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King Air 200 Memory Items > King Air 200 Flight Controls & Avionics > Flashcards

King Air 200 Flight Controls & Avionics Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable altitude with yaw damping inoperative?

A. 10,000 feet
B. 17,000 feet
C. 20,000 feet
D. 25,000 feet

A

B. 17,000 feet

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2
Q
  1. What happens when the FLAP handle is positioned from DOWN to APPROACH?

A. The flaps bypass the APPROACH position and retract fully.
B. The flaps do not retract.
C. The flaps retract to the APPROACH position.
D. The flaps retract completely, then return to the APPROACH position.

A

..not sure…

C. The flaps retract to the APPROACH position.

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3
Q
  1. How is electric trim initiated?

A. Either the pilot or copilot moves either element of their respective PITCH TRIM switch.
B. Both the pilot and the copilot simultaneously move both elements of their respective PITCH TRIM switches in the same direction.
C. Either the pilot or the copilot moves both elements of the respective PITCH TRIM switch simultaneously.
D. Both the pilot and copilot simultaneously move either element of the respective PITCH TRIM switches in the same direction.

A

C. Either the pilot or the copilot moves both elements of the respective PITCH TRIM switch simultaneously.

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4
Q
  1. Why must the rudder control lock be removed prior to towing the aircraft?

A. So the aircraft can be steered with the rudder pedals
B. So the brakes can be applied
C. To prevent damage to the steering linkage
D. It is not necessary to remove the rudder control lock prior to towing

A

C. To prevent damage to the steering linkage

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5
Q
  1. How can the rudder boost system be checked for proper operation during engine runup?

A. Increasing power on an engine until the rudder pedal on the same side moves forward
B. Increasing power on an engine until the rudder pedal on the opposite side moves forward
C. Rudder boost operation cannot be checked during engine runup
D. Reducing power on an engine and noting that neither rudder pedal moves forward

A

A. Increasing power on an engine until the rudder pedal on the same side moves forward

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6
Q
  1. How is the stall warning system normally tested prior to flight?

A. By manually actuating the lift transducer vane
B. By manually actuating the lift transducer vane and simultaneously positioning the STALL WARN TEST switch to TEST
C. The system cannot be tested prior to flight
D. By positing the STALL WARN TEST switch to TEST

A

D. By positing the STALL WARN TEST switch to TEST

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7
Q
  1. The airplane attitude is displayed on the _____________ during normal operation.

A. Pilot’s MFD
B. Pilot’s CDU
C. Copilot’s MFD
D. Pilot’s PFD

A

D. Pilot’s PFD

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8
Q
  1. If one of the aFDs becomes unusable due to a failure, the same display can be moved to a different display unit by using the reversion controls, which are located on the ______________________.

A. EFIS control panel.
B. FCS control panel.
C. Reversionary control panel.
D. audio control panel.

A

C. Reversionary control panel.

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9
Q
  1. Selection and deselection of a flight guidance mode is accomplished by pressing the appropriate mode select switch on the ______________________.

A. Flight guidance panel.
B. autopilot control panel.
C. Display control panel.
D. Mode select panel (MSP).

A

B. autopilot control panel.

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10
Q
  1. The following is not a lateral mode of the flight guidance system:

A. Roll mode
B. Flight level change (FLC)
C. Lateral navigation
D. Localizer Back Course (LOC/BC)

A

B. Flight level change (FLC)

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11
Q
  1. Selections of VHF radio functions are all completed through the audio control panel, with the exception of _________________.

A. Frequency selection.
B. audio level.
C. Reception mode.
D. Transmission mode.

A

B. audio level.

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12
Q
  1. The MFD provides the pilot with ______ information in the normal operating mode.

a. airspeed
b. aDI
c. Decision height
e. Engine parameter

A

e. Engine parameter

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13
Q
  1. The display control panel is located ______________________.

a. Between the PFD and MFD.
B. above the PFD and MFD.
C. On the left side of the pilot’s instrument panel.
D. Next to the CDU.

A

a. Between the PFD and MFD.

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14
Q
  1. During normal operation, decision height can be seen on the ______________.

a. MFD.
b. PFD.
c. CDU.
d. Standby unit.

A

b. PFD.

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15
Q
  1. In the event of failure of either the PFD or MFD, the engine information system (EIS) indications are:

a. Displayed at the top of the remaining display unit
B. Displayed at the bottom of the remaining display unit
C. Not displayed on the remaining unit
D. Moved to the standby unit

A

WAG

a. Displayed at the top of the remaining display unit

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16
Q
  1. Initialization of FMS present position is accomplished by:

a. Navigating to the flight plan page and pressing PPOS
B. Entering FMS position on the LEGS page
C. Navigating to the POS INIT page and choosing the most accurate position
D. The FMS automatically and never requires pilot input

A

C. Navigating to the POS INIT page and choosing the most accurate position

17
Q
  1. The output of the No. 1 AHRS provides pitch, roll, and heading display on the

a. PFD.
b. EID.
c. ND.
d. MFD.

