or F)

A

True

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3
Q

Who can authorize the use of hose lines or other firefighting equipment for crowd control?

A

Fire Chief

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4
Q

In the Four-C communication model, in which step does the sender transmit the message?

A

Convey

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5
Q

Any employee who witnesses an incident of sexual harassment has a responsibility to report it. (T or F)

A

True

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6
Q

The supervisors handbook is a guide for use from the point where the supervisor first notes an area of unsatisfactory performance in an employee. Once the employee corrects the problem area, the process is terminated at that step. (T or F)

A

True

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7
Q

It is appropriate to conduct informal disciplinary action without consulting with the Human Resources Manager. (T or F)

A

True

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8
Q

A supervisor’s contact form is used with _________

a) regular employees
b) probationary employees
c) monthly probationary employees
d) both regular and probationary employees

A

D. Both regular and probationary employees

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9
Q

Employees who anticipate a “chewing out” will respond better if the supervisor uses the “sandwich technique”, where criticism is wedged between friendly commendations. (T or F)

A

False

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10
Q

Asking the question, “was it the straw that broke the camel’s back, or just the straw”, falls into which general category?

a) Balance
b) Substantive, Verify, Investigate
c) Timely
d) Legitimacy

A

b) Substantive, verify, investigate

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11
Q

Disciplinary action for ___________ reasons are excluded in a supervisor’s right to discipline for just cause.

A

Arbitrary or capricious

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12
Q

Exceptions may be made in adequate warning an employee of the consequences of his/her conduct for:

a) insubordination
b) drinking of the job
c) unauthorized removal of city property
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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13
Q

When trying to determine mitigating or aggravating circumstances in contemplating disciplinary action, you should include:

a) period of time since last discipline
b) prior conduct record
c) A and B
d) none of the above

A

c) both period or time since last discipline and prior conduct record.

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14
Q

In general, under Civil Service rules, probationary employees are entitled to a hearing. (T or F)

A

False

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15
Q

Typically, an accident/injury investigation should not exceed how many days?

A

10 working days

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16
Q

If an accident/injury investigation exceeds the time frame and there is a delay, the department head that is assigned the investigation will advise:

a) the Human Resource Manager
b) the Risk Manager
c) the City Attorney and/or Risk Manager
d) the City Attorney and/or Human Resource Manger

A

c) The City Attorney and/or Risk Manager

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17
Q

When drafting an accident investigation report, it should include the following:

a) Finding of facts, Opinions, Recommendations, and Concluding action.
b) Preliminary statement, Opinions, Recommendations, Final Preparation, and Concluding Report.
c) Preliminary Statement, Finding of Facts, Recommendations, Final Preparation, and Concluding Report.
d) Preliminary Statement, Finding of Facts, Opinions, Recommendations, Final Preparation, and Concluding Action.

A

d) Preliminary Statement, Finding of Facts, Opinions, Recommendations, Final Preparation, and Concluding Action.

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18
Q

The supervisor handbook can be interpreted to create expressed or implied contractual rights between the city and any employees. (T or F)

A

False

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19
Q

An alcohol reasonable suspicion determination must be based on observations and facts related to an employee’s condition and /or performance just before or while the employee is to perform work for the city. (T or F)

A

True

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20
Q

As Battalion Chief and an acting member of the incident management system, job duties would never include serving as the Incident Commander. (T or F)

A

False

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21
Q

If a supervisor sees employees or stewards violating labor agreement rules regarding discussion Union business, he/she would inform:

a) the employees
b) the employees and if necessary Human Resources
c) Human resources
d) the steward

A

b) the employees and if necessary Human Resources

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22
Q

As a supervisor, you should not give the steward a “heads up” to department actions being planned. It is better for the steward to communicate through his/her union. (T or F)

A

False

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23
Q

There is no difference between a request and a grievance and therefore both need to be acted on promptly. (T or F)

A

False

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24
Q

Employees covered by the Collective Bargaining Agreement (CBA) must request union involvement in a grievance. (T or F)

A

False

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25
Q

Employee safety is the only exception to the employee’s contract that states employees must continue working and grieve the dispute later. (T or F)

A

True

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26
Q

A Step 1 grievance meeting requires an on-site union representative to be present. (T or F)

A

False

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27
Q

After Step 1 grievance meeting a supervisor will give a verbal decision within the required time frame. (T or F)

A

True

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28
Q

Which of the following best describes the basic premise of risk management?

a) There are risks involved in everything a person does.
b) We never have direct control over the degree of risk we assume.
c) Risk assessment is a one-time activity in the process of risk management.
d) Once a risk is identified, the risk can be managed.

