Kidneys Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the surface anatomy of the kidneys

A

Between vertebral levels T11-L2/3, the right is lower and the hila sit around L1
Sit under 12th rib with the left under 11th & 12th rib

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2
Q

What is the renal angle?

A

Between 12th rib and lateral border of vertebral column extensor muscles

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3
Q

Describe the surface anatomy of the ureters

A

Run vertically inferior to pelvic cavity; follow tips of lumbar vertebrae
transverse processes

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4
Q

What protective layers cover the kidneys?

A

Perinephric fat
Renal fascia
Paranephric fat
Psoas fascia

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5
Q

Renal fascia is loose & kidneys can move with body position. What occurs if they move too much? And what can be a sign of this?

A

Nephroptosis

Blood in urine when running

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6
Q

What tissue type do kidneys derive from?

A

Metanephros - mesoderm

Ureteric bud

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7
Q

What can happen if the ureteric bud develops abnormally?

A

Bifid Ureter
Duplicated ureter
Absent

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8
Q

During what time frame do the kidneys ascend to their adult position?

A

Week 6-9
Start in pelvic cavity
Migrate superiorly
Receive new blood supply as they move upwards and take the ureters with them

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9
Q

What is a pelvic kidney?

A

One kidney never migrates and so remains in the pelvic cavity
If there is no impingement then it doesn’t matter

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10
Q

What is a horseshoe kidney?

A

Two kidneys fused and not ascended. Gets stuck on IMA, can block it so ischemic bowel

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11
Q

What is a polar renal artery?

A

Artery not running into hilum. Squash ureter so renal pelvis enlarges

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12
Q

What is the allantois?

A

Passes from cloaca to umbilicus

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13
Q

What is the adult remnant of the allantois?

A

Urachus

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14
Q

Name 3 remnants of the allantois that can cause clinical problems

A

Urachal fistula/patent - urine can leak out
Urachal cyst - can get infected
Urachal sinus - blind ended tract from umbilicus, cheesy discharge

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15
Q

Describe the blood supply to the kidneys

A

Renal arteries at L1/2 (listen for bruits)
Run posterior to renal vein & IVC
Segmental supply (4/5 end arteries)

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16
Q

Describe venous drainage of the kidneys

A

Right renal vein directly join IVC
Left veins receive gonadal & suprarenal veins
Left renal vein runs under SMA to join IVC

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17
Q

Describe nerve supply to the supra renal glands

A

Preganglionic sympathetic fibres (T10-L1)

Synapse directly with chromaffin cells in medulla

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18
Q

What arteries do the ureters receive blood supply from?

A
Renal 
Gonadal 
Aortic 
Internal iliac  
Vesical/prostatic
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19
Q

Which direction should the ureters be displaced in order to prevent disrupting their blood supply?

A

Displace ureter medially in abdo cavity

Displace ureter laterally in pelvic cavity

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20
Q

What pain pattern occurs with renal calculi?

A

Shifting loin to groin pain T12-L1/2

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21
Q

What is the main differential concern for an elderly patient presenting with presumed left sided renal colic?

A

Dissecting aortic aneurysm

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22
Q

What are potential sites for stones?

A
Renal tract (urolithiasis) 
Gallbladder/biliary tree (cholelithiasis)
Salivary glands (sialolithiasis) 
Appendix (faecolith) 
Prostate 
Veins (phleboliths)
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23
Q

How do stones form?

A

Increased concentration of solutes causing supersaturated solution
Stasis
Infection

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24
Q

What effects can stones have?

A

Block ducts: colic, jaundice, renal failure
Chronic inflammation: Cholecystits, cystitis, sialadenitis
Infection

