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Clinical Anatomy > Kines Vocab (complete) > Flashcards

Kines Vocab (complete) Flashcards

1
Q

Kinesiology

A

The study of human movement

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2
Q

Anatomy

A

The science of the shape and structure of the human body and its parts

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3
Q

Physiology

A

The biologic study of living organisms

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4
Q

Biomechanics

A

A discipline that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a living body

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5
Q

Kinematics

A

motion of the body; without regard to the forces or torques that may produce the motion

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6
Q

Translation

A

parts of an object move parallel to and in the same direction as another part of the body

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7
Q

Rotation

A

when a assumed rigid body moves in a circular path about a pivot point

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8
Q

translation, rotation

A

2 types of movement

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9
Q

anterior to sacrum

A

center of mass located:

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10
Q

active movement

A

caused by stimulated muscle contraction

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11
Q

passive movement

A

movement caused by sources other than muscle contraction

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12
Q

open kinematic chain

A

distal segment of a limb is not fixed

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13
Q

closed kinematic chain

A

distal segment of a limb is fixed and grounded

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14
Q

Arthrokinematics

A

describes the motion that occurs between articular surfaces of joints

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15
Q

Roll

A

Multiple points along one rotating articular surface contact multiple points on another articular surface

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16
Q

Slide

A

A single point on one articular surface contacts multiple points on another articular surface

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17
Q

Spin

A

A single point on one articular surface rotates on a single point on another articular surface

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18
Q

tension, compression, bending, shear, torsion, combined

A

common loads applied to the body (6)

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19
Q

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

A

types of joints

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20
Q

synarthrosis (fibrous joint)

A

Junction between bones held together by dense irregular connective tissue….little or no movement…disperses forces

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21
Q

amphiarthrosis (cartilagenous joint)

A

Junction between bones formed primarily by fibrocartilage and/or hyaline cartilage…restrained movements…transmit/disperse forces

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22
Q

diarthrosis (synovial joint)

A

majority of UE/LE joints…specialized for movt

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23
Q

synarthrosis joints

A

sutures of the skull, teeth, distal tibiofibular joint, interosseous membranes of arm/leg

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24
Q

cartilagenous joints

A

intervertebral discs, xiphosternal joint, manubriosternal joint, pubic symphisis

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25
Q

synovial fluid, articular cartilage, articular capsule, synovial membrane, capsular ligaments, blood vessels, nerves

A

7 elements of a synovial joint

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26
Q

intraarticular disc/menisci

A

Pads of fibrocartilage which increase articular congruency and improve force dispersion

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27
Q

labrum

A

Fibrocartilage which forms a bony rim to thicken and support attachments for the joint capsule…deepens concave member of the joint

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28
Q

fat pads

A

Within the joint capsule between the fibrous capsule and the synovial membrane which thickens the joint capsule and fills spaces formed by incongruent bony surfaces

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29
Q

synovial plicae

A

Folds of slack inner layers of joint capsule which increase synovial surface area and reduce tension on synovial lining

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30
Q

evolute

A

the path of the serial locations of the instantaneous axes of rotation. More accurate with smaller arcs of motion.

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31
Q

hinge joint

A

humeroulnar joint, IPs of the digits (what type of joint?)

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32
Q

pivot joint

A

proximal radioulnar joint, atlantoaxial joint (what type of joint?)

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33
Q

ellipsoid joint

A

radiocarpal joint (what type of joint?)

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34
Q

ball-and-socket joint

A

glenohumeral joint, coxafemoral joint (what type of joint?)

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35
Q

plane joint

A

intercarpal, intertarsal joints (what type of joint?)

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36
Q

saddle joint

A

thumb CMC, SC joint (what type of joint?)

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37
Q

condyloid joint

A

MCPs, tibiofemoral joint (what type of joint?)

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38
Q

accessory movements

A

Movements that accompany the classical movements (passive/active) on the articular surfaces

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39
Q

joint play, component movement

A

2 types of accessory movement

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40
Q

joint play

A

normal movement not under voluntary control, occuring in response to an outside force

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41
Q

component movement

A

normal movement not under voluntary control, accompanying active movements

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42
Q

Paris

A

0-ankylosis, 1-very restricted, 2-slightly restricted, 3-normal, 4-slightly hypermobile, 5-very hypermobile, 6-unstable

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43
Q

Kaltenborn

A

1-no movement, 2-hypomobility, 3-normal movement, 4-hypermobility

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44
Q

fibers, ground substances, cells

A

3 basic biological materials that form periarticular connective tissue

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45
Q

fibrous proteins (fibers)

