KLUBSY: QUALITY ASSESSMENT & QUALITY CONTROL Flashcards

1
Q

Preanalytical, analytical, and post analytical phase is under what quality management?

A

Quality Assurance

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2
Q

Promotes a philosophy that everyone involved in the laboratory workflow has a responsibility for a quality product

A

Total Quality Management (TQM)

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3
Q

This encompasses suppliers, health care team, management,
and patientsTQ

A

TQM

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4
Q

What are the 5 elements of TQM?

A
  • Quality planning
  • Quality lab process
  • quality control
  • quality assessment
  • quality improvement
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5
Q

This Element of TQM that strive to continually improve practices and not just meet established quality standards

A

Continuous quality improvement (CQI)

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6
Q

Its goal is to reduce the number of defects to near zero by systematically identifying and eliminating causes of
defects/errors

A

SIX SIGMA

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7
Q

Its goal is to reduce variability in processes

A

Six sigma

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8
Q

What is the tool used in six sigma?

A

DMAIC

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9
Q

DMAIC stands for:

A

D - Define
M - Measure
A - Analyze
I - Improve
C - Control

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10
Q

Its goal is to eliminate/ reduce wastes (nonvalued activities) in
the production or manufacturing processes

A

Lean

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11
Q

What tools are used for Lean?

A

5S & PDCA

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12
Q

5S in lean stands for:

A

1-Sort
2- Set in order
3 - Shine
4 - Standardize
5 - sustain

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13
Q

PDCA stands for:

A

P - plan
D - do
C - check
A - act

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14
Q

What are the 8 WASTES of lean?

A
  • Defects
  • Overpopulation
  • Waiting
  • Non utilized talents
  • Transportation
  • Inventory
  • Motion
  • Extra processing
    “DOWNTIME”
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15
Q
A
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16
Q

Selected employees are trained to become experts and
lead efforts

A

Lean-Six Sigma

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17
Q

Dedicate 100% of their time to QI
projects, proactively addressing
process and quality opportunities for
improvement

A

Black belt/Project coaches and leaders

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18
Q

Dedicate 20% of their time to
improvement projects while delivering
their normal job functions

A

green belt/project team members

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19
Q

Includes a full day basic LSS training,
including interactive and didactic
training program, as a prerequisite for
all participation in projects

A

Yellow belt

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20
Q

Attend a 1-day training class and
usually mid- to senior-level leader who
review the project, remove
organizational barriers and encourage
the team members

A

Project sponsors/champions

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21
Q

Systematic process that ensures a quality laboratory service

A

Quality Assurance

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22
Q

A complete system of creating and following procedures and
policies which aims to provide the most reliable patient lab
results and minimize errors in all phases of testing.

A

Quality Assurance

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23
Q

A program where overall activities conducted by the
institution are direct toward assuring the quality of the
produces and services provided

A

Quality Assurance

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24
Q

What are the 3 phases of testing?

A
  • Preanalytical
  • analytical
  • post analytical
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25
Q

Preanalytical testing begins with what?

A

starts with the physician’s order

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26
Q

Processes prior to the actual testing, starting with the
physician’s order

A

preanalytical

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27
Q

T/F: 32% to 75% of all testing errors occur in the pre-analytic
phase

A

TRUE

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28
Q

Statistically, all testing errors occur in the preanalytical testing. What percent?

A

32% to 75%

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29
Q

Factors that affect the laboratory results due to handling
of the specimen sample prior to analysis

A

Preanalytical testing

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30
Q

The actual laboratory testing or diagnostic procedures,
processes and products that provide the results

A

Analytical testing

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31
Q

Includes standardization, preventive maintenance,
operator competence, verification of instrument linearity,
precision, accuracy and reliability, quality control,

A

Analytical phase

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32
Q

Processes following the examination including systematic
review, formatting, authorization for release, timely and
accurate reporting and transmission of results, and
storage of samples of the examinations