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25
Describe salivary stones
``` Occur more in females Usually Wharton’s duct Pain and swelling of gland Idiopathic, infection, drugs Remove stone – open/endoscopic ```
26
Describe gallstones
Common (10%), more in females GB stores & concentrates bile Most stones cholesterol based due to high fat diets/hypercholesterolaemia Pigment stones found in haemolytic disorders (high serum bilirubin) Ratio of cholesterol:bile salts & lecithin
27
How do gallstones present?
Asymptomatic Abdominal pain Jaundice Fever
28
How do you investigate gallstones?
Bloods – LFT, amylase USS ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangio pancreatography)/MRCP
29
Describe what factors can affect the likelihood of developing renal stones
Common (10%) Males > females Varies with geography/climate Age, Peak onset 20-30 Fluid intake, Family history, Affluence/diet/BMI
30
Describe how renal stones form pathophysiologically
Urine normally supersaturated but metastable Crystal growth more than normal Crystals aggregate to form small stones Symptomatic stones require particle retention to enlarge
31
What different types of renal stones can form?
``` Ca oxalate 60% - visible on xray Ca phosphate 20% - visible on xray Urate 7% - not visible on xray, but will show on USS and CT Struvite 7% Cysteine 2% Others ```
32
Where do renal stones get stuck?
Pelvic ureteric junction (PUJ) Pelvic brim Vesicoureteric junction (VUJ) Bladder urethra outlet
33
What can cause calcium oxalate stones to form?
Hypercalciuria: Idiopathic, Rare genetic disorders,Hyperparathyroidism, Malignancy, Sarcoidosis/TB Hyperoxaluria: Primary hyperoxaluria, Secondary- Dietary, Enteric
34
Describe struvite stones
Triple phosphate Urinary infection by urea-splitting bacteria (split urea to CO2 and ammonia) so alkaline urine Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Providentia Even low colony numbers produce urease Struvite stones cause most staghorn calculi
35
Describe the 2 types of staghorn calculi
Struvite stones cause most staghorn calculi Partial staghorn – renal pelvis stone extending into at least 2 calyceal groups Complete staghorn – renal pelvis stone extending into all major calyceal groups filling at least 80% of collecting system
36
What are risk factors for struvite stones?
``` Risk factors all related to UTIs Female Indwelling catheters Neurogenic bladders Urinary tract abnormalities Stagnant urine ```
37
Describe the formation of cysteine stones
Autosomal recessive disorder affecting dibasic amino acid transporter in tubule Cystine not reabsorbed – crystalizes Faintly radio-opaque, Often staghorn Young, mulitple stones 5% get ESRF Hard to manage; drink more, alkalinise urine
38
Describe uric acid stones
``` Purine metabolism Associated with metabolic syndrome and acidic urine Radiolucent Gout Some medications ```
39
How will a patient with renal stones present?
``` Loin to groin pain (renal colic), Can’t get comfortable, Radiates to testicle Haematuria Vomiting Irritative voiding symptoms Exclude leaking AAA ```
40
What history information do you need from someone presenting with renal stones?
``` No of stones passed Frequency of stone formation Age at first onset Kidney(s) involved Stone type Previous interventions ```
41
What initial investigations would you perform on someone presenting with renal stones?
Urine dipstick (haematuria, pH) Serum creatinine/electrolytes, calcium, urate Urine microscopy & culture Imaging: Urgent, Immediate if fever - pyonephrosis KUB- Sensitivity 50% Ca>struvite>cystine>urate, USS- Sensitivity 60% (80% for obstruction), CT KUB
42
What is the initial management of a patient with renal stones?
Infected obstructed kidney requires immediate drainage | Need to remove them if: Pain/failure to pass, Recurrent infection, Renal impairment, Bleeding, Some jobs (airline pilot)
43
How can renal stones be removed?
Fragmentation: Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL), Focussed shockwave Removal: PCNL Percutaneous nephrolithotomy, surgery, laser
44
What are complications of Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)?
Haematuria UTI Steinstrasse (stone fragments block ureter) Tubular damage
45
What are the functions of the kidneys?
``` Removal of toxins Electrolyte balance Acid base regulation Fluid and volume regulation Endocrine functions ```
46
What cell types are found in the loop of Henle?
Thin - cuboid cells | Thick - columnar cells
47
What do cells in the distal convoluted tubule look like?
Virtually no brush border | Active cells with lots of cytoplasm
48
What type of cells are found in the ureters?
Transitional epithelium Folded to allow stretch Multiple layers for protection
49
Where do the kidneys sit in the abdomen?
Paired retroperitoneal organ located on posterior abdominal wall Hilum at L1
50
What are the posterior relations of the kidneys?
Costodiaphragmatic recess Quadratus lumborum Psoas major 12th rib
51
What is the renal papilla?
Drainage point into calyxes
52
What is Psoas fascia?
Forms sheath down to hip region – infection can spread down this route; abscess can form under fascia
53
What is Thoracolumbar fascia?
Tough covering of intrinsic vertebral column muscles
54
What is Renal fascial space?
Communicates across midline, and serves as route for infection spread
55
What is nephroptosis?
Renal fascia is loose & kidneys can move with body position Nephroptosis occurs if they move too much
56
What does the kidney develop from?
Metanephros (mesoderm) & ureteric bud
57
Describe the blood supply of the kidneys
Renal arteries at L1/2 (listen for bruits) behind IVC on right Run posterior to renal vein & IVC Segmental supply (4/5 end arteries)
58
Describe the venous drainage of the kidneys
Right renal vein directly join IVC Left veins receive gonadal & suprarenal veins Left renal vein runs under SMA to join IVC
59
Describe the blood supply to the supra renal glands
Left vein drains to renal vein | Right vein drains to inferior vena cava
60
Describe the nerve supply to the supra renal glands
Preganglionic sympathetic fibres (T10-L1) | Synapse directly with chromaffin cells in medulla
61
What do the ureters develop from?
Ureteric bud of mesonephric duct
62
Which arteries supply the ureters?
``` Renal Gonadal Aortic Internal iliac Vesical/prostatic ```
63
What is the main differential concern for an elderly patient presenting with presumed left sided renal colic?
Dissecting aortic aneurysm
64
Which sensory nerves are involved in renal calculi pain?
``` Renal plexus at renal pelvis Abdomino-aortic plexus at pelvic brim Hypogastric plexus (superior) at vesico ureteric junction ```
65
What do the ureters cross to enter the pelvic cavity?
Iliac vessels
66
How much of an adult male is water?
60% so in 70kg male, 42 Litres
67
What are the 2 main compartments of ECF?
Interstitial fluid which surrounds the cells | Plasma which is non-cellular component of blood
68
What differences exist between Interstitial fluid and plasma?
Proteins which remain in plasma
69
What is osmosis?
Net diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a region of high water concentration to a region of low water concentration
70
What are osmoles?
Number of osmotically active particles in a solution
71
What are the endocrine functions of the kidney?
Production of EPO Alpha hydroxylase production for vit D activation RAAS system
72
What is EPO?
Erythropoietin, produced by interstitial cells in cortex & outer medulla Growth factor, stimulates production of RBC precursors in bone marrow Stimulus for its release is hypoxia Kidneys are major source, disease can therefore result in anaemia (normochromic normocytic)
73
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
Nephron
74
What are the 3 main processes performed by the nephron?
Filtration Reabsorption Secretion
75
What is urinary excretion rate?
Filtration rate + Secretion rate – Reabsorption rate
76
What is renal blood flow rate? And what is renal plasma rate?
1 litre per min renal blood flow | 600ml per min renal plasma flow
77
What make up the layers of the glomerular filtration barrier?
``` Capillary endothelium (fenestrated) Basement membrane (negative charge) Epithelial cells (foot processes - podocytes & filtration slits) ```
78
How is the passage of substances limited across the glomerular filtration barrier?
By their size, shape and charge
79
What cells are excluded from glomerular filtrate?
Blood cells and plasma proteins
80
What effect do disease processes have on filtrate in the kidneys?
Alter the properties of barrier allowing protein to appear in the filtrate
81
What factors determine filtration?
Glomerular capillary filtration coefficient, Kf (leakiness of barrier) Net filtration pressure (NFP) GFR = Kf x NFP
82
What is glomerular filtration rate?