A

d) Once a risk is identified, the risk can be managed.

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29
Q

Risk Management includes:

a) Obtaining insurance information from accident victims.
b) Ensuring that personnel are accounted for.
c) Assigning a Public Information Officer.
d) Training personnel to recognize insurance fraud.

A

b) Ensuring that personnel are accounted for.

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30
Q

A safety officer fulfills once aspect of their role in risk management by establishing _____________.

A

egress/escape routes

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31
Q

The risk assessment model consists of which of the following two phases?

a) Develop controls and make decisions
b) Supervise and evaluate
c) Assessment and action
d) Identify hazards and implement controls

A

c) Assessment and action

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32
Q

Supervisors should not use prepared notes when communicating to en employee because this suggests you are not personalizing the conversation. (T or F)

A

False

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33
Q

The investigation of a violation of the sexual harassment policy will result in factual determination. What name is given to a determination where the factual findings are unable to determine the guilt or innocence of the accused employee?

A

Unsubstantiated

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34
Q

Risk/benefit decision making should be ________ driven.

a) logistically
b) incident commander
c) incident action plan
d) value

A

d) value

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35
Q

Which of the following requires a higher level of diligence on the part of the fire officers because it has proven to be significantly higher risk situation?

a) firefighters working dumpster fires
b) firefighters working below fire
c) firefighters working at vehicle fires
d) firefights working on overhaul

A

b) firefighters working below fire

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36
Q

The primary function of officers working within a Division or Group is to take part in the operating of their individual crews in performing assigned tasks. (T or F)

A

False

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37
Q

Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining personnel accountability throughout an incident duration?

A

Incident Commander

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38
Q

The four incident strategic priorities, in order of priority are; life safety, property conservation, incident stabilization, and incident support activities. (T or F)

A

True

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39
Q

Task level communications should be ________

A

face to face

40
Q

Once units are on the scene, only _______ may initiate the transfer to an alternative radio frequency.

A

Incident Commander

41
Q

During the “initial stage” of an incident, the two-out provision may be provided by the pump-operator and the incident commander. (T or F)

A

True

42
Q

This is where every patient filters through prior to movement into the Treatment Area.

A

Funnel point

43
Q

Hazard control zones ______________

a) establish incident perimeters
b) establish who is in command
c) establish entry control points
d) both a and b
e) both a and c

A

e) both a and c

44
Q

Who maintains responsibility for mitigation of a hazardous materials incident when the call is on private property or a business where the substances are contained?

A

Property owners

45
Q

Firefighters operating in a hazardous area shall operate ____________

a) independently
b) in teams of three or more
c) in teams of two or more
d) in two teams of three or more

A

c) in teams of two or more

46
Q

During unstable or high-risk incidents the fire dispatcher should communicate the passage of time to the Incident Commander at ___________ minute intervals.

A

10 minutes

47
Q

A(n) ___________ is established to oversee local management of multiple or large scale/complex incidents.

A

Area Command

48
Q

A(n) __________ represents the physical location at which the coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities normally take place.

A

Emergency Operations Center (EOC)

49
Q

A written reprimand follows established procedures for Notice of Discharge/Discipline and should be placed in a probationary employee’s personnel file. (T or F)

A

True

50
Q

The Area Command does not have _________ responsibilities.

A

Operational

51
Q

(The) ___________ is designed to be the basic, everyday operating system for all incidents.

A

Incident Command System

52
Q

What radio designator is assigned to the Incident Safety Officer?

A

“Safety”

53
Q

A Division Supervisor’s scope of responsibility encompasses all activities within a specific _________ area.

A

Geographical

54
Q

A Group Supervisor’s scope of responsibility encompasses a specific ________ assignment.

A

Functional

55
Q

Which command level involves the overall command of the incident?

A

Strategic

56
Q

The Division or Group Supervisor must be in position to directly supervise and monitor operations. (T or F)

A

True

57
Q

Which incident management level position is most often implemented as a span-of-control measure?

A

Operations section

58
Q

Branches should operate their area of responsibility on separate radio channels. (T or F)

A

True

59
Q

When an incident is multi-jurisdictional, resources are best managed by the agency in command of the incident. (T or F)

A

False

60
Q

Which Section Chief is responsible for Staging and Air Operations?

A

Operations

61
Q

Which ICS Command Staff position is the point of contact for representatives from other agencies.

