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Board Review > Killer foils > Flashcards

Killer foils Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment for bleeding in von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Factor VIII for moderate-severe bleeding

Desmopressin for mild bleeding

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2
Q

How do you treat infant botulism?

A

Botulism immunoglobulin IV

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3
Q

Rash with flaccid bullae, positive Nikolsky sign, oral lesions

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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4
Q

Rash with tense bullae and negative Nikolsky sign

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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5
Q

What is the treatment for acute glaucoma?

A

Timolol, pilocarpine, apraclonidine

If IOP >50 then IV acetazolamide and mannitol

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6
Q

What is the treatment for acute dystonic reaction?

A

Benadryl or benztropine

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7
Q

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Dantrolene and benzos

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8
Q

What causes malignant hyperthermia and what is the treatment?

A

Succinylcholine and inhaled anesthetics

Tx: dantrolene

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9
Q

What Stryker pressure is diagnostic of compartment syndrome?

A

DBP - compartment pressure < 30

Or compartment pressure > 30-40

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10
Q

What are the EKG findings in LV aneurysm?

A

Anterior Q waves and STE in V1-5

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11
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease?

A

> 5 days of fever plus 4/5 of the following:

  • conjunctivitis
  • strawberry tongue/cracked lips
  • palmar erythema
  • polymorphous rash
  • cervical LAD
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12
Q

When does Dressler syndrome present?

A

~8 weeks post-MI

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13
Q

How does TTP present?

A 
FAT RN
Fever
Anemia (hemolysis)
Thrombocytopenia
Renal disease
Neuro symptoms (AMS)
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14
Q

How does Wernicke’s present?

A

AMS
Ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia

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15
Q

What are the complications of Marfan’s?

A

Lens dislocation, MVP, aortic aneurysm/dissection, spontaneous pneumothorax

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16
Q

Does muscle weakness with Lambert-Eaton improve or worsen with repeated movement?

A

It improves

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17
Q

What is the Parkland formula?

A

BSA x weight x 4
(Peds: BSA x weight x 3)
Give 1/2 over first 8 hours
Second 1/2 over remaining 16 hours

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18
Q

What is the Salter-Harris classification?

A 
Slipped
Above (proximal)
Lower (distal)
Through
ERasure
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19
Q

What nerve palsy is associated with fibular head fracture?

A

Peroneal nerve injury causing foot drop

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20
Q

What nerve palsy is associated with humeral fracture?

A

Radial nerve injury causing wrist drop

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21
Q

What are the unstable cervical spine fractures?

A 
Jefferson fracture (C1 burst)
Bilateral facet dislocation (hyperflexion)
Odontoid fracture
Hangman fracture (b/l pars interarticularis fx of C2)
Teardrop fracture (anterior inferior vertebral body fx)

Jefferson Bit Off a Hangman’s Thumb

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22
Q

What electrolyte disturbances are seen in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Hyperphos
HyperK
HypoCa
Hyperuricemia

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23
Q

How does anterior cord syndrome present?

A

Complete loss of motor, pain, temperature sensation below the level of injury. Vibration and proprioception remain intact.

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24
Q

What is Brown-Séquard syndrome?

A

Hemi-injury of the spinal cord resulting in ipsilateral loss of motor, vibration, and proprioception, contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

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25
Q

How does coccidioidomycosis present?

A

Pneumonia, night sweats, recent travel to SW

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26
Q

What exposure places you at risk for histoplasmosis?

A

Bird/bat droppings or construction sites in Ohio and Mississippi River Valleys
CXR: calcification and hilar adenopathy
Tx: itraconazole

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27
Q

What region carries blastomycosis?

A

Midwestern states around the Great Lakes

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28
Q

How does Hantavirus present?

A

Exposure to rodents in SW states

Flu-like symptoms, pulmonary edema, hypoxia and hypotension

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29
Q

What are the symptoms of leptospirosis?

A

Exposure to contaminated freshwater
Fever/chills, HA, myalgias, conjunctival injection, jaundice
Tx: amox or doxy

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30
Q

What are the symptoms of erlichiosis?

A

Similar to RMSF, also causes leukopenia and transaminitis

Tx: doxy or chloramphenicol

31
Q

What are the symptoms of babesiosis?

A

Hemolytic anemia, hepatomegaly, jaundice

Tx: quinine + clinda OR atovaquone + azithro

32
Q

What are the symptoms of tularemia?

A

Lymphadenopathy

Transmission by rabbits

33
Q

What is the formula for calculating pediatric ETT size and depth?

A

ETT size = (age + 16)/4

ETT depth = size x 3

34
Q

What conditions are treated with IVIG?

A

ITP, Kawasaki, immunodeficiencies, Guillain-Barré

35
Q

What conditions are treated with plasmapheresis?