GFR | The volume of filtrate formed by all the nephrons in both kidneys per unit time
83
What is the glomerular filtration coefficient Kf?
Reflects: Surface area available for filtration Hydraulic conductivity (permeability) of the filtration barrier
84
How might Kf be affected in disease processes?
Reduced number of nephrons or processes which damage the filtration barrier will ↓surface area or ↓permeability & ∴decrease GFR
85
What is net filtration pressure?
Sum of pressures acting across the filtration barrier (Starling forces) Sum of the hydrostatic pressures Sum of the colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressures NFP = PG (glomerular hydrostatic) – PB (bowmanns capsule hydrostatic) – πG (glomerular colloid osmotic) + πB (bowmanns capsule colloid osmotic) Typical is 10mmHg
86
What does glomerular hydrostatic pressure rely on?
Arterial pressure Afferent arteriole resistance Efferent arteriole resistance
87
How does most regulation of GFR occur?
Changes in glomerular hydrostatic pressure
88
How can you increase GFR?
Afferent arteriole dilation &/or Efferent Arteriole constriction
89
How can you decrease GFR?
Afferent Arteriole constriction &/or Efferent Arteriole dilation
90
What factors can cause Afferent Arteriole dilation and therefore lead to increased GFR?
``` Prostaglandins Kinins Dopamine low dose Atrial natriuretic peptide Nitrous oxide ```
91
What factors can cause Afferent Arteriole constriction and therefore lead to decreased GFR?
``` Angiotensin II high dose Noradrenaline Endothelin Adenosine Vasopressin ```
92
Describe the relationship between GFR and Arteriole resistance
Changes in AA resistance, effect on GFR is fairly linear For EA resistance, effect on GFR is biphasic: Initial EA constriction causes ↑GFR by ↑glomerular hydrostatic pressure Severe EA constriction slows down renal blood flow so that glomerular osmotic pressure rises more than hydrostatic & ∴GFR falls
93
What effect does angiotensin II have on GFR?
Preferentially constricts Efferent Arteriole – so increases glomerular hydrostatic pressure and therefore increases GFR
94
Which vasoactive substances dilate the Afferent Arteriole and therefore cause increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure and GFR?
Prostaglandins and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
95
Which vasoactive substances constrict the Afferent Arteriole and therefore decrease glomerular hydrostatic pressure and GFR?
Noradrenaline (sympathetic nervous system), adenosine and endothelin
96
What occurs in the peritubular capillaries?
After leaving the glomerular capillaries and passing through the efferent arteriole the blood enters the peritubular capillaries Changes in hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure mean that absorption rather than filtration is favoured
97
Describe the autoregulation of GFR
GFR and renal blood flow relatively constant across a range of systemic blood pressures (~80–180 mm Hg) Prevents large changes in renal excretion of water & solutes Two mechanisms of autoregulation: Myogenic response and Tubuloglomerular feedback
98
What is Myogenic autoregulation of GFR?
Increase in arterial blood pressure Increased renal blood flow and increased GFR ↑stretch of afferent arteriole smooth muscle which opens Ca channels Reflex contraction of AA smooth muscle, Vasoconstriction ↑Resistance to flow prevents changes in renal blood flow & GFR
99
What is a Myogenic response?
Inherent ability of smooth muscle in afferent arterioles to respond to changes in vessel circumference by contracting or relaxing
100
What is the Tubuloglomerular feedback to maintain GFR when BP increases?
Mechanism links changes in [NaCl] in tubule lumen to control of afferent arteriole resistance Utilises juxtaglomerular apparatus, Macula densa cells in initial part of distal tubule sense [NaCl] Arterial blood pressure increased, causes a transient ↑GFR which increases [NaCl] delivered to distal tubule Release of paracrine factors (adenosine) by macula densa cells Adenosine causes constriction of Afferent Arteriole smooth muscle Vasoconstriction of AA so ↑Resistance to flow Restores renal blood flow & GFR
101
What is the Tubuloglomerular feedback to maintain GFR when BP decreases?
Mechanism links changes in [NaCl] in tubule lumen to control of afferent arteriole resistance Utilises juxtaglomerular apparatus, Macula densa cells in initial part of distal tubule sense [NaCl] Arterial blood pressure decreases, causes a transient ↓GFR which decreases [NaCl] delivered to distal tubule Release of paracrine factors (renin) by macula densa cells Renin causes release of Angiotensin II which causes constriction of Efferent Arteriole smooth muscle Vasoconstriction of EA so ↑Hydrostatic pressure Restores renal blood flow & GFR
102
What clinical disorders can occur if the kidneys dysfunction?
Failure of maintenance of fluid volume: Hypertension, Oedema Failure of fluid composition: electrolyte and acid base disorders Failure of excretion of waste: uraemia, drug toxicity Failure of endocrine function: anaemia, renal bone disease
103
What investigations can be done relating to the kidneys? And what are you looking for?
Urine: What’s being filtered? What’s being excreted? e.g. protein, blood, glucose, leucocytes, osmolarity Blood: Are waste products accumulating? Electrolyte abnormalities? Evidence of underlying cause? e.g. urea, creatinine, eGFR / GFR, sodium, potassium, pH, osmolarity, autoimmune diseases Imaging: Any macroscopic structural abnormalities? Any functional abnormalities? e.g. ultrasound, plain X ray, CT, MRI, contrast studies, nuclear imaging Biopsy: Any microscopic structural abnormalities?e.g. light microscopy, immunohistochemistry, electron microscopy
104
What are indicators of renal decline?
Proteinuria / albuminuria, Haematuria: Indicate damage Estimated GFR / GFR, Serum creatinine /urea: Indicate function Calcium / phosphate homeostasis, Electrolytes /pH, Fluid balance / urine volume, Haemoglobin: Indicate function but not quantitative
105
What does proteinuria show about kidney function? And how can you detect it?
Indicates damage to the filtration barrier Strong association between proteinuria and rate of disease progression in chronic kidney disease (CKD) Can be detected by urine dipsticks More sensitive methods include protein-creatinine ratio (PCR) and albumin creatinine ratio (ACR)
106
What is haematuria and what can effect its presence?
Blood can originate anywhere in urinary system Beware menstrual bleeding and false positives on urine dipsticks e.g. myoglobinuria May be visible (frank / macroscopic) or non-visible (microscopic) Age of patient an important factor in differential diagnosis
107
What is GFR?
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) | The volume of filtrate formed by all the nephrons in both kidneys per unit time
108
What happens to GFR in disease states?
Directly related to function of nephrons & declines in all forms of progressive kidney diseases
109
What is the best overall index of kidney function in health &disease?
GFR
110
What is a normal GFR?
Linked to surface area of body ∴typical young male GFR = 120 ml/min/1.73m2
111
What factors effect the estimated GFR?
Age, sex and body size – declines with increasing age
112
What is renal clearance?
Volume of plasma from which a substance is completely cleared by the kidneys per unit time Urine production x substance concentration in urine / substance concentration in plasma
113
Which substances have no renal clearance?
Proteins
114
Which substance is filtered and completely reabsorbed so has no renal clearance?
Glucose
115
Which substance is filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted and so gives an approximation of GFR?
Inulin
116
Which substance is filtered and partially reabsorbed?
Urea
117
Which substance is filtered and secreted?
Creatinine
118
For renal clearance of a substance to equal GFR, what properties must it have?
``` Freely filtered across the glomerulus Glomerulus only route of excretion Not reabsorbed or secreted Non-toxic Easily measured ```
119
What is creatinine and why is it used as an estimate for GFR?
Formed from breakdown of creatine, a skeletal muscle component Produced at a steady rate for a given individual Freely filtered at glomerulus & not reabsorbed Small amount of secretion means clearance tends to overestimate GFR Requires 24 hour urine collection – issues with compliance, time and reliability, Not suitable for a routine measure of renal function / GFR
120
Three tests used routinely to assess renal function, what are they?
Serum urea Serum creatinine Estimated GFR (eGFR) Something normally filtered by kidneys builds up in the blood indicates ↓GFR and therefore ↓renal function
121
What is serum urea and what does it measure?
