Key Terms Test 1 (CH 1,8,9, 11 ) Flashcards

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1
Q

sentencing process,

A

which is defined as “the judicial determination of a legal sanction upon a person convicted of an offence”

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2
Q

Specific deterrence:

A

Sentencing to reduce the probability that an offender will reoffend in the future

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3
Q

General deterrence:

A

Sentencing to reduce the probability that members of the general public will offend in the future

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4
Q

Fundamental principle of sentencing:

A

The belief that sentences should be proportionate to the gravity of the offence and the degree of responsibility of the offender

Baccaria

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5
Q

Absolute discharge:

A

The release of an offender into the community with no conditions put in place

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6
Q

Conditional discharge:

A

The release of an offender into the community with conditions put in place

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7
Q

Restitution:

A

A sentence where the offender has to make a monetary payment to the victim or the community

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8
Q

Fine:

A

A sentence where the offender has to make a monetary payment to the courts

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9
Q

Community service:

A

A sentence that involves the offender performing a duty in the community, often as a way of paying off a fine

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10
Q

Conditional sentence:

A

A sentence served in the community

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11
Q

Sentencing disparity:

A

Variations in sentencing severity for similar crimes committed under similar circumstances

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12
Q

Unwarranted sentencing disparity:

A

Variations in sentencing severity for similar crimes committed under similar circumstances that result from reliance by the judge on legally irrelevant factors

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13
Q

Systematic disparity:

A

Consistent disagreement among judges about sentencing decisions because of factors such as how lenient judges think sentences should be

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14
Q

Unsystematic disparity:

A

Inconsistencies in a judge’s sentencing decisions over time when judging the same type of offender or crime because of factors such as the judge’s mood

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15
Q

Sentencing guidelines:

A

Guidelines that are intended to reduce the degree of discretion that judges have when handing down sentence

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16
Q

Need principle:

A

Principle that correctional interventions should target known criminogenic needs

(i.e., factors that relate to reoffending)

for eg:

Low risk people when incarcerated are more likely to reoffend because they are exposed to criminals

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17
Q

Responsivity principle:

A

that correctional interventions

should match the general learning

style of offenders

cognitive-behavioural interventions are likely to be most useful with offenders

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18
Q

Parole Board of Canada

A

organization in Canada responsible

for making parole decisions

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19
Q

Parole:

A

The release of offenders

from prison into the community

before their sentence term is

Complete

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20
Q

Temporary absence:

A

A form of

parole that allows the offender to

enter the community on a

temporary basis (e.g., for the

purpose of attending correctional

programs)

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21
Q

Day parole:

A

A form of parole that

allows the offender to enter the

community for up to one day (e.g.,

for the purpose of holding down a

job)

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22
Q

Full parole:

A

A form of parole that

allows the offender to serve the

remainder of his or her sentence

under supervision in the

Community

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23
Q

Statutory release:

A

The release of

offenders from prison after they

have served two-thirds of their

Sentence

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24
Q

allocution

A

are you aware of what you are pleading? what the consequences are?

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25
Q

fitness standard bill before 92

A

Understand nature or object of proceedings

Understand possible consequences of the proceedings

Communicate all facts that are his or her “best interests” with counsel

26
Q

Fitness Standard after 92

A

Ability to understand the actus rea

Ability to understand consequences of plea (due process denied)

Ability to demonstrate plea was not coerced

Best interest rule was omitted in this version

27
Q

Actus Reus:

A

wrongful deed

28
Q

Mens Rea:

A

criminal intent (could have opened a door and kiled them by mistake)

29
Q

Insanity:

A

Impairment of mental or emotional functioning that affects perceptions, beliefs, and motivations at the time of the offence

30
Q

how many cases will plead insanity

A

2%

only 25% of thise will succeed

if you plead insanity you are giving up your due process model

31
Q

Review boards:

A

Legal bodies mandated to oversee the care and disposition of defendants found unfit and/or not criminally responsible on account of a mental disorder

32
Q

“not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder” (NCRMD) definition

A

not criminally responsible for an act committed or omited while suffering from a mental disorder that rendered the person incapable of appreciating the nature or quality of the act or omission or of knowing it was wrong

33
Q

two situations in which the Crown may raise insanity

A
  • Following a guilty verdict - they want to make sure they understand that they are accused
  • If the defense states the defendant has a mental illness
34
Q