A

collagen (type 1&2), elastin

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46
Q

ground substances

A

glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), water, solutes

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47
Q

cells

A

responsible for maintanence and repair, but sparse - fibroblasts & chondrocytes

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48
Q

Type 1

A

collagen - thick, rugged, strong, little elongation; ligaments, tendons, fascia, joint capsules

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49
Q

Type 2

A

collagen - thin, more flexible; hyaline

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50
Q

Elastin

A

resists tensile, stretching forces with more give…readily returns to original shape; hyaline OR elastic

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51
Q

tendons

A

fibers which are taut and aligned in the direction of pull of the muscle

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52
Q

ligaments

A

wavy, ready for pull in any direction

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53
Q

Dense connective tissue

A

type 1 collagen with low elastin, contains fibroblasts and proteoglycans. Resists tension. Ligaments, tendons, joint capsule

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54
Q

regular

A

tendons and ligaments (regular or irregular dense connective tissue?)

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55
Q

irregular

A

fibrous layers of a joint capsule (regular or irregular dense connective tissue?)

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56
Q

articular connective tissue

A

type 2 collagen with more flexibility, chondrocytes, proteoglycans (no perichondrium). Distributes and absorbs joint forces, reduces joint friction. Hyaline cartilage.

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57
Q

fibrocartilage

A

multidirectional type 1 collagen with fibroblasts and chondrocytes, proteoglycans. Stabilizes joints, dissipates loads across planes, guides arthrokinematics. Menisci, labrum, discs

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58
Q

bone

A

type 1 collagen + osteoblasts + hard ground substance =

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59
Q

compact bone (cortical bone)

A

outer cortex of long bones, highly vascularized, pressure/pain receptors

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60
Q

osteoblasts

A

synthesize ground substance and collagen to form bone

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61
Q

osteoclasts

A

break down bone

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62
Q

Wolff’s Law

A

bone is layed down in areas of high stress and resorbed in areas of low stress

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63
Q

adduction

A

Superior Glenohumeral Ligament is most taut in….

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64
Q

45-60 abduction

A

Middle Glenohumeral Ligament is most taut in…

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65
Q

90 abduction, full ER

A

Inferior Glenohumeral Ligament (anterior band) is most taught in…

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66
Q

90 abduction, full IR

A

Inferior Glenohumeral Ligament (posterior band) is most taught in…

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67
Q

90 abduction

A

Inferior Glenohumeral Ligament (axillary pouch) is most taught in…

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68
Q

adduction

A

Coracohumeral ligament is most taut in…

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69
Q

brachialis

A

known as the “workhourse” of the elbow flexors due to its large cross-sectional area and usually produces the greatest force

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70
Q

flexors, extensors, supinators, pronators

A

order of force production in elbow/forearm muscles (largest -> smallest)

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71
Q

TFCC

A

primary stabilizer of the distal radio-ulnar joint, reinforcing the ulnar side of the wrist and transfering 20% of forces from hand to forearm.

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72
Q

zig-zag deformity

A

rotational collapse of the wrist

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73
Q

central band

A

direct continuation of the extensor digitorum, attaching to the dorsal base of the middle phalanx. Serves as the “backbone”, transmits force across PIP

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74
Q

lateral bands

A

divisions off central band - fuse as single attachment to dorsal distal phalanx. Transmits extensor forces from ED, lumbricals, interossei across PIP/DIP

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75
Q

transverse dorsal hood

A

connects extensor tendons with palmar plates at the MCP

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76
Q

oblique dorsal hood

A

course distally and dorsally, fusing with lateral bands

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77
Q

oblique retinacular ligament

A

slender, oblique-running fibers connecting fibrous digital sheaths to lateral bands

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78
Q

power, precision, power (key) pinch, precision pinch, hook

A

5 types of hand grips

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79
Q

muscle atrophy

A

Osteoarthritis is strongly correlated with __________

80
Q

5

A

There is usually ___ cm of inferior/superior head translation with gait

81
Q

ligaments

A

Accessory motions may be used clinically to test the integrity of ________

82
Q

F=ma

A

Newton’s second law equation

83
Q

4.448

A

1 lb = ____ N

84
Q

stress

A

the internal resistance generated as a tissue resists its deformation, divided by its cross-sectional area

85
Q

strain

A

the ratio of the tissue’s deformation length to its original length

86
Q

stiffness

A

the ratio of stress to strain in an elastic material

87
Q

viscoelastic

A

tissues in which the stress-strain curve change over time are considered ____________