Nitrogen containing metabolic waste product of protein breakdown Also known as: blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Filtered but also partially reabsorbed Levels typically rise in kidney disease as GFR falls Serum levels reflect more than just GFR
122
What factors can increase serum urea?
Increase production: High protein diet, Increased catabolism (e.g.trauma, infection, surgery, cancer), Gastrointestinal bleed, Drugs e.g. corticosteroids, tetracyclines Decreased elimination: Renal disease causing ↓GFR, Poor renal blood flow e.g.dehydration, hypotension
123
Why must a change in urea be compared to creatinine to see if there is a parallel change?
If both increased in parallel ie.both doubled, then a fall in GFR likely If urea disproportionately higher than creatinine, need to consider: Dehydration, High protein diet, GI bleed, Catabolic state
124
What factors can affect normal serum creatinine levels for that person?
Related to muscle mass: Age, sex, amputation, malnutrition, muscle wasting, ethnicity Diet also affects creatinine levels (vegetarian diet vs. meat rich diet)
125
What happens to serum creatinine levels with diseased kidneys?
Increase as GFR is reduced
126
What happens to serum creatinine levels in a body builder with normal kidneys?
Levels will be high due to muscle mass and so will give impression of renal failure despite normal kidney function
127
What will serum creatinine levels be like in a elderly patient with diseased kidneys?
Levels may appear normal. Decreased GFR increases levels but decreased body mass decreases levels. Kidney disease may be masked and not detected
128
Why is serum creatinine not a useful measure in early kidney disease?
Can lose ~50% of renal function (GFR) and still appear to have a serum creatinine that lies within the ‘normal’ range
129
What is Estimated GFR (eGFR)?
Uses equations to calculate the GFR based on a single serum measurement of a substance Incorporates clinical information along with a single serum measurement to generate an estimated GFR (eGFR) Most use serum creatinine, age, sex and ethnicity to calculate CKD-EPI equation (CKD Epidemiology) – recommended by NICE
130
Why do we need tubular processing?
Fine tune volume and composition of urine & to avoid huge fluid & solute losses Reabsorption more important than secretion for most substances
131
Describe the general mechanisms underlying tubular reabsorption
Utilises passive and active transport mechanisms to move fluid & solutes from tubule lumen to peritubular capillary Luminal & basal surfaces of tubule epithelial cells have different transporters allowing concentration gradients to be established Na+/K+ ATPase provides concentration gradient for reabsorption of many substances along the nephron Water passively reabsorbed and linked closely to sodium reabsorption & permeability of the different parts of the nephron
132
Where does the majority of reabsorption occur?
Proximal convoluted tubule
133
Where does most fine tuning of solute concentrations occur?
Distal parts of nephron under hormonal control
134
How much urine is produced per day?
1.5 litres
135
Describe the function of the proximal convoluted tubule
Majority of sodium & water reabsorption occurs here Brush border increases surface area Mitochondria provide energy Site of secretion of metabolic acids / bases, drugs etc. Tubule fluid leaving PCT is isosmotic as epithelium is freely permeable to water Essentially all glucose & amino acids reabsorbed Co-transporters) linked to sodium reabsorption Sodium glucose co-transporters (SGLT2 mainly) on luminal side move glucose against concentration gradient Glucose transporters (GLUT) on basal side allow facilitated diffusion into interstitial fluid Similar process for amino acids
136
Which glucose transporters are present in the proximal convoluted tubule?
``` Sodium glucose co-transporters (SGLT2 mainly) on luminal side move glucose against concentration gradient Glucose transporters (GLUT) on basal side allow facilitated diffusion into interstitial fluid ```
137
What can lead to loss of glucose in the urine?
There are a finite number of SGLT transporters on tubule cells Work fine within normal physiological limits of plasma glucose If amount of glucose in filtrate increases, eventually reach a transport maximum (Tm) where reabsorption cannot go any faster This leads to loss of glucose in urine Water is also retained in the tubule lumen and excreted along with the glucose
138
Describe the secretion of Na
Sodium reabsorption linked to secondary active transport of hydrogen ions into lumen (secretion) Important for bicarbonate reabsorption Na+/H+ exchanger, NHE (counter transporter)
139
What are the 3 parts of the loop of Henle?
Thin descending limb Thin ascending limb Thick ascending limb
140
Which part of the loop of Henle is permeable to water?
Thin descending limb
141
What occurs in the thin descending limb of the loop of Henle?
Permeable to water | No active reabsorption or secretion ofsolutes
142
What occurs in the thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
Impermeable towater | Essentially no active reabsorption or secretion of solutes
143
What occurs in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
Impermeable to water Active reabsorption of sodium (~25% filtered load) & other solutes Dilutes the luminal fluid (hypo-osmotic) as solutes are removed but water cannot follow Reabsorption from tubule lumen mediated by sodium, potassium 2-chloride co-transporter (Na+K+2Cl-) Positive charge in lumen encourages paracellular reabsorption of cations (including Ca2+ and Mg2+)
144
What occurs in the early distal convoluted tubule?
First portion contains the macula densa (sensitive to [NaCl]) part of juxtaglomerular apparatus involved with feedback control of GFR & blood pressure Impermeable to water Active reabsorption of sodium & water (~5% filtered load) Sodium-chloride co-transporter on luminal side Further dilutes the tubular lumen fluid
145
What occurs in the Late distal & cortical collecting tubule?
Water permeability of this part of nephron under hormonal control by antidiuretic hormone (ADH): Water permeable when ADH present, Water impermeable when ADH absent
146
What cell types are present in the cortical collecting duct?
Principal cells: sodium reabsorption & potassium secretion Intercalated cells: potassium reabsorption & hydrogen ion secretion
147
What are the functions of principal cells?
Na enters principal cells via epithelial Na channels (ENaC) on luminal side Transported out of cells by Na+/K+ ATPase to maintain concentration gradient Number of ENaC channels & activity of ATPase under hormonal control by aldosterone Important site of regulation & fine tuning of sodium reabsorption & potassium secretion
148
Describe the Medullary collecting duct
Final site for urine processing, regulating urine concentration Water permeability under hormonal control by ADH Surrounded by medullary interstitium with high concentration of solutes Urea permeability allows medullary interstitium to remain concentrated
149
What effect does aldosterone have on the kidneys?
Acts on collecting duct and tubule Increases NaCl & H20 reabsorption Increases K secretion
150
What effect does angiotensin II have on the kidneys?
Acts on proximal tubule, thick ascending limb, distal tubule and collecting duct Increases NaCl & H2O reabsorption Increases H secretion
151
What effect does ADH have on the kidneys?
Acts on distal tubule and collecting duct | Increases H2O reabsorption
152
What effect does atrial natriuretic peptide have on the kidneys?
Acts on distal tubule and collecting duct | Deceases NaCl reabsorption
153
What effect does parathyroid hormone have on the kidneys?
Acts on proximal tubule, thick ascending limb and distal tubule Decreases PO4 reabsorption Increases Ca reabsorption
154
What direct and indirect changes can receptors detect in the kidneys in regards to electrolyte balance?
Direct – [K+] has direct effect on release of aldosterone | Indirect – baroreceptors indicate ECF volume (marker of sodium)
155
Describe Na regulation by the kidneys
Major osmotically active extracellular electrolyte, major determinant of ECF volume Kidneys help maintain ECF volume by regulating Na excreted in urine Na is lost – water will be lost and ECF volume will fall (and vice versa) Normally reabsorb ~99.6% sodium that is filtered i.e. only excrete small amount of daily filtered load in urine Regulated by local, hormonal & neural factors
156
Describe the role of the kidneys in Pressure diuresis / natriuresis
Ability of kidney to increase urine output / reduce sodium reabsorption in response to increases in arterial blood pressure Simple way of regulating extracellular volume / sodium BP chronically elevated - mechanism even more sensitive Maintain blood volume over a wide range of fluid (& sodium) intake