A

Post analytical phase

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33
Q

Phase of testing: test ordering

A

Preana

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34
Q

Phase of testing: patient ID & preparation

A

preana

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35
Q

Phase of testing: spx collection

A

preana

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36
Q

Phase of testing: spx transport

A

preana

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37
Q

Phase of testing: spx prep

A

preana

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38
Q

Phase of testing: spx storage

A

preana

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39
Q

Phase of testing: instrument selection and assay

A

analytical phase

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40
Q

Phase of testing: assay validation

A

analytical

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41
Q

Phase of testing: internal QC

A

analytical

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42
Q

Phase of testing: external qc

A

analytical

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43
Q

Phase of testing: preventive maintenance

A

analytical

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44
Q

Phase of testing: accuracy in transcription of results

A

Post ana

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45
Q

Phase of testing: content and format of lab narrative report

A

post ana

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46
Q

Phase of testing: reference interval & therapeutic range

A

post ana

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47
Q

Phase of testing: timeliness of results reporting

A

post ana

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48
Q

Phase of testing: TAT

A

post ana

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49
Q

Phase of testing: patient & physician satisfaction

A

post ana

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50
Q

a system ensuring accuracy and precision in the laboratory
including: monitoring performance of lab instrument, and
reagents, using quality control reagents in every series of
measurements

A

Quality control

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51
Q

Detects analytical errors during testing and ultimately
preventing the reporting of inaccurate patient results

A

Quality control

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52
Q

Part of performance monitoring that occurs after a test has
been established

A

Quality control

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53
Q

What are the 3 objectives of quality control?

A

1-check stability of machine
2-heck quality of reagents
3-check technical errors

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54
Q

What are the 8 parameters of QC?

A

1-Analytical sensitivity
2-Analytical specificity
3-Accuracy
4-precision
5- Practicability
6-Reliability
7-Diagnostic sensitivity
8-Diagnostic specificty

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55
Q

This specimen utilized should resemble the sample with a
known concentration of the analyte being measured in the
testing procedure

A

Control

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56
Q

These are treated in exactly the same way as any unknown
specimen

A

Control

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57
Q

Minimum control specimens for general chemistry?

A

2 levels of
control (run at least once each day of patient testing)

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58
Q

What are the 6 characteristics of an ideal QC material?

A

1-resembles human sample
2-inexpensive and stable for long periods
3-no communicable diseases
4-no matrix effects/known matrix effects
5-with known analyte concentration (assayed control)
6-convenient packaging for easy dispensing and storage

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59
Q

similar in composition with the specimen

A

Control

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60
Q

T/F: The
value of control is unknown

A

False.
Correct ans: KNOWN

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61
Q

Highly purified substances of known
composition

A

Standard

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62
Q

best way to measure accuracy

A

Standard

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63
Q

using a standard, this is the best way to measure WHAT?

A

best way to measure ACCURACY

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64
Q

Best measurements of precision

A

Control

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65
Q

with a control, this is the best measurement for what?

A

PRECISION

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66
Q

Used to calibrate an instrument or develop a
standard curve

A

Standard

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67
Q

T/F:
-Control: precision; standard: accuracy

A

TRUE

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68
Q

What are the 2 types of QC?

A
  • Internal QC
  • External QC
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69
Q

What are the alternate names for internal QC and external QC, respetively?

A
  • Intralaboratory
  • Interlaboratory
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70
Q

This is performed by the lab personnel using control materials of
known values and comparing the values to established
acceptable ranges

A

Internal QC

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71
Q

Control material values are assessed using Levey-Jennings
control charts and Westgard multirules to detect errors

A

Internal QC

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72
Q

In internal QC, control material values are assessed using what?

A

Levey-Jennings
control charts and Westgard multirules to detect errors

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73
Q

this is Essential for daily monitoring of accuracy & precision

A

internal QC

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74
Q

This kind of QC detects random and systematic error

A

internal QC

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75
Q

Proficiency testing programs that periodically provide
samples of unknown concentrations to participating
clinical laboratories

A

external QC

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76
Q

Significant in maintaining long-term accuracy of the
analytical method

A

External QC

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77
Q

Allows laboratory to evaluate the performance by
comparing the mean, SD and CV

A

EXTERNAL QC

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78
Q

In external QC, THIS Allows laboratory to evaluate the performance by
comparing what parameters?