Insanity defence requires a

A

psychiatric assessment

35
Q

Three dispositions can be made for NCRMD

A

Absolute discharge

Conditional discharge

Psychiatric facility

36
Q

when considering disposition (ruling) of NCRMD 4 factors

Not Criminally Responsible on Account of Mental Disorder

A

Public safety

Mental state of the defendant

Reintegration of defendant into society

Other needs of the defendant

37
Q

Guilty but Mentally Ill Verdict (USA)

A

A person found to be sane but controlled by a behavioural disorder that led to the criminal act (eg. Abused spousal syndrome) can be found to be GBMI

38
Q

Automatism:

A

unconscious, involuntary behaviour; the person committing the act is not aware of what they are doing

39
Q

Insane automatism results in an

A

NCRMD verdict and may result in defendant being sent to mental health facility

40
Q

Noninsane automatism results in

A

a not guilty verdict

41
Q
A
42
Q

General acceptance test:

A

A standard for accepting expert testimony, which states that expert testimony will be admissible in court if the basis of the testimony is generally accepted within the relevant scientific community

43
Q

retroactive memory falsification caused by

A

extensive pretrial press coverage could influence the testimony of people by causing what Binet called

44
Q

capping, which refers to

A

the maximum period of time a person with a mental illness can be affected by his or her disposition.

For example, the disposition period for a defendant with a mental illness who committed

a violent offence is ten years, the same length of time as the prison term. Once

the cap is reached, the defendant may be released without restrictions. However, if

the defendant is still perceived to be dangerous, he or she could be involuntarily

committed to a secure hospital.

45
Q

Community treatment order:

A

Sentence that allows the mentally ill offender to live in the community, with the stipulation that the person will agree to treatment or detention in the event that his or her condition deteriorates

46
Q

Diversion:

A

A decision not to prosecute, but rather have an offender undergo an educational or community-service program. Also an option for the courts dealing with offenders with mental illnesses who are facing minor charges.

47
Q

mental health courts

A

attempt to redirect those with mental health needs back into the mental health care system rather than the criminal justice system

48
Q

Psychopathy:

A

A personality

disorder defined by a collection of

interpersonal, affective, and

behavioural characteristics,

including manipulation, lack of

remorse or empathy, impulsivity,

and antisocial behaviours

49
Q

When psychopaths persist in criminal activity, the DSM-V classifies them as

A

Antisocial Personality Disorder

50
Q

Evidence suggests that psychopathy occurs at a rate of about -% of the general population

The rate for males tends to be at about - times greater than females

Few psychopaths actually commit crime

However, about -% of all violent crime is committed by those few psychopaths who resort to crime

A

1

5

30

51
Q

Brain deficits in psychopath

A

Evidence suggests brain deficits in the Orbitofrontal Cortex, the Anterior Cingulate Cortex, and the Amygdala

52
Q

Inuit in Alaska use the term — to described an individual who “repeatedly

lies and cheats and steals things and does not go hunting and, when the other men are

out of the village, takes sexual advantage of many women—someone who does not

pay attention to reprimands and who is always being brought to the elders for punishment”

A

kulangeta

53
Q

Psychopathic PersonalityInventory–Revised:

A

A self-report

measure of psychopathic traits

54
Q

Antisocial personalitydisorder:

A

A personality disorder

characterized by a history of

behaviour in which the rights of

others are violated

55
Q

Sociopathy:

A

A label used to

describe a person whose

psychopathic traits are assumed to

be due to environmental factors

56
Q

Adversarial allegiance:

A

The

tendency for forensic experts to be

biased toward the side (defence or

prosecution) that hired them

Researchers have found that PCL-R (psychopath assessment) scores provided by prosecution experts are higher

compared to those provided by defence experts

57
Q

Antisocial Process ScreeningDevice:

A

Observer rating scale to

assess psychopathic traits in

children

58
Q

Hare Psychopathy Checklist:

A

Youth Version: Scale designed to

measure psychopathic traits in

adolescents

59
Q

Response Modulation Deficit

Theory (psychopath)

A

they don’t learn from punishment - keep doing the same things over and over until they find other ways of getting what they want

In other words, if psychopaths

are engaging in specific rewarded behaviour, they will not pay

attention to other information that might inhibit their behaviour.

This theory has been used to explain why psychopaths fail

to learn to avoid punishment (i.e., have poor passive avoidance

60
Q
A