157
What is the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
Secrete renin in response to falls in extracellular volume / low sodium Falls in ECF volume detected by baroreceptors around the body Aim of response is to increase sodium reabsorption and therefore ∴water reabsorption
158
What cells is the juxtaglomerular apparatus comprised of?
Macula densa cells Extraglomerular mesangial cells Granular cells (afferent arteriole)
159
What are the main triggers to renin release? And which cells release it?
Released by granular cells of afferent arteriole: Low afferent arteriole pressure Activation of sympathetic nerves that supply JGA Low [NaCl] in distal tubule All markers of fall in blood pressure / fall in ECF volume
160
Describe the RAAS system
Renin catalyses conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) catalyses conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II Angiotensin II causes release of aldosterone, vasoconstriction and Na and water reabsorption in the kidneys
161
Where is angiotensinogen produced?
Liver
162
Where is ACE produced?
Lungs
163
Where is aldosterone produced?
Adrenal gland
164
What is the function of the RAAS system?
Maintain extracellular volume and arterial pressure despite wide variations in dietary intake of sodium Salt intake reduced leading to a fall in ECF volume – RAAS activity increased Salt intake increased leading to a rise in extracellular volume – RAAS activity reduced RAAS also responds to situations where extracellular volume and blood pressure falls independently of salt intake
165
Describe angiotensin II and its functions
Formed from enzymatic cleavage of angiotensin I by ACE Powerful vasoconstrictor Direct and indirect actions on to promote sodium and water reabsorption: Direct effect on renal tubule cells to increase Na reabsorption by increasing activity of Na transporters Indirect effects include promotion of thirst, release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone
166
Describe aldosterone and its functions
Increases Na reabsorption by its actions on principal cells in late distal / cortical collecting tubule Secreted by adrenal cortex (zona glomerulosa) in response to increased angiotensin II or increased extracellular potassium concentration Binds to intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors (MR) Binds to nucleus & increases production of proteins, e.g. ENaC, Na+/K+ATPase, that increase ability of these cells to reabsorb sodium
167
What is atrial natriuretic peptide and its functions?
Hormone which inhibits sodium (and water) reabsorption by the kidney Released by atrial muscle fibres in response to increased stretch of atria (as a result of excessive blood volume) Causes small increases in GFR and decreases renal reabsorption Levels can be raised in conditions where there is a pathological increase in extracellular volume e.g. cardiac failure
168
Describe the importance of potassium regulation by the kidneys
Extracellular concentration of K tightly regulated as it is a major determinant of resting membrane potential – small changes can result in cardiac arrhythmias Most potassium (98%) is located in intracellular compartment Need rapid ways to regulate extracellular levels Balancing overall intake and output is mainly done by the kidneys Short term control of potassium levels can be achieved by moving potassium between intracellular & extracellular compartments Note: serum [K+] is not necessarily a good reflection of total body potassium
169
What factors shift K into cells and therefore decease extracellular K?
Na+/K+ ATPase activity: encourage cellular uptake of K with insulin (emergency treatment of hyperkalaemia) Aldosterone: urinary excretion of potassium Alkalosis (low extracellular [H+]) due to exchange of intracellular H+ for extracellular K+ B adrenergic stimulation
170
What factors shift K out of cells and therefore increase extracellar K?
Insulin deficiency, diabetes Aldosterone deficiency, Addison's disease B adrenergic blockade Acidosis: high extracellular [H+] due toexchange of extracellular H+ for intracellular K+ Cell lysis: release of intracellular K from damaged cell membrane Strenuous exercise Increased extracellular fluid osmolarity: cellular dehydration. Increases intracellular [K+] and results in a larger concentration gradient to promote movement out of the cell
171
Where is the majority of renal potassium excretion in the kidneys?
Secretion in late distal tubule / cortical collecting tubule
172
What factors determine the rate of K+secretion?
Activity of Na+/K+ ATPase [K+] gradient between blood, principal cell & lumen Permeability of luminal membrane to K+
173
What channels are involved in K excretion?
Na+/K+ ATPase moves K+ into principal cells creating a high intracellular concentration K+ passes through channels in luminal membrane into tubular lumen
174
Which cells other than principal cells can reabsorb K during depletion?
Intercalated cells
175
What factors regulate K secretion?
Plasma potassium concentration Aldosterone Tubular flow rate H+ concentration
176
What effect does an increasing plasma K level have on rate of K excretion?
Increased Na K ATPase activity Increased K gradient from blood to lumen Increased aldosterone release
177
What effect does aldosterone have on K excretion?
Increased rate of potassium excretion | Due to increased NaKATPase activity and increased permeability of luminal membrane to K
178
What is aldosterone release controlled by?
Plasma potassium levels
179
What effect does increased tubular flor rate have on potassium levels?
Increased potassium excretion due to increased concentration gradient from principal cell to lumen
180
What factors can increase tubular flow rate?
Volume expansion High sodium intake Diuretics
181
What effect does increased H have on potassium levels?
Deceased rate of potassium excretion due to decreased NaKATPase activity
182
What factors cause K increased excretion?
``` Insulin Adrenaline Aldosterone ADH Plasma K levels ```
183
What is the Normal range for extracellular [K+]?
3.5-5.3 mmol/L
184
What are causes of hypokalaemia?
Reduced intake | Excessive losses e.g. diuretics, severe diarrhoea, aldosterone excess Altered body distribution
185
What are symptoms of hypokalaemia?
Often asymptomatic Muscle weakness Cardiac arrhythmias
186
What treatment is used in hypokalaemia?
Address underlying cause | Potassium supplementation
187
What can cause Hyperkalaemia?
Excessive intake | Inadequate losses e.g. acute kidney injury, aldosterone deficiency Altered body distribution e.g. acidosis
188
What are symptoms of Hyperkalaemia?
Often asymptomatic | Cardiac arrhythmias – ECG characteristic features e.g. tall T waves
189
What is treatment for Hyperkalaemia?
``` Address underlying cause Restrict intake Calcium gluconate (to stabilise myocardium) Insulin (along with glucose) to drive potassium into cells Aid excretion – fluids, ion-exchange resins, dialysis ```
190
What are the kidneys 2 roles in calcium and phosphate homeostasis?
Responding to PTH to increase calcium and decrease phosphate reabsorption Activating vitamin D to enhance calcium absorption from GI tract
191
Which part of kidney reabsorption of calcium is enhanced by PTH?
Distal tubule
192
Why do patients with kidney disease get bone problems?
Kidney produces 1α-hydroxylase which converts inactive precursor into the active form of vitamin D Develop renal bone disease due to failure to produce this enzyme so inability to absorb adequate calcium from diet
193
What absorbs phosphate in the GI tract?
Sodium phosphate co-transporter which usually reaches Tm from dietary phosphate so excess phosphate spills over into urine
194
What factors inhibit the sodium phosphate co transporter in the GI tract?
PTH & fibroblast growth factor-23 (FGF-23) inhibit the sodium phosphate co-transporter, thus reducing phosphate reabsorption
195
What is the net effect of PTH?
Increase calcium and reduce phosphate reabsorption
196
What can be consequences of fluid overload?
Oedema Congestive heart failure - pulmonary oedema Hypertension
197
What are clinical features of hypovolaemia?
``` Thirst Dizziness on standing Confusion Low JVP Postural hypotension Weight loss Dry mouth Reduced skin turgor Reduced urine output ```
198
What are clinical features of hypervolaemia?
``` Ankle swelling Breathlessness, pulmonary oedema (crackles) Raised JVP Oedema Weight gain Hypertension ```
199
What will a hypertonic solution cause a cell to do?
Shrink
200
Where can total body water be lost from?
Lungs Skin Faeces Urine
201
What is the minimum fluid loss per day and therefore how much must we drink per day?
Total min. loss each day ~ 1400ml | Must drink >500ml
202
What is the obligatory urine volume per day?
500ml
203
