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Killer foils Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment for bleeding in von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Factor VIII for moderate-severe bleeding

Desmopressin for mild bleeding

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2
Q

How do you treat infant botulism?

A

Botulism immunoglobulin IV

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3
Q

Rash with flaccid bullae, positive Nikolsky sign, oral lesions

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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4
Q

Rash with tense bullae and negative Nikolsky sign

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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5
Q

What is the treatment for acute glaucoma?

A

Timolol, pilocarpine, apraclonidine

If IOP >50 then IV acetazolamide and mannitol

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6
Q

What is the treatment for acute dystonic reaction?

A

Benadryl or benztropine

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7
Q

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Dantrolene and benzos

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8
Q

What causes malignant hyperthermia and what is the treatment?

A

Succinylcholine and inhaled anesthetics

Tx: dantrolene

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9
Q

What Stryker pressure is diagnostic of compartment syndrome?

A

DBP - compartment pressure < 30

Or compartment pressure > 30-40

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10
Q

What are the EKG findings in LV aneurysm?

A

Anterior Q waves and STE in V1-5

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11
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease?

A

> 5 days of fever plus 4/5 of the following:

  • conjunctivitis
  • strawberry tongue/cracked lips
  • palmar erythema
  • polymorphous rash
  • cervical LAD
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12
Q

When does Dressler syndrome present?

A

~8 weeks post-MI

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13
Q

How does TTP present?

A 
FAT RN
Fever
Anemia (hemolysis)
Thrombocytopenia
Renal disease
Neuro symptoms (AMS)
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14
Q

How does Wernicke’s present?

A

AMS
Ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia

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15
Q

What are the complications of Marfan’s?

A

Lens dislocation, MVP, aortic aneurysm/dissection, spontaneous pneumothorax

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16
Q

Does muscle weakness with Lambert-Eaton improve or worsen with repeated movement?

A

It improves

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17
Q

What is the Parkland formula?

A

BSA x weight x 4
(Peds: BSA x weight x 3)
Give 1/2 over first 8 hours
Second 1/2 over remaining 16 hours

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18
Q

What is the Salter-Harris classification?

A 
Slipped
Above (proximal)
Lower (distal)
Through
ERasure
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19
Q

What nerve palsy is associated with fibular head fracture?

A

Peroneal nerve injury causing foot drop

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20
Q

What nerve palsy is associated with humeral fracture?

A

Radial nerve injury causing wrist drop

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21
Q

What are the unstable cervical spine fractures?

A 
Jefferson fracture (C1 burst)
Bilateral facet dislocation (hyperflexion)
Odontoid fracture
Hangman fracture (b/l pars interarticularis fx of C2)
Teardrop fracture (anterior inferior vertebral body fx)

Jefferson Bit Off a Hangman’s Thumb

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22
Q

What electrolyte disturbances are seen in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Hyperphos
HyperK
HypoCa
Hyperuricemia

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23
Q

How does anterior cord syndrome present?

A

Complete loss of motor, pain, temperature sensation below the level of injury. Vibration and proprioception remain intact.

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24
Q

What is Brown-Séquard syndrome?

A

Hemi-injury of the spinal cord resulting in ipsilateral loss of motor, vibration, and proprioception, contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