A

the mean, SD and CV

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79
Q

In external QC, this result means that laboratory is not in
agreement with other laboratories included in the
program. What is the standard deviation index?

A

SDI > 2

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80
Q

An SDI of > 2 means what?

A

means POOR PERFORMANCE in external QC

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81
Q

What is the acceptable SDI for proficiency testing?

A

SDI of <2

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82
Q

Proficiency testing is a.k.a?

A

external quality assurance

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83
Q

external quality assurance is a.k.a?

A

proficiency testing

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84
Q

Administered by an external organization wherein they send
sets of unknown samples (PT samples or challenges) to the
laboratory for analysis

A

proficiency testing

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85
Q

what is the Gold standard for clinical laboratory proficiency testing?

A

College of American Pathology (CAP program)

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86
Q

This is the difference between the test and reference method
results

A

Error

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87
Q

An error is the difference between what?

A

difference between the test and reference method
results

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88
Q

Total Error is determined by what?

A

Determined by replication and comparison

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89
Q

What is the formula for total error?

A

random error + systematic error

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90
Q

Random error detects/measures what?

A

IMPRECISION

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91
Q

To measure/detect IMPRECISION, what error must be used?

A

random error

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92
Q

this error is one with no trend or means of predicting because they
have no known pattern

A

random error

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93
Q

it is due to chance and varies from sample to sample

A

random error

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94
Q

this type of error is present in all measurements

A

random error

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95
Q

Test used for determination of random error?

A

REPLICATION EXPERIMENT

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96
Q

Remedy for random error?

A

Reassay using the same rgnt

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97
Q

Random error is indicated by what?

A

STANDARD ERROR ESTIMATES due to instrument, operator, and environmental conditions

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98
Q

Systematic error detects/measures what?

A

INACCURACY

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99
Q

To detect/measure INACCURACY what type of error is used?

A

SYSTEMATIC ERROR

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100
Q

This type of error is predictable and cause a constant difference in results in one direction (positive or negative) or stay the same

A

Systematic error

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101
Q

this type of error is repeating

A

systematic error

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102
Q

this type of error is easily predicted

A

systematic error

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103
Q

T/F: Systematic error is seen as a trend on data

A

TRUE

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104
Q

Systematic error is determined by what?

A

comparison method

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105
Q

systematic error is assessed by what?

A

stepwise evaluation of procedures

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106
Q

this is the usually the first step taken in systematic error

A

recalibration of the assay

107
Q

Systematic errors are due to what? (3)

A
  • calibration problems
  • deterioration of rgnts and control materials
  • contaminated solutions
108
Q

what are the 2 types of systematic errors?

A

1- constant
2- proportional

109
Q

RE or SE: Pipetting error/reagent
dispensing

110
Q

RE/SE: Sample evaporation

111
Q

RE/SE: Mislabeling of samples

112
Q

RE/SE: Improper mixing of sample and rgnt

113
Q

RE/SE: Temperature fluctuation

114
Q

RE/SE: Voltage fluctuations not
compensated for by the
instrument circuitry

115
Q

RE/SE: Electro-optical
mechanism

116
Q

RE/SE: Environmental
conditions

117
Q

RE/SE: Variation in handling
techniques: pipetting,
mixing, timing,

118
Q

RE/SE: Variation in operators

119
Q

RE/SE: Improper calibration

120
Q

RE/SE: Deterioration of reagents & control materials

121
Q

RE/SE:Improperly made standard solutions

122
Q

RE/SE: Contaminated solutions

123
Q

RE/SE: Wear and tear of
instruments

124
Q

RE/SE: Sample Instability

125
Q

RE/SE: Unstable and inadequate rgnt blanks

126
Q

RE/SE: Leaky ion selective
electrode (ISE)

127
Q

RE/SE: Failing instrumentation
Instrument drift &
malfunction

128
Q

RE/SE: Poorly written
procedures

129
Q

What are the measures of central tendency?