How much is maximum urine production per day?
20 litres
204
How much is normal urine production per day?
1500ml
205
What is the normal urinary rate per minute?
1ml/min
206
How do you calculate Osmoles excreted/day?
Urine osmolality (Osm/kg) x urine output (L/day)
207
How much solute volume is excreted per day?
Average excretion 600 mOsm solutes/day In 1500 ml urine, urine osmolality is 400 mOsm/kg (600 = 400 x 1.5) If 3000ml urine, urine osmolality is 200 mOsm/kg (600 = 200 x 3)
208
What is Maximum urine osmolality?
1200 mosmol/kg H2O
209
What fluid balance issue is caused by diabetes?
High levels of solute cause a diuresis even if high levels of ADH present
210
What is Polyuria?
High urine flow
211
What can cause increase in solute excretion in the urine? And therefore an osmotic dieresis?
Glycosuria (diabetes mellitus) | Diuretics (failure to reabsorb sodium)
212
What can cause an increase in water excretion?
Excessive water ingestion | Inability to concentrate urine (tubular damage, diabetes insipidus)
213
What is oliguria?
Reduced urine volume
214
What can cause oliguria?
Poor perfusion (dehydration / reduced volume)
215
Where does most water reabsorption occur in the nephron?
Proximal convoluted tubule
216
Describe Water reabsorption from collecting duct of nephron
Water reabsorption from collecting ducts is passive and requires: Insertion of water channels (aquaporins), Regulated by ADH, release stimulated by: Cellular dehydration (increased plasma osmolality), Extracellular dehydration (decreased fluid volume) An osmotic gradient: Generated by the countercurrent system
217
Where is ADH produced?
Supraoptic & paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus
218
What is ADH?
Vasopressin | 9 amino acid peptide
219
Where is ADH transported too from the hypothalamus?
Transported to posterior pituitary (cleavage of precursor) Packaged into storage granules Released by exocytosis Plasma half life 10-15 mins
220
What are the two main functions of ADH?
Reduce water excretion | Stimulate vasoconstriction
221
What are stimuli for ADH release?
Raised plasma osmolality (hypertonicity) Extracellular volume reduction Angiotensin II (released if low BP/blood volume) Nausea (precaution for expected vomiting and fluid loss) Drugs e.g. nicotine & morphine
222
Which cells can influence the release of ADH?
Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus detect cellular dehydration Peripheral volume receptors: Low pressure sensors in atria, pulmonary vasculature, High pressure sensors in carotid sinuses & aortic arch, Stretch receptors in afferent arterioles (via release of Ang II) Cause an increase in thirst and ADH release
223
Describe the process of restoring water balance from a low level
Water deficit -> increased osmolarity detected by osmoreceptors -> increased ADH secretion -> increased H2O permeability in distal tubule and collecting duct -> increased H2O reabsorption -> water volume restored
224
What is thirst?
Conscious desire for water
225
Where are thirst centres?
Hypothalamus
226
What inhibits ADH release?
Reduction in plasma osmolality (hypotonicity) Extracellular volume increase Drugs e.g. alcohol
227
Describe the cellular action of ADH
Binds to GPCR receptor which causes production of cAMP via Gs This activates PKA which phosphorylates proteins This leads to increased production of aquaporins and increased insertion of stored channels from vesicles into membrane thus increasing the permeability of the collecting duct to water
228
Where are different aquaporins located?
AQP1: widely distributed (permeability of PT) AQP2: collecting duct (apical membrane, uptake from lumen) regulated by ADH AQP3+4: collecting duct (basolateral membrane) allows H2O reabsorbed from the lumen to enter interstitium AQP5: primarily non-renal (brain, lungs, salivary glands)
229
How can we form dilute urine?
Ascending limb of loop of Henle, tubule is relatively impermeable to water in absence of ADH Pumps move solutes out of tubule lumen, leave behind dilute tubular fluid which leads to dilute urine
230
How can we form concentrated urine?
Distal & collecting tubules/ducts permeable to water in presence of ADH, water moves so osmotic equilibrium with surrounding interstitium which leads to concentrated urine Note osmolality of medullary intersitium ~1200mOsm/kg/H2O
231
What does ADH induced water movement require?
Osmotic gradient
232
What does the Osmotic potential of kidney interstitium depend on?
Urea and NaCl
233
Describe how the re circulation of urea contributes to our ability to concentrate urine
Filtered urea is recirculated & due to differing permeability along nephron becomes trapped at high concentration within medullary interstitium Urea makes a key contribution to osmotic gradient High protein diet improves ability to form a concentrated urine
234
What does the countercurrent mechanism rely on?
Loop of Henle | Vasa recta
235
What does the countercurrent mechanism result in?
A dilute filtrate entering distal nephron (allows water to move out of tubule to circulation by osmosis) Generates an increase in [NaCl] in medulla, so contributing to increase in osmotic gradient (which allows osmosis of water)
236
Describe water and NaCl permeability changes through loop of Henle
Thin descending: Permeable to H2O, Na+, Cl- (passive) Thin ascending: Impermeable to H2O, Minimal Na+, Cl- Thick ascending: Impermeable to H2O, Na+, Cl- reabsorption (active)
237
What allows NaCl transport in the loop of Henle?
Na+, K+, 2Cl- (co-transporter) on luminal membrane driven by gradient generated by the Na+/K+-ATPase on basolateral membrane
238
Describe what NaCl and water movement occurs in the thick ascending limb
Reabsorption from tubule lumen mediated by sodium, potassium 2-chloride co-transporter(Na+K+2Cl-) Positive charge in lumen encourages paracellular reabsorption of cations (including Ca2+ and Mg2+) As water cannot follow, the remaining tubular lumen fluid is diluted
239
Describe countercurrent multiplication
NaCl pumps in thick ascending limb maintain 200 mOsmol difference to medullary intersitium Water loss from thin descending limb to maintain osmolarity of medulla Interstitial osmolarity always same as that in descending loop Difference in osmolarities between descending and ascending limbs at any transverse level is only 200 mosmol/kg H2O
240
What is the role of the vasa recta in countercurrent multiplication?
For countercurrent to work, salt released from loop of Henle must remain in medulla, while most of water is removed Vasa Recta are long thinned walled blood vessels that parallel loops of Henle - hairpin arrangement Low blood flow ~5-10% renal blood flow (enough to provide nutrients) Hairpin arrangement allows nutrient delivery & water removal while minimising disruption to medullary concentration gradient Constant flow urea and NaCl stops precipitation
241
What are the consequences of countercurrent multiplication?
Filtrate hypo-osmotic relative to interstitium, water leaves by osmosis down a concentration gradient
242
Give 2 examples of Disorders of water regulation
Too much ADH: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) | Too little ADH: Diabetes insipidus (cranial or nephrogenic)
243
What is syndrome of inappropriate ADH? And what can cause it?
Excess ADH production Causes: pneumonia, small-cell lung carcinoma, drugs, meningitis Effects: Inappropriate water reabsorption leading to: Low plasma osmolality, Low serum [Na] (dilutional hyponatraemia), cerebral oedema, Urine inappropriately concentrated & high urinary [Na]
244
What are treatment options for syndrome of inappropriate ADH?
Identify & treat underlying cause Restrict fluid intake Drugs that inhibit ADH e.g. demeclocycline or vasopressin V2 antagonists e.g. tolvaptan) Avoid correcting hyponatraemia with saline infusions
245
What is diabetes insipidus?
Inability to reabsorb water from distal nephron due to inadequate production (cranial DI) of ADH or insensitivity (nephrogenic DI) to ADH
246
What can cause diabetes insipidus?
``` Cranial DI (fail to produce/secrete ADH from hypothalamus/pituitary): head trauma, neurosurgery, tumours, infections Nephrogenic DI (renal tubules insensitive to circulating ADH): drugs (e.g. lithium), electrolyte abnormalities (↑[Ca2+]; ↓[K+]) ```
247
What are the effects of diabetes insipidus?
Large losses of water in urine: Polyuria (10-15 litres/day) Thirst & polydipsia (need access to fluids to keep pace with losses) Low urine osmolality (dilute) High / high normal plasma osmolality & serum [Na]
248
What investigations can be done to confirm diagnosis of diabetes insipidus?
Water/fluid deprivation test Deprived of fluid so↑plasma osmolality should prompt release of ADH & concentration of urine if normal Monitor plasma & urine osmolality, weight, BP 1st stage identifies if DI, 2nd stage differentiates cranial from nephrogenic. Administer synthetic ADH (desmopressin) to differentiate