A

a. PFD.

18
Q
  1. Control of weather radar functions is accomplished through the ______________.

a. Weather radar control panel.
b. MFD control panel.
c. PFD control panel.
d. Display control panel.

A

d. Display control panel.

19
Q
  1. For TCaS traffic symbol displays, which of the following indicates a Resolution Advisory (RA)?

a. The open cyan diamond
b. The solid red square
c. The solid yellow circle
d. The solid cyan diamond

A

b. The solid red square

20
Q
  1. The weather radar provides the following information to the pilot:

a. Cloud buildup
b. Precipitation intensity
c. Clear air Turbulence
d. all the above

A

WAG

d. all the above

21
Q
  1. Pressing the TERR INHIB button:

a. Deselects enhanced functions of the EGPWS system
B. Deselects the radio altimeter to prevent nuisance alerts
C. Must be accomplished when the FMS database is out of date
D. Cancels all ground proximity system call-outs

A

a. Deselects enhanced functions of the EGPWS system

22
Q
  1. What is the correct switch and position for a copilot’s (#2, right) ADC failure?

a. Press the pilot’s ADC reversion button
B. Press the copilot’s AHS reversion button
C. Press the pilot’s AHS reversion button
D. The ADC switch moved to #1 ADC position

A

D. The aDC switch moved to #1 ADC position

23
Q
  1. For VNaV to operate correctly:

a. an altitude must be entered on the flight plan page
B. The Preselect altitude display must be turned off
C. The Preselect altitude must be set at or beyond VNAV altitude
D. The NAV button on the flight guidance panel must be used

A

C. The Preselect altitude must be set at or beyond VNAV altitude

24
Q
  1. a Wide area augmentation System (WaaS) capable FMS is required before descending to which minimum?

a. LPV
b. LNAV/VNAV
c. LNAV
d. GLS

A

b. LNAV/VNAV

25
Q
  1. Loss Of Integrity (LOI) messages indicate:

A. FMS can be used for enroute navigation only
B. FMS can be used for terminal navigation only
C. FMS can be used up to the Final Approach Fix (FAF) but not further
D. FMS cannot be used as primary navigation for any phase of flight

A

D. FMS cannot be used as primary navigation for any phase of flight

26
Q
  1. Space-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) service providers are:

A. Selected automatically by the FMS when flying to LPV minimums
B. Selected manually on the SBAS Service Providers page
C. Not selectable by either the FMS or the pilot since all providers are selected all the time
D. Not required for any SBAS operation but provide for extra accuracy if selected

A

B. Selected manually on the SBAS Service Providers page

27
Q
  1. Multiple named approaches such as RNAV (GPS) Y Rwy 13 and RNAV (GPS) Z Rwy 13:

A. Are selectable in the FMS
B. Are not selectable in the FMS and a different approach must be used
C. Are selectable in the FMS but not allowed to be flown
D. Are not displayed in the FMS until within the 30nm terminal area

A

A. Are selectable in the FMS

28
Q
  1. Barometric-VNAV (baro-VNAV) can be used:

A. For LPV, LNAV/VNAV, and LNAV minimums
B. For only LPV minimums
C. For LNAV/VNAV and LNAV minimums
D. Only in the enroute and terminal areas but not approache

A

C. For LNAV/VNAV and LNAV minimums

NOT LPV Approaches!
Localizer Performance with Vertical guidance

29
Q
  1. Descending to LPV minimums after the FAF requires:

a. The green APPR label on the PFD
b. The green GPS APPR label on the PFD
c. The green LPV APPR label on the PFD
d. The white or green LPV APPR label on the PFD

A

c. The green LPV APPR label on the PFD

30
Q
  1. Failure of SBAS during an LPV approach:

A. Is not displayed on the PFD and requires the pilot to monitor the CDU flight plan pages
B. Is displayed on the MFD with the message “USE LNAV MINIMUMS”
C. Still allows flight down to LPV minimums as long as the autopilot is engaged
D. Will not be annunciated inside the FAF

A

B. Is displayed on the MFD with the message “USE LNAV MINIMUMS”

31
Q
  1. With a failure of SBAS prior to the FAF on an LPV approach the crew:

A. Must abandon the approach and load a non-GPS based procedure
B. Can only descend to LNAV minimums
C. Must completely reload the approach procedure from the DEP/ARR pages for the FMS to automatically choose
BARO as the APPR VNAV GP
D. Can select BARO as the APPR VNAV GP on the ARR DATA page and continue descent to the LNAV/VNAV minimum

A

D. Can select BARO as the APPR VNAV GP on the ARR DATA page and continue descent to the LNAV/VNAV minimum

King Air 200 Memory Items (12 decks)

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