A

Guillain-Barré, myasthenia gravis, hyperviscosity, TTP

36
Q

What are the most common causes of erythema multiforme?

A

HSV, mycoplasma, drugs (SOAPS - sulfas, oral hypoglycemics, anticonvulsants, penicillin, NSAIDs)

37
Q

What are the drugs that cause G6PD crisis?

A

Dapsone, phenazopyridine, nitrofurantoin, bactrim, primaquine, methylene blue

38
Q

What is the ice test used for?

A

Dx of myasthenia - application of ice to eye will improve ptosis

39
Q

What type of mass is associated w/ myasthenia gravis?

A

Thymoma

40
Q

What are the causes of megaloblastic anemia?

A

B12 or folate deficiency, chronic alcohol abuse, hydroxyurea

41
Q

Which lab values are NOT accurate when drawn from an intraosseous line?

A

OWLPI = oxygen, WBCs, LFTs, potassium, ionized calcium

42
Q

Which joints of the hands are involved in OA versus RA?

A

OA: PIP, DIP (Bouchard and Heberden nodes)
RA: MP, PIP (morning stiffness)

43
Q

In what order should medications be given in thyroid storm?

A

1) beta blocker
2) PTU or methimazole
3) iodine
4) hydrocortisone

44
Q

How is SBP defined based on paracentesis results?

A

ANC > 250 or total WBC > 500-1,000

45
Q

What type of kidney stone is radiolucent?

A

Uric acid

46
Q

What is the most common type of kidney stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

47
Q

Ophtho: fluffy, perivascular lesions and hemorrhages

A

CMV retinitis

Tx: ganciclovir

48
Q

Ophtho: dendritic lesions

A

HSV keratitis

Tx: topical trifluridine +/- oral acyclovir

49
Q

Ophtho: “blood and thunder”

A

CRVO (retinal vein thrombosis)

No evidence for AC

50
Q

At what pressure is lateral canthotomy indicated?

A

IOP > 40

51
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat auricular perichondritis?

A

Fluoroquinolones (pseudomonas coverage)

52
Q

Gradual onset hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and truncal ataxia

A

Vestibular schwannoma

53
Q

Ciliary flush and cells & flare on slit lamp exam

A

Anterior uveitis

Tx: cycloplegics (cyclopentolate), topical steroids

54
Q

What medications are used in the treatment of acute glaucoma?

A

Pilocarpine (miotic), timolol, apraclonidine, acetazolamide, topical steroids, mannitol

55
Q

What type of hernia passes lateral to the epigastric artery and through the inguinal canal into the scrotum?

A

Indirect inguinal hernia

56
Q

What type of hernia passes through passes through Hesselbach’s triangle (medial to the epigastric artery, lateral to the rectus sheath)?

A

Direct inguinal hernia

57
Q

What are the discriminatory zones for TVUS and TAB?

A

TVUS - 1,000-2,000

TAB - 6,500

58
Q

Stroke syndromes: contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, aphasia, neglect, stupor, coma

A

Putamen hemorrhage

59
Q

Stroke syndromes: total paralysis, coma, decerebrate posturing, miotic pupils

A

Pontine hemorrhage

60
Q

Stroke syndromes: complete hemisensory loss +/- hemiparesis and aphasia

A

Thalamic hemorrhage

61
Q

What structures pass through the cavernous sinus?

A

Internal carotid, CN III, IV, VI

62
Q

What is the most common cause of a “down and out” eye?

A

Diabetes (CN III palsy)

63
Q

What are some causes of CN VI palsy?

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis, IIH, blunt head trauma

64
Q

Vitamins: perifollicular hemorrhages, easy bruising, bleeding gums, mood changes

A

Vitamin C deficiency

65
Q

Vitamins: photosensitive dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia

A

Pellagra (Niacin/B3 deficiency)

66
Q

Vitamins: night vision loss, dry skin, Bitot spots

A

Vitamin A deficiency

67
Q

Vitamins: sideroblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy

A

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency

68
Q

Most common childhood leukemia

A

ALL (good prognosis)

69
Q

Smudge cells

A

CLL (most common adult leukemia)

70
Q

Smell of fresh hay

A

Phosgene

71
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to succinylcholine?

A 
Motor neuron disease
Muscular dystrophy
Guillain-Barre
Spinal cord injury (>1 week)
Prior CVA w/ residual paresis
Severe burns (>24 hours)
Malignant hyperthermia
72
Q

What drugs are used to treat cocaine chest pain?

A

Benzos; if there are ST changes, give Ca channel blocker and nitro

73
Q

What is the treatment for HACE?

A

1) immediate descent or hyperbarics
2) oxygen (NRB)
3) dexamethasone
4) acetazolamide

74
Q

What is the treatment for HAPE?

A

1) immediate descent
2) oxygen (NRB)
3) consider nifedipine

Board Review (10 decks)

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