249
What is treatment for diabetes insipidus?
Identify & treat underlying cause Ensure adequate fluid intake to match losses Synthetic ADH (desmopressin) – cranial DI Drugs to sensitise renal tubules to ADH – nephrogenic DI
250
Why are the kidneys susceptible to drug induced acute kidney injury?
Highly vascular Large surface area for binding & transport into blood Reabsorption of water from kidneys concentrates drugs in nephron
251
What is the important factor with drugs if the kidney is not functioning properly?
Accumulate to toxic levels if excreted through kidneys and renal function is impaired
252
Which drugs should be avoided in renal disease?
Nephrotoxic drugs: consequences likely to be more serious when renal reserve is already reduced Amoxicillin, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs
253
What are reasons for problems with medications in patients with impaired renal function?
Failure to excrete drug or metabolites:mreduce dose / frequency, Consider alternatives Side-effects poorly tolerated by patients (e.g. increased potassium) Drugs less effective when renal function is reduced (e.g. diuretics)
254
What are dose adjustments in renal disease patients based on?
Severity of renal impairment Proportion of drug eliminated by renal excretion Toxicity of drug / ‘safety margin’
255
What does the BNF say about drug dosing in renal disease patients?
Use eGFR values to guide, recognise limitations & situations where dosing needs more accurate measures of GFR e.g. Toxic drugs Patients at extremes of weight
256
How does dialysis affect the analysis of dosing of patients with renal disease?
Some drugs removed by dialysis Loss of therapeutic effect for some drugs No longer worried about nephrotoxic effects
257
What effect does urine pH have on drug excretion?
Alkaline urine, acidic drugs more readily ionised Acidic urine, alkaline drugs more readily ionised Ionised substances (polar) more soluble in water – easier to excrete via kidneys
258
How can aspirin poisoning be rectified?
Aspirin is weak acid. Give them IV sodium bicarbonate so they excrete aspirin more quickly
259
What is diuresis?
Formation of urine by the kidney
260
What is a diuretic?
Substance that promotes the formation (excretion) of urine
261
What is natriuresis?
Renal excretion of sodium
262
What is a natriuretic?
Substance that promotes renal excretion of sodium
263
What are diuretics used for?
Treat fluid overload: oedema, CHF, hypertension
264
What are the 3 important and common classes of diuretics?
Loop diuretics Thiazide diuretics Potassium sparing diuretics
265
What is Tolvaptan?
ADH antagonist Licensed for use in SIADH they produce a water diuresis, as opposed to a natriuresis – important as have dilutional hyponatraemia
266
Where do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors exert their effects?
Proximal convoluted tubule
267
Which drugs exert their effects in the proximal convoluted tubule and descending limb of loop of Henle?
Osmotic diuretics
268
Where do loop diuretics exert their effect?
Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
269
What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics?
Block apical Na+K+2Cl- transporters
270
Where do thiazide diuretics exert their effects and what is their mechanism of action?
Early distal convoluted tubule | Block apical Na+Cl- channels
271
Which part of the nephron is sensitive to aldosterone?
Late distal convoluted tubule, early collecting duct
272
What is spironalactone?
Aldosterone receptor blocker
273
What is amiloride?
ENaC antagonist
274
Which are the K sparing diuretics?
Spironalactone - aldosterone antagonist | Amiloride - ENaC antagonist
275
Give an example of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and describe how it exerts its effect
Acetazolamide Weak diuretic, Inhibits carbonic anhydrase in proximal tubule CO2 + H2O -> H2CO3 -> H+ + HCO3- HCO3- can’t be directly transported from lumen – needs carbonic anhydrase (CA) & secreted H+ When CA is inhibited, HCO3- reabsorption is blocked, along with Na+ & accompanying water
276
What can be a side effect of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Prevents exchange and secretion of H+ | Side effect can be metabolic acidosis
277
What are uses of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Not usually prescribed for diuretic effect Reduce intraocular pressure (aqueous humour production requires HCO3- secretion): glaucoma, eye surgery Mountain sickness Given orally or intravenously
278
Describe how osmotic diuretics work
Increase osmolality of filtrate: prevent water reabsorption | Act best where most osmotic reabsorption occurs (PT, descending loop of Henle)
279
Name 2 osmotic diuretics and describe their use
Mannitol: ↓ intracranial pressure,↓ intraocular pressure (glaucoma) Glucose (natural): Filtered and reabsorbed by transporters: if Tm exceeded (e.g. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus) glucose excreted in urine -> polyuria (->polydipsia)
280
What is furosemide?
Loop diuretic
281
Which are the most powerful diuretics?
Loop diuretics
282
How do loop diuretics work?
↓ NaCl reabsorption in thick ALH causes ↓osmotic concentration in medulla (so ↓ADH mediated H2O absorption) Increase delivery of NaCl to distal collecting duct causes increased Na+ uptake there, so loss of K+ (& H+) - hypokalaemia
283
Why are loop diuretics effective in renal disease patients? But less effective in nephrotic syndrome?
``` Bind plasma proteins so not filtered, secreted directly into PT nephron Effective in renal impairment Nephrotic syndrome (large amounts of albuminuria) - bind to albumin in filtrate – may be less effective ```
284
What are the main uses of loop diuretics?
Peripheral oedema in chronic heart failure Acute pulmonary oedema Resistant hypertension
285
What are side effects of loop diuretics?
``` Increased frequency of urination Hypovolaemia & hypotension (excessive Na+ and water loss) Hypokalaemia Metabolic alkalosis can occur Ototoxicity (high doses) ```
286
Give examples of thiazide diuretics
Bendroflumethiazide, indapamide, chlortalidone
287
Describe the pharmacodynamics of thiazide diuretics
Weak/moderate diuresis (well tolerated), Usually given orally Slower acting, but longer lasting than loop diuretics Not so good in renal impairment (filtered and secreted) Reduces calcium excretion in urine
288
What are the main uses of thiazide diuretics?
Hypertension Peripheral oedema in chronic heart failure Reduces calcium excretion i.e. lower Ca2+ in urine so may see used to treat hypercalciuria
289
What are side effects of thiazide diuretics?
Increased frequency of urination Hypokalaemia / hyponatraemia / (metabolic alkalosis) ↑ plasma uric acid (gout) as it competes for uric acid transporter Erectile dysfunction Hyperglycaemia
290
Why do thiazide and loop diuretics cause hypokalaemia?
Increase delivery of NaCl to distal nephron & decrease blood volume Increases potassium secretion by: Increasing tubular flow rate ↑activity of Na+/K+ATPase via↑[Na+] & activation of RAAS (↑aldosterone) Intercalated cells also stimulated to secrete H+ hence alkalosis
291
Describe how potassium sparing diuretics work
Act on principal cells in late distal / cortical collecting tubule Either inhibit ENaC or the mineralocorticoid receptor (MR) Reduce K+ secretion
292
How do ENaC antagonists work as diuretics?
Blocks epithelial sodium channels (competes for Na+ binding site) & decreases luminal permeability to sodium Weak diuretic alone Used in combination with thiazide or loop diuretics Reduced potassium secretion into lumen ∴ potassium retained
293
Describe how aldosterone antagonists work as diuretics
Aldosterone antagonist binds to mineralocorticoid receptor (MR) Given orally and metabolised to active metabolite canrenone Weak diuretic if used alone Prevents synthesis of ENaC & Na+/K+ATPase activation & so reduced potassium secretion into lumen ∴ potassium retained
294
What are the main uses of aldosterone antagonists?
Chronic heart failure Peripheral oedema & ascites caused by cirrhosis Resistant hypertension Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome) Used in combination, prevent K+ loss from loop / thiazide diuretics
295
What are side effects of potassium sparing diuretics?
Hyperkalaemia (care if prescribing with other agents that inhibit RAAS) Gynaecomastia (aldosterone antagonists)
296
What is Aliskiren?
Renin inhibitor
297
What is Ramipril?
ACE inhibitor
298
What are ARBs?
Angiotensin II receptor blocker /antagonist | Eg losartan
299
What happens if thiazides and loop diuretics are combined?
Loop diuretics increase NaCl to distal nephron, increases efficiency of thiazides Can cause large volume losses and K+ loss
300