A

Liason

62
Q

Certification from a professional physician that an employee is sufficiently recovered to be able to return to work must be attached to the Leave Request/Authorization slip if the employee is on sick leave for two or more shifts. (T or F)

A

True

63
Q

An employee may donate accrued vacation leave to another qualified requesting employee after the employee donating leave has been employee for at least _____________.

A

6 months

64
Q

An employee who has completed six (6) full months of employment with the department may exchange full or partial shift trades or full Kelly days with another employee of the same permanent rank. (T or F)

A

False

65
Q

How long must a new employee work for the department before their name is added to the overtime roster?

A

One year

66
Q

How often within a 24 month period following entry into a rehabilitation program may an employee be randomly re-tested?

A

Quarterly

67
Q

_________ shall be worn when engaged in firefighting and/or any other situations where thermal injuries to the head and face may occur.

A

Protective hood

68
Q

A Battalion Chief must have the ability to meet the medical standards as required by:

a) LEOFF and NFPA 1583
b) NFPA 1500
c) LEOFF
d) LEOFF and NFPA 1500

A

c) LEOFF

69
Q

The ___________ establishes standard operating procedures for establishing and managing command.

A

ICS

70
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the department policy on sanitation, disinfecting, cleaning and storage areas is followed?

A

The Station officer

71
Q

What type of debriefing is utilized during large-scale events that last a minimum of eight hours?

A

Demobilization services

72
Q

What is the name of the physical area of roadway with which emergency personnel perform work-related tasks?

A

The Traffic Work Zone

73
Q

It may be necessary to assign a/an _______ to oversee the safety of personnel who are working on patients within the vehicle themselves.

A

Spotter

74
Q

What is included in the primary objective of post fire operations?

A

Preventing additional damage

75
Q

Who is able to grant exceptions to the full PPE requirement at the incident scene?

A

Incident Commander

76
Q

What is the minimum number of personnel the Bremerton Fire Department will send on a request for mutual aid response to a fire?

A

Five

77
Q

What is the name given to a fire burning in natural vegetation that requires an individual or crew(s) to expend more than one hour of labor to confine, control, and extinguish?

A

Wildland Fire

78
Q

Who is responsible for determining when a fire should be categorized as an “Urban Wildfire”?

A

Incident Commander

79
Q

Members responding to incidents involving weapons shall _________ until the scene is declared “secured/contained”.

A

Stage or standby

80
Q

During periods of civil disturbance, how many personnel are required to always be with an apparatus?

A

2

81
Q

Responsibility for maintaining a Competency Based Training Master Delivery Plan rests with the __________.

A

Training Division

82
Q

Station tours are limited to ________ per month, per shift.

A

2

83
Q

Who is responsible for administering the medical qualifications aspects of the respiratory protection program?

A

Health and Safety Officer

84
Q

When personnel have been tasked to fill out a Firefighter Observation Report, it shall be completed ______________.

A

Prior to leaving the scene.

85
Q

What should be initiated when there is a change from an offensive to a defensive mode or whenever the Incident Commander or Command Staff determines a need?

A

Roll call for numbers

86
Q

On the first of each month, Drug check-off sheets will be forwarded to the __________ for review.

A

Medical Officer

87
Q

In addition to completing the required number of years as a Lieutenant, a person hoping to be eligible to test for Fire Station Captain must also have completed ____________ and ___________________ training.

A

Incident Safety Officer and Instructor I

88
Q

Once units are on the scene, only ________ may initiate the transfer to an alternative radio frequency.

A

The Incident Commander

89
Q

Only the supervisors should develop a plan for improvement. (T or F)

A

False

90
Q

A drug or alcohol impaired employee is estimated to function at _______ of full work potential.

A

67%

91
Q

The ICS is used to facilitate the completion of the ____________

A

Tactical priorities

92
Q

What is the name given to a document which carries the weight of a SOP/SOG/FOG for periods not to exceed six months (180 days)?

A

Directives bulletin

93
Q

A notice of discipline served to Civil Service employees, must be reviewed by:

A

The Civil Service Office & Human Resource Manager

94
Q

It is permissible to omit steps in the progressive discipline procedure for cases of gross misconduct. (T or F)

A

True

95
Q

A Battalion Chief is required to maintain physical condition, although there is no requirement of how many pounds he/she can lift. (T or F)

A

False

96
Q

What is the first step in the logical process for Incident Commanders to manage tactical assignments?

a) Develop the incident action plan
b) Size up
c) Communicate assignments
d) request additional resources

A

c) Communicate Assignments

Fire Lieutenant (6 decks)

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