88
Q

creep

A

a progressive strain of a material when exposed to a constant load over time

89
Q

stress relaxation

A

constant strain causes decreasing stress

90
Q

stress relaxation

A

Joint Active Systems unload the joint during use with a static progressive stretch….they use the biomechanical concept of ____________________

91
Q

creep

A

Dynasplint uses low-load, prolonged stretching with the biomechanical concept of ______________

92
Q

mechanical advantage

A

The ratio of the internal moment arm to the external moment arm

93
Q

First

A

A see-saw is an example of a ______-class lever…axis is between opposing forces

94
Q

Second

A

A wheelbarrow is an example of a ______-class lever…axis is located at one end of a bone (tip toes) - MA >1

95
Q

Third

A

A prone rowing machine (https://encrypted-tbn0.google.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcTxYpdstxMALvqE7lhiCeEfUpQIznhYPIKJmZasLY7diTFMLLpb7Q) is an example of a _____-class lever…axis is located at one end of a bone, the external weight has a greater leverage than the muscle force (elbow flexors) - MA < 1

96
Q

Fusiform

A

Muscle fibers running parallel to eachother and the central tendon

97
Q

Pennate

A

Muscles which approach a central tendon obliquely

98
Q

Series

A

Muscle tendons are an example of _______ elastic component

99
Q

Parallel

A

Muscular connective tissue and actin/myosin are examples of ________ elastic component

100
Q

elasticity

A

temporarily stores part of the energy used to create a stretch; helps prevent injury during maximal elongation

101
Q

Viscosity

A

rate-dependent resistance encountered between surfaces of adjacent fluid-like tissues

102
Q

Isometric force

A

Internal torque = external torque…no movement. Maximum is often used as a general indicator of a muscle’s peak strength and can indicate motor recovery.

103
Q

Henneman Size Principle

A

Smaller motor units are recruited first

104
Q

Rate coding

A

rate of excitation - muscle fiber twitch lasts longer than action potential, summating and generating more peak force

105
Q

2

A

training causes hypertrophy in all fibers, but greatest in type ___ fibers

106
Q

single

A

Single or double joint muscles show more rapid atrophy when a limb is immobilized?

107
Q

Sarcopenia

A

a reduction in actual number of muscle fibers and decrease in size (atrophy)

108
Q

isotonic

A

muscle contracts against a mechanical system which provides a constant load as the body segment moves against this constant load

109
Q

isokinetic

A

dynamic contraction with varying resistance - force exerted varies according to physiological and leverage factors

110
Q

Newton’s First Law

A

law of inertia - body remains at rest or in motion except when changed by an outside source

111
Q

inertia

A

related to the amount of energy required to alter the velocity of a body

112
Q

Newton’s Second Law

A

law of acceleration - acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the force causing it

113
Q

momentum

A

quantity of motion possessed by a body (Mass x velocity)

114
Q

impulse

A

what is required to change the momentum of a body (Force x time)

115
Q

power

A

rate of work - speed at which work is performed (Work divided by time)

116
Q

Newton’s Third Law

A

action-reaction - for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

117
Q

Circumduction

A

Combination of movement of the 2 available degrees of freedom in the wrist

118
Q

Capitate

A

axis of both wrist flexion/extension and ulnar/radial deviation goes through:

119
Q

40

A

Functional wrist flexion/extension: ___ degrees

120
Q

30

A

Functional wrist ulnar deviation: ___ degrees

121
Q

10

A

Functional wrist radial deviation: ___ degrees

122
Q

10/15/2010

A

Surgical wrist fusion requires an average position of ______ degrees of extension, and ___ degrees of ulnar deviation

123
Q

full extension

A

close-packed position of the wrist

124
Q

lunate

A

most frequently dislocated carpal bone - no muscle attachments

125
Q

scaphoid

A

most frequently fractured carpal bone

126
Q

EPB, AbPL

A

1st extensor compartment

127
Q

ECRL, ECRB

A

2nd extensor compartment

128
Q

EPL

A

3rd extensor compartment

129
Q

ED, EI

A

4th extensor compartment

130
Q

EDM

A

5th extensor compartment

131
Q

ECU

A

6th extensor compartment

132
Q

30, extension

A

Maximal grip force occurs at ___ degrees wrist ________

133
Q

tennis elbow

A

inflammation of the common extensor tendon, repetitive activities, pain while gripping

134
Q

FCR, FCU, PL

A

3 primary wrist flexors

135
Q

EDP, EDS, FPL

A

3 primary wrist extensors

136
Q

70

A

wrist flexors are ___% stronger than extensors

137
Q

labrum

A

fibrocartilage ring encircling the glenoid fossa - adds up 50% of the depth

138
Q

extensors, adductors, flexors, abductors, IR, ER

A

Rank the 6 shoulder muscle groups (strongest -> weakest)