What effects occur if loop or thiazide diuretics are combined with K sparing diuretics?
Get good diuretic function without loss of K+ | Take care with K+ retention
301
What helps to determine GFR?
Balance of afferent (AA) and efferent arteriole (EA) resistances
302
What effects do NSAIDs have on GFR?
NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins which normally cause dilatation afferent arteriole flow NSAIDs↓in GFR
303
What effects do ACE inhibitors and ARBs have on GFR? So why are they used in CKD?
ACEI / ARB cause efferent arteriolar dilatation so↓in GFR | Initial fall in GFR but stabilises & renal function conserved long-term
304
In which renal condition should ACE inhibitors not be given?
Renal artery stenosis | ACE inhibitors will precipitate a continuing fall
305
What are the functions of the kidney?
Homeotasis: Fluid, electrolytes and acid base balance Hormone production: Renin / angiotensin, Vitamin D metabolites, Erythropoietin Excretion of metabolites: Organic acids, Phosphates, Urea / creatinine
306
What is the RIFLE criteria?
Risk: 1.5x↑ creatinine,↓ 25% GFR, 4 weeks | ESRD (established renal disease): Need RRT for>3 months
307
What is the AKIN criteria?
Stage 1: 1.5-2x ↑creatinine, 3x ↑ creatinine, <0.3ml/kg urine for 24h or anuria for 12h
308
What is the definition of acute kidney injury?
Significant deterioration in renal function, potentially reversible, over a period of hours or days
309
Where can the causes of acute kidney injury come from?
Pre-renal failure: Renal hypoperfusion, Systemic hypotension (Hypovolaemia, Sepsis), Renal artery stenosis, Drugs- ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs Intrinsic renal failure Post-renal failure: obstruction
310
How would you diagnose obstruction causing post renal failure?
Ultrasound scan | Anatomically: Where? In lumen, wall, Outside wall
311
What are the categories of intrinsic renal failure?
Primary renal disease: Glomerulonephritis Secondary renal disease: Diabetes, SLE, myeloma Interstitial nephritis: Usually caused by drugs Secondary acute tubular necrosis: Established after pre-renal failure
312
What are the most common causes of acute kidney injury?
Pre-renal failure 85%: Hypoperfusion Intrinsic renal failure 5%: Many causes, ATN Post-renal failure 10%: Obstruction
313
What is important in a history for renal issues?
``` Rate of onset Precipitating factors Urinary symptoms Chronic symptoms Systemic features of autoimmune disease: Myalgias, rash, ENT symptoms, haemoptysis Relevant PMH/FH CKD, DM, vascular disease Drug history ```
314
What are important features to look for on examination with renal issues?
Fluid status: Tissue turgor, Mucous membranes/tongue, Pulse rate, rhythm and volume, Lying and standing blood pressure, JVP, Peripheral perfusion, Peripheral oedema Signs of sepsis: Fever, Tachycardia/bounding pulse, Tachypnoea, Warm peripheries, Local signs of sepsis Cardiac: Pericardial rub Respiratory: Pulmonary oedema/effusion Abdominal: Ascites/masses/bladder CNS: Drowsiness/confusion Skin: Rashes
315
What blood tests can be done to test renal function?
Biochemistry: Creatinine, eGFR, Na/K, Bicarbonate, Ca/Phos/PTH, CRP, CK Haematology: Hb Immunology: ANA, ANCA, anti-GBM, complement (C3, C4), electrophoresis (IgA/G/M)
316
What urine tests can be performed to look at renal function?
``` Urine dipstix: protein, blood ACR/PCR: quantify protein 24h creatinine clearance Urine output MSU: check for infection Urine creatinine/electrolytes/calcium ```
317
What radiological studies can be done to test for renal issues?
``` Renal tract USS CT renal angiogram CT KUB Plain AXR KUB IVP Renogram CXR ```
318
What is the initial management of acute kidney injury?
Keep the patient alive: Hyperkalaemia, Fluid overload, Hypotension, Acidosis, Uraemia Generic management of AKI: Fluids, Stop nephrotoxins Diagnose cause of AKI (& treat)
319
What ECG changes might be present with Hyperkalaemia?
``` Peaked “tented” T waves Prolonged P-R interval Prolonged QRS duration Loss of P waves VF/asystole ```
320
What management can be performed for Hyperkalaemia?
Stabilise myocardium: Ca Gluconate Shift K+ into cells: Insulin+Dextrose, Salbutamol, NaBic if acidotic Treat ARF, treat cause Dialysis
321
What would be subsequent management strategies for acute kidney injury?
Close observation: BP, pulse, Daily weight, Fluid balance assessment, resp function (Sats, RR, O2 requirement) Daily U&E Review medications (nephrotoxins/dose adjustment) Manage underlying cause
322
When might ICU need to be informed and involved with acute kidney injury management?
Hypotensive secondary to sepsis Hypotensive and fluid overloaded Hypotension is not responding to fluid resuscitation If >1 organ failure
323
When might a renal specialist registrar need to be involved in the care of a patient with acute kidney injury?
Pre-renal AKI not rapidly resolving with supportive therapy Doubt about cause of AKI Blood/protein in urine or other reason to suspect intrinsic AKI Life-threatening complications (HyperK, fluid overload)
324
What are mortality rates with acute kidney injury?
10% in uncomplicated AKI | >50% in AKI with multi-organ failure
325
What were the NCEPOD summary recommendations on acute kidney injury management?
Emergency admissions should have risk assessment for AKI and electrolytes checked on admission and appropriately thereafter Predictable avoidable AKI should not occur Acute admission receive senior review (consultant within 12 hours) Sufficient critical care and renal beds to allow rapid step up care Undergraduate medical training should include recognition of acutely ill patient and prevention, diagnosis and management of AKI Postgraduate training in all specialties should include training in detection, prevention and management of AKI
326
What are the stages of chronic kidney disease?
Stage 1: kidney damage with normal GFR, over 90 Stage 2: kidney damage with mild decrease GFR, 60-89 Stage 3: moderate decrease in GFR, 30-59 Stage 4: severe decrease in GFR, 15-29 Stage 5: kidney failure, GFR <15, for dialysis
327
What can be complications of chronic kidney disease?
``` Cardiovascular disease Hypertension Anaemia Bone-mineral metabolism Poor nutritional and functional status Progression of CKD AKI ```
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What tests can be used to measure chronic kidney disease?
Tests for renal excretory function: Creatinine, Cystatin C, eGFR Urinalysis: haematuria Urine protein: 24h urine collection, Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (sensitive at low levels, recommended in diabetes), Urine protein:creatinine ratio Tests for complications: Hb, K+, sBic, cCa, PTH Diagnostic blood tests: ANCA, electrophoresis, Glc Radiological tests: USS, CT, DMSA
329
What is the relationship between creatinine levels and kidney function?
Creatinine levels remain fairly constant until a large loss of function so may not be an accurate measurement of normal function. Good measure for relatively end stages CKD
330
What is significant progression of CKD?
Sustained decline in GFR of 25% or more and a change in category in within 12 months Or sustained decline in GFR of 15ml/min/1.73m2 per year
331
What risk factors are associated with progression of CKD?
``` Hypertension Diabetes mellitus Albuminuria Cardiovascular disease Smoking Ethnicity NSAIDS ```
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What are the consequences of late presentation of CKD?
Higher mortality, morbidity, hospital stay, cost Due to poorer clinical state at presentation, lack of vascular access No possibility of pre-emptive transplantation
333
What is established renal failure?
Stage of chronic kidney disease where renal replacement therapy is required to safely sustain life
334
What is the treatment of established renal failure?
Dialysis: Haemodialysis (hospital, satellite, home), Peritoneal dialysis (CAPD, APD) Transplantation: Deceased-donor transplant, Living-donor transplant (including pre-emptive) Conservative care
335
What are Considerations when discussing RRT modality?
Physical & social factors: Eyesight & manual dexterity, Mobility and functional status, Family and social support, Work Medical factors: Abdominal surgery, Vascular disease, Hypotension/left ventricular dysfunction Geographical factors: Distance from haemodialysis unit, Space/cleanliness of house
336
What are pros and cons of renal replacement therapy?
Pro-RRT: Increased survival, Decreased uraemic symptoms | Con-RRT: 3x4h/week (+travel), Dialysis access procedures & complications,mdoes not cure other comorbidities
337
Name some anatomical relations of the kidneys
``` Suprarenal glands Liver Transverse mesocolon Jejunum Stomach Spleen Pancreas 2nd part duodenum Costodiaphragmatic recess Quadratus lumborum Psoas major 12th rib ```