A

1-mean
2- median
3-mode

130
Q

What are the measures of spread or dispersion?

A

1-range
2-Standard deviation
3- coefficient of variation
4-variance

131
Q

this is the Average of the individual values in the sample set

132
Q

how to calculate for the mean?

A

To calculate, divide the sum of all the individual values by
the number (n) of values in the set

133
Q

Number in the middle ofan ordered data set/ midpoint of
the distribution

134
Q

What is the first step in determining the median?

A

Rank the data set in numerical order to determine the
middle point

135
Q

Most frequently found number(s) in a data set

136
Q

Used to describe data that seem to have two centers

137
Q

Referred to when in reference to the shape of the data

138
Q

this is the difference between the highest and lowest score in a
data

139
Q

good measure of dispersion for small samples of data

140
Q

what is the disadvantage of RANGE?

A

susceptible to extreme values or outliers

141
Q

This measure of spread or dispersion is susceptible to extreme values or outliers

142
Q

Most frequently used measure of variation

A

standard deviation

143
Q

measure of the dispersion of values from the mean

A

standard deviation

144
Q

this helps describe normal curve

A

standard deviation

145
Q

this is a measure of distribution
range

A

standard deviation

146
Q

aka Relative Standard Deviation (RSD)

A

Coefficienct of variation (CV)

147
Q

Coefficient of variation is a.k.a

A

Relative standard deviation

148
Q

this is the percentile expression of the mean

149
Q

this is an INDEX of PRECISION

150
Q

this is used extensively to summarize QC
data

151
Q

Formula for CV?

A

CV= (SD/Mean) x 100

152
Q

this is the standard deviation squared (S)

153
Q

this is the “average” distance from the mean and every value in
the dataset.

154
Q

represents difference between each value and the
average of the data or average ofthe squared distances of
all values from the mean

155
Q

formula for variance?

156
Q

2 types of inferential statistics?

A

1-parametric analysis
2- nonparametric analysis

157
Q

A Statistical test that assumes the
observed values, or some mathematical
transformation of those values, flow a
(normal) Gaussian distribution

A

Parametric analysis

158
Q

What type of inferential statistics is MOST preferred in the laboratory?

A

Parametric analysis

159
Q

A Statistical test that makes no specific
assumption about the distribution of
data

A

nonparametric analysis

160
Q

T/F: Nonparametric methods rank the
reference data in order of decreasing
size

A

FALSE: increasing size

161
Q

This assesses the accuracy using the mean

162
Q

this assesses the precision using the standard deviation

163
Q

t test is used to assess what?

A

assess accuracy using the mean

“M - mean A - accuracy T - t test” (MAT)

164
Q

f test is used to assess what?

A

assess precision using the standard deviation

“S- standard devi P - prevision F - f test” (SPF)

165
Q

Used to observe values of control materials over time to
determine reliability of the analytical method

A

Quality control charts

166
Q

Utilized to observe and detect analytical errors such as
inaccuracy and imprecision

167
Q

types of QC charts?

A

1-cumulative sum graph (Cusum)
2-Tonks Youden Twin Plot
3-Levy Jenning

168
Q

this systematic error Refers to the difference
between the target value and
assayed value

169
Q

this systematic error is INDEPENDENT on sample conc

170
Q

T/F: a constant systematic error is dependent on sample conc.

A

FALSE. INDEPENDENT

171
Q

This systematic error occurs when y is NOT equal to 0

172
Q

Test used for determination of systematic error

A

interference experiment

173
Q

T/F: Proportional systematic error occurs when y is NOT equal to 1

A

FALSE.

Occurs when SLOPE is NOT equal to 1.

174
Q

This Results in greater devlation
from target value due to
higher sample concentration

A

prorportional

175
Q

This type of systematic error is dependent on sample conc

A

proportional systematic error

176
Q

this type of systematic error occurs when SLOPE is NOT equal to 1

A

proportional

177
Q

Test used for determination of proportional error

A

recovery experiment

178
Q

2 types of QC charts?