139
Q

coracoclavicular ligaments

A

Most commonly damaged structure with AC separations

140
Q

supraspinatus

A

most commonly torn rotator cuff muscle

141
Q

35

A

scapular plane: ___ degrees

142
Q

30

A

humeral retroversion: ___ degrees

143
Q

20

A

clavicular plane: ___ degrees

144
Q

45

A

elevation of the clavicle: ___ degrees

145
Q

10

A

depression of the clavicle: ___ degrees

146
Q

15-30

A

protraction/retraction of the clavicle: ___ degrees

147
Q

20-35

A

posterior rotation of the clavicle: ___ degrees

148
Q

30, upward

A

the AC joint has ___ degrees of ________ rotation in the frontal plane

149
Q

170-175

A

normal genu valgum: _______ degrees on external side

150
Q

lateral bands

A

popliteus attaches to the ________ meniscus

151
Q

both

A

Do the quadriceps/semimembranosus attach to both, one, or neither menisci

152
Q

2.1

A

ER > IR at the knee by a ratio of ____

153
Q

inferior

A

with the knee flexed to 20 degrees, the ______ facet of the patella is in contact with the femur

154
Q

middle

A

with the knee flexed to 60 degrees, the _____ facet of the patella is in contact with the femur

155
Q

superior

A

with the knee flexed to 90 degrees, the _____ facet of the patella is in contact with the femur

156
Q

lateral

A

with the knee flexed to 135 degrees, the _____ facet of the patella is in contact with the femur

157
Q

sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus

A

pes anserine group

158
Q

biceps femoris

A

the LCL blends distally with the

159
Q

valgus

A

anterior MCL provides restraint against

160
Q

85, anterior

A

ACL provides ___% passive resistance to ________ tibial translation

161
Q

flexion

A

Majority of the PCL becomes taut at extreme ________

162
Q

95, posterior

A

PCL provides ___ % passive resistance to ________ translation

163
Q

vastus lateralis

A

largest of the quadriceps muscles

164
Q

80, 20

A

vastus group provides ____% of knee extension torque, rectus femoris provides ___ %

165
Q

45-60

A

Internal torque for knee extension is maximal at ____ degrees of flexion

166
Q

iliotibial band, lateral patellar retinacular fibers

A

lateral-directed forces of the patella

167
Q

medial patellar retinacular fibers, vastus medialis

A

medial-directed forces of the patella

168
Q

45

A

internal moment arm for the knee flexors is greatest at ____ degrees

169
Q

<125

A

coxa vara angle:

170
Q

> 125

A

coxa valga angle:

171
Q

15

A

normal hip anteversion:

172
Q

midstance

A

the femoral head is in contact with the acetabulum most in which phase of gait?

173
Q

35

A

center-edge angle

174
Q

20

A

acetabular anteversion

175
Q

extension

A

close-packed position of the hip

176
Q

90 flexion, abduction, ER

A

maximal hip joint congruency: ___ degrees of __________ with moderate ______ and _______

177
Q

60

A

intracapsular pressure of the hip is least at ___ degrees of flexion

178
Q

adductor magnus

A

muscle with the largest hip extension moment arm

179
Q

extensors, flexors, adductors, abductors, IR, ER

A

rank the 6 hip muscle groups (strongest -> weakest)

180
Q

2nd and 3rd MC

A

keystone of the longitudinal arch

181
Q

capitate

A

keystone of the proximal transverse arch of the hand

182
Q

70 flexion

A

MCP close packed position

183
Q

boutonniere

A

deformity with flexion of the PIP, extension of the DIP

184
Q

swan-neck

A

deformity with extension at the PIP, flexion at the DIP

185
Q

18, carrying angle

A

normal cubitus valgus angle: ___ degrees; also known as ______________

186
Q

80 flexion

A

position of comfort for the elbow

187
Q

30-130

A

functional range for the elbow

188
Q

distraction

A

oblique cord prevents __________ of the radius

189
Q

50-50

A

functional supination/pronation range

190
Q

90

A

flexor torque of the elbow is greatest at ___ degrees

191
Q

20-30, lateral

A

natural tibial torsion = _____ degrees (medially or laterally?)

192
Q

eversion, abduction, dorsiflexion

A

pronation involves:

193
Q

inversion, adduction, plantarflexion

A

supination involves:

194
Q

chopart’s joint

A

mid-tarsal joint is also known as:

195
Q

2nd

A

the ___ ray serves as a stable pillar of the foot

Clinical Anatomy (8 decks)

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