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25
How does coccidioidomycosis present?
Pneumonia, night sweats, recent travel to SW
26
What exposure places you at risk for histoplasmosis?
Bird/bat droppings or construction sites in Ohio and Mississippi River Valleys CXR: calcification and hilar adenopathy Tx: itraconazole
27
What region carries blastomycosis?
Midwestern states around the Great Lakes
28
How does Hantavirus present?
Exposure to rodents in SW states | Flu-like symptoms, pulmonary edema, hypoxia and hypotension
29
What are the symptoms of leptospirosis?
Exposure to contaminated freshwater Fever/chills, HA, myalgias, conjunctival injection, jaundice Tx: amox or doxy
30
What are the symptoms of erlichiosis?
Similar to RMSF, also causes leukopenia and transaminitis | Tx: doxy or chloramphenicol
31
What are the symptoms of babesiosis?
Hemolytic anemia, hepatomegaly, jaundice | Tx: quinine + clinda OR atovaquone + azithro
32
What are the symptoms of tularemia?
Lymphadenopathy | Transmission by rabbits
33
What is the formula for calculating pediatric ETT size and depth?
ETT size = (age + 16)/4 | ETT depth = size x 3
34
What conditions are treated with IVIG?
ITP, Kawasaki, immunodeficiencies, Guillain-Barré
35
What conditions are treated with plasmapheresis?
Guillain-Barré, myasthenia gravis, hyperviscosity, TTP
36
What are the most common causes of erythema multiforme?
HSV, mycoplasma, drugs (SOAPS - sulfas, oral hypoglycemics, anticonvulsants, penicillin, NSAIDs)
37
What are the drugs that cause G6PD crisis?
Dapsone, phenazopyridine, nitrofurantoin, bactrim, primaquine, methylene blue
38
What is the ice test used for?
Dx of myasthenia - application of ice to eye will improve ptosis
39
What type of mass is associated w/ myasthenia gravis?
Thymoma
40
What are the causes of megaloblastic anemia?
B12 or folate deficiency, chronic alcohol abuse, hydroxyurea
41
Which lab values are NOT accurate when drawn from an intraosseous line?
OWLPI = oxygen, WBCs, LFTs, potassium, ionized calcium
42
Which joints of the hands are involved in OA versus RA?
OA: PIP, DIP (Bouchard and Heberden nodes) RA: MP, PIP (morning stiffness)
43
In what order should medications be given in thyroid storm?
1) beta blocker 2) PTU or methimazole 3) iodine 4) hydrocortisone
44
How is SBP defined based on paracentesis results?
ANC > 250 or total WBC > 500-1,000
45
What type of kidney stone is radiolucent?
Uric acid
46
What is the most common type of kidney stone?
Calcium oxalate
47
Ophtho: fluffy, perivascular lesions and hemorrhages
CMV retinitis | Tx: ganciclovir
48
Ophtho: dendritic lesions
HSV keratitis | Tx: topical trifluridine +/- oral acyclovir
49
Ophtho: "blood and thunder"
CRVO (retinal vein thrombosis) | No evidence for AC
50
At what pressure is lateral canthotomy indicated?
IOP > 40
51
What antibiotics are used to treat auricular perichondritis?
Fluoroquinolones (pseudomonas coverage)
52
Gradual onset hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and truncal ataxia
Vestibular schwannoma
53
Ciliary flush and cells & flare on slit lamp exam
Anterior uveitis | Tx: cycloplegics (cyclopentolate), topical steroids
54
What medications are used in the treatment of acute glaucoma?
Pilocarpine (miotic), timolol, apraclonidine, acetazolamide, topical steroids, mannitol
55
What type of hernia passes lateral to the epigastric artery and through the inguinal canal into the scrotum?
Indirect inguinal hernia
56
What type of hernia passes through passes through Hesselbach’s triangle (medial to the epigastric artery, lateral to the rectus sheath)?
Direct inguinal hernia
57
What are the discriminatory zones for TVUS and TAB?
TVUS - 1,000-2,000 | TAB - 6,500
58
Stroke syndromes: contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, aphasia, neglect, stupor, coma
Putamen hemorrhage
59
Stroke syndromes: total paralysis, coma, decerebrate posturing, miotic pupils
Pontine hemorrhage
60
Stroke syndromes: complete hemisensory loss +/- hemiparesis and aphasia
Thalamic hemorrhage
61
What structures pass through the cavernous sinus?
Internal carotid, CN III, IV, VI
62
What is the most common cause of a "down and out" eye?
Diabetes (CN III palsy)
63
What are some causes of CN VI palsy?
Cavernous sinus thrombosis, IIH, blunt head trauma
64
Vitamins: perifollicular hemorrhages, easy bruising, bleeding gums, mood changes
Vitamin C deficiency
65
Vitamins: photosensitive dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia
Pellagra (Niacin/B3 deficiency)
66
Vitamins: night vision loss, dry skin, Bitot spots
Vitamin A deficiency
67
Vitamins: sideroblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency
68
Most common childhood leukemia
ALL (good prognosis)
69
Smudge cells
CLL (most common adult leukemia)
70
Smell of fresh hay
Phosgene
71
What are the absolute contraindications to succinylcholine?
``` Motor neuron disease Muscular dystrophy Guillain-Barre Spinal cord injury (>1 week) Prior CVA w/ residual paresis Severe burns (>24 hours) Malignant hyperthermia ```
72
What drugs are used to treat cocaine chest pain?
Benzos; if there are ST changes, give Ca channel blocker and nitro
73
What is the treatment for HACE?
1) immediate descent or hyperbarics 2) oxygen (NRB) 3) dexamethasone 4) acetazolamide
74
What is the treatment for HAPE?
1) immediate descent 2) oxygen (NRB) 3) consider nifedipine

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