A

1-Cumulative Sum Graph (CuSum)
2- Tonks Youden Twin Plot
3- Levy Jenning

179
Q

used for the earliest detection of systematic errors

180
Q

this type of QC chart needs to be
computerized

A

CuSum

*C for computerized

181
Q

this QC chart is used to determine the difference between QC results and the target means

182
Q

What is the indication of an OUT OF CONTROL CuSum?

A

When the slope exceeds 45 degrees or
+2.7SD is exceeded

183
Q

this qc chart compare results obtained on a high and low control serum
from different laboratories

184
Q

Twin plot is a.k.a

185
Q

Plotting mean values for one specimen on the ordinate axis
(y) and the other specimen on the abscissa (x)

186
Q

in the twin plot, this suggests a PROPORTIONAL error

A

Points falling from a center but on 45° line

187
Q

in the twin plot, this suggests a CONSTANT ERROR

A

points falling from the center but not
on the 45° line

188
Q

What error is this suggesting? points falling from the center but not
on the 45° line.

A

constant error

189
Q

What error is this suggesting? Points falling from a center but on 45° line suggest
proportional error

A

proportional error

190
Q

Multi-rules were developed by?

A

James Westgard

191
Q

this is used to determine whether analytical methods are in control

A

westgard multirules

192
Q

What are the 3 Westgard warning rules?

A
  • 1 2s
  • 2 2s
  • 4 1s
193
Q

What are the 3 westgard mandatory rules?

A
  • 10x
  • 1 3s
  • R 4s
194
Q

One control value above or below +/-2 SD

195
Q

this is a warning rule

196
Q

2 consecutive controls above or below +/-2SD

197
Q

1 control above or below +/-3SD

197
Q

One control value above +2SD and one control value below -2SD in the same run

198
Q

10 consecutive controls on same side of mean

198
Q

4 consecutive controls above or
below +/-1SD

198
Q

T/F: All westgard rules except for 12s should be REJECTED

199
Q

For biological studies, control confidence limits are usually
established at??

200
Q

What are the systematic errors in the westgard rules?

A
  • 2 2s
  • 4 1s
  • 10x

*All EVEN numbers

201
Q

what are the random errors in the westgard multirules?

A
  • 1 3s
  • R 4s

*Odd numbers

202
Q

Are trends and shifts a systematic or random error?

A

systematic error

203
Q

Levy Jenning is a.k.a?

204
Q

is representative of the data used to complete the normal or gausslan (bell-shaped) curve

205
Q

Most widely used chart that allows laboratorians to apply
multirules without the use of computers

206
Q

What parameters should be noted on the LJ chart?

A

Mean and SD

207
Q

A Minimum of how many measurements to calculate for the
mean and SD?

A

min of 20 measurements

208
Q

What are the factors needed to construct a LJ chart?

A
  • Mean
  • SD
  • Control values (min. of 20)
209
Q

Y/N: If controls are within +/- 2SD, the run is “in control” and
should be accepted

210
Q

T/F: When values fall outside +/- 2SD, procedure is out of
control

211
Q

What is the protocol in addressing out of control results?

A

1- If any rule is violated, patient results should be held until
problem is resolved
2- Once problem is resolved, patient samples from
previous runs may need to be retested
3-All steps taken to resolve QC errors should be
documented

212
Q

What are 2 errors seen in an LJ chart?

A

1-Trend
2-Shift

213
Q

Abrupt, sudden, and sustained change in one direction in
control sample values.

A

Shift
*GTAS
G-radual T-rend
A-brupt S-hift

214
Q

6 or more consecutive control values on same side of the
mean but maintain a constant level

215
Q

Most common cause of SHIFT errors

A

Improper calibration of instrument

216
Q

This is the gradual change in the control sample results

A

Trend

*GTAS
G-radual T-rend
A-brupt S-hift

217
Q

control values increasing or decreasing for 6 consecutive
means

218
Q

T/F: Shift is a random error and trend is a systematic error

A

FALSE.

Both are systematic errors

219
Q

Most common cause of trends?

A

deterioration of rgnts

220
Q

2nd most common cause of trends?

A

deterioration of control samples

221
Q

Uneven distribution of control values outside +/-1 SD but
within +/-3 SD

A

Dispersion or “scattered”

222
Q

A dispersion has uneven distribution of control values outside what values but
within what values?

A

Values outside +/-1 SD but
within +/-3 SD

223
Q

T/F: Increased dispersion represents loss of precision without
loss of accuracy

224
Q

Increased dispersion = loss of what?

A

loss of precision

225
Q

T/F: increased dispersion = loss of precision and accuracy

A

FALSE.

Loss of precision without loss of accuracy

226
Q

Control results outside established limits

227
Q

May be due to chance or indicate problem in test system

228
Q

If outliers occur more than once in how many successive runs,
invetrgation must be carried out?

A

20 successive runs

229
Q

This include all the data points that
define the range of observations. A pair of medical decision
points that span the limited of results expected for a defined
healthy population

A

reference interval (ranges)

230
Q

All normal ranges are reference intervals, but …

A

but not all
reference intervals are normal ranges

231
Q

T/F: All reference ranges are normal intervals, but not all
normal intervals are reference ranges

A

FALSE.

All normal ranges are reference intervals, but not all
reference intervals are normal ranges

232
Q

Reference intervals are calculated using what mean values?

A

+2SD and -2SD

233
Q

Require from 120 to as
many as 700 study
individuals

A

ESTABLISHING a reference interval

234
Q

to establish a reference interval, how many study individuals is required?

A

120 to as many as 700

235
Q

to verify a reference interval, how many study individuals are needed?

A

20 study individuals

236
Q

Require as few as 20 study
individuals

A

VERIFYING a reference interval

237
Q

A bell-shaped curve and focuses on the distribution of error from the analytical
method

A

Normal distribution/Gaussian Curve

238
Q

the VERIFICATION of a reference interval is a.k.a?

A

Transference studies

239
Q

What are the characteristics of a gaussian curve?

A

1- Mean = media = mode
2- Symmetric distribution
3- Total area under the curve = 1.0/100%

240
Q

What is the “rule” adhered to in normal distribution?

A

68-95-99 rule

241
Q

What is the normal distribution if all numbers will fall between -1SD and +1SD

242
Q

68% of all numbers will fall between??

A

-1SD and +1SD

243
Q

What is the normal distribution if all numbers will fall between -2SD and +2SD?

244
Q

95% of all numbers will fall between??

A

-2SD and +2SD

245
Q

What is the normal distribution if all numbers will fall between -3SD and +3SD?

246
Q

99% of all numbers will fall between??

A

-3SD and +3SD

247
Q

This CI l is used in part to account for certain unavoidable error
caused by sampling variability and imprecision of the
methods themselves.

248
Q

Determine how good a given test is at detecting and
predicting the presence of disease (or physiologic condition)

A

Diagnostic EFFICIENCY

249
Q

what are the measures of diagnostic efficiency?

A

1-diagnostic sensitivity
2-diagnostic specificity
3-Positive Predictive Value (PPV)
4- Negative Predictive Value (NPV)

250
Q

Diagnostic sensitivity and specificity, respectively, is a.k.a?

A

clinical sensitivity and specificity

251
Q

Proportion with the
disease who have a
positive test result

A

D. sensitivity

252
Q

Proportion without the
disease who have a
negative test result

A

D. specificity

253
Q

Proportion with a
disease who have a
positive test result
compared with all
individuals who have a
positive test result

254
Q

Proportion without a
disease who have a
negative test result
compared with all
individuals who have a
negative test result

255
Q

What is the formula for D. sensitivity?

A

TP/TP+FN x100

256
Q

what is the formula for D. specificity?

A

TN/TN+FP x 100

257
Q

What is the formula for PPV?

A

TP/TP+FP X 100

*Lahat ng may positive

258
Q

What is the formula for NPV?

A

TN/TN+FN X 100

*Lahat ng may negative

259
Q

This measure of diagnostic efficiency prevents FALSE NEGATIVES?

A

Sensitivity

260
Q

This measure of diagnostic efficiency prevents FALSE POSITIVES

A

Specificity