242 Test 3 Key Terms Flashcards

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1
Q

Criminal profiling:

A

An investigative technique for

identifying the major personality

and behavioural characteristics of

an individual based upon an

analysis of the crimes he or she has

committed

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2
Q

criminal profiling is now used for a number of purposes,

including the following

A
  • To help set traps to flush out an offender
  • To determine whether a threatening note should be taken seriously
  • To give advice on how best to interrogate a suspect
  • To tell prosecutors how to break down defendants in cross-examination
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3
Q

the RCMP prefers to use the term — , which suggests a broader focus than profiling

A

criminal investigative analysis

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4
Q

ViCLAS:

A

The Violent Crime Linkage

Analysis System, which was

developed by the RCMP to collect

and analyze information on serious

crimes from across Canada

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5
Q

Linkage blindness:

A

An inability

on the part of the police to link

geographically dispersed serial

crimes committed by the same

offender because of a lack of

information sharing among police

agencies

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6
Q

Two profiling methods are often talked about:

A

the deductive profiling method and the inductive profiling method

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7
Q

Deductive criminal profiling:

A

Profiling the background

characteristics of an unknown

offender based on evidence left at

the crime scenes by that particular

offender

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8
Q

Inductive criminal profiling:

A

Profiling the background

characteristics of an unknown

offender based on what we know

about other solved cases

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9
Q

Organized-disorganized model:

A

A profiling model used by

the FBI that assumes the crime

scenes and backgrounds of serial

offenders can be categorized as

organized or disorganized

organized characteristics reflect a methodical individual, while disorganized characteristics reflect a disturbed individual, who is usually suffering from some form of psychopathology

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10
Q

criticisms of profiling

A
  1. Many forms of profiling appear to be based on a theoretical model of personality

that lacks strong empirical support.

  1. The core psychological assumptions underlying profiling currently lack strong

empirical support.

  1. Many profiles contain information that is so vague and ambiguous they can

potentially fit many suspects.

  1. Professional profilers may be no better than untrained individuals at constructing

accurate profiles.

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11
Q

Classic trait model:

A

A model of

personality that assumes the

primary determinants of behaviour

are stable, internal traits

FBI’s organized-disorganized approach, rely on a classic trait model of personality that was popular in psychology before the 1970s. In this model, the primary determinants of behaviour are stable, internal traits

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12
Q

Two assumptions in particular have been tested by researchers:

A

(1) that offenders behave in a stable fashion across the crimes they commit and (2) that reliable relationships exist between the way in which offenders commit their crimes and their background characteristics

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13
Q

Geographic profiling:

A

An investigative technique that uses

crime scene locations to predict the

most likely area where an offender

resides

most often in cases involving very violent crimes, though it has also been used in cases of serial robbery,

arson, and burglary

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14
Q

Geographic profiling systems:

A

Computer systems that use

mathematical models of offender

spatial behaviour to make

predictions about where unknown

serial offenders are likely to reside

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15
Q

Internalizing problems:

A

Emotional difficulties such as

anxiety, depression, and obsessions

experienced by a youth

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16
Q

Externalizing problems:

A

Behavioural difficulties such as

delinquency, fighting, bullying,

lying, or destructive behaviour

experienced by a youth

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17
Q

Attention deficit/hyperactivitydisorder:

A

A disorder in a youth

characterized by a persistent pattern

of inattention and hyperactivity or

impulsivity

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18
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder:

A

A disorder in a youth characterized

by a persistent pattern of negativistic,

hostile, and defiant behaviours

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19
Q

Conduct disorder:

A

A disorder

characterized by a persistent pattern

of behaviour in which a youth

violates the rights of others or ageappropriate

societal norms or rules

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20
Q

Mental health professionals are expected to consider the likelihood that their patients will act in a violent manner and to intervene to prevent such behaviour.

This responsibility is called

A

duty to warn .

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21
Q

To be declared a — , a person must pose a substantial risk for violently reoffending

A

long-term offender

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22
Q

True positive:

A

A correct

prediction that occurs when a

person who is predicted to engage

in some type of behaviour

(e.g., a violent act) does so

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23
Q

True negative:

A

A correct

prediction that occurs when a

person who is predicted not to

engage in some type of behaviour

(e.g., a violent act) does not

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24
Q

False positive:

A

An incorrect

prediction that occurs when a

person is predicted to engage in

some type of behaviour

(e.g., a violent act) but does not

25
Q

False negative:

A

An incorrect

prediction that occurs when a

person is predicted not to engage

in some type of behaviour

(e.g., a violent act) but does

26
Q

Base rate:

A

Represents the

percentage of people within a

given population who commit a

criminal or violent act

27
Q

The shortcuts people use to help to make decisions are called

A

heuristics

28
Q

Illusory correlation:

A

Belief that

a correlation exists between two

events that in reality are either not

correlated or correlated to a much

lesser degree

29
Q

Unstructured clinical judgment:

A

Decisions

characterized by a substantial

amount of professional discretion

and lack of guidelines

30
Q

mechanical prediction involves

A

predefined rules about what risk factors to consider, how information should be collected, and how information should be combined to make a risk decision

31
Q

Actuarial prediction:

A

Decisions

are based on risk factors that are

selected and combined based on

their empirical or statistical

association with a specific outcome

32
Q

Structured professionaljudgment:

A

Decisions are guided

by a predetermined list of risk

factors that have been selected

from the research and professional

literature. Judgment of risk level is

based on the evaluator’s

professional judgment

33
Q

Skeem and Monahan (2011) described violence-risk-assessment approaches as having four components

A

include

“(a) identifying empirically valid risk factors,

(b) determining a method for measuring (or ‘scoring’) these risk factors,
(c) establishing a procedure

for combining scores on the risk factors, and

(d) producing an estimate of

violence risk”

34
Q

Static risk factors

A

are factors that do not fluctuate over time and are not changed by treatment. Age at first arrest is an example of a static risk factor, since no amount of time or treatment will change this risk factor. Static risk factors have also been called historical risk factors

35
Q

Historical risk factors:

A

Risk

factors that refer to events that

have been experienced in the past

(e.g., age at first arrest). Also

known as static risk factors

36
Q

Dispositional risk factors:

A

Risk

factors that reflect the individual’s

traits, tendencies, or styles

(e.g., negative attitudes)

37
Q

Clinical risk factors:

A

Types and

symptoms of mental disorders

(e.g., substance abuse)

38
Q

Contextual risk factors:

A

Risk

factors that refer to aspects of the

current environment (e.g., access to

victims or weapons). Sometimes

called situational risk factors

39
Q

Situational risk factors:

A

Risk

factors that refer to aspects of the

current environment (e.g., access to

victims or weapons). Sometimes

called contextual risk factors

40
Q

Protective factors:

A

Factors that

mitigate or reduce the likelihood of

a negative outcome (e.g.,

delinquency, aggression)

41
Q

Desistance:

A

The process of

ceasing to engage in criminal

behaviour

42
Q

Family-only batterer:

A

A male

spousal batterer who is typically

not violent outside the home, does

not show much psychopathology,

and does not possess negative

attitudes supportive of violence

43
Q

Dysphoric/borderline batterer:

A

A male spousal batterer

who exhibits some violence outside

the family, is depressed, has

borderline personality traits, and

has problems with jealousy

44
Q

Generally violent/antisocial batterer:

A

A male spousal batterer

who is violent outside the home,

engages in other criminal acts, has

drug and alcohol problems, has

impulse-control problems, and

possesses violence-supportive

beliefs

45
Q

Rape trauma syndrome:

A

A

group of symptoms or behaviours

that are frequent after-effects of

having been raped

46
Q

Voyeur:

A

Someone who obtains

sexual gratification by observing

unsuspecting people, usually

strangers, who are naked, in the

process of undressing, or engaging

in sexual activity

47
Q

Anger rapist:

A

A rapist, as defined

by Groth, who uses more force

than necessary to obtain

compliance from the victim and

who engages in a variety of sexual

acts to degrade the victim

48
Q

Power rapist:

A

A rapist, as defined

by Groth, who seeks to establish

dominance and control over the

victim

49
Q

Sadistic rapist:

A

A rapist, as defined by Groth, who obtains

sexual gratification by hurting the

victim

50
Q

Fixated child molester:

A

A child

molester, as defined by Groth, who

has a long-standing, exclusive

sexual preference for children

51
Q

Regressed child molester:

A

A

child molester, as defined by Groth,

whose primary sexual orientation is

toward adults, but whose sexual

interests revert to children after a

stressful event or because of

feelings of inadequacy

52
Q

Modus Operandi (standard procedure)

A

Behaviors committed by the offender during the commission of the crime which are necessary to complete the crime.

what did the criminal do that was necessary to commit the crime

did they use a knife/gun/break a window - more detective work, not psychologist

53
Q

Signature:

A

what did the criminal do that was not required to commit the crime - kind of like a TAT test or projective test - tells you something about their personality

maybe he trashed the house on his way out of anger

54
Q
A
55
Q

Cognitive distortions:

A

Deviant

cognitions, values, or beliefs that

are used to justify or minimize

deviant behaviours

56
Q

Penile phallometry:

A

A

measurement device placed around

the penis to measure changes in

sexual arousal

57
Q

Aversion therapy:

A

The pairing of

an aversive stimuli with a deviant

fantasy for the purpose of reducing

the attractiveness of these deviant

fantasies

58
Q

Relapse prevention:

A

A method

of treatment designed to prevent

the occurrence of an undesired

behaviour (e.g., sexual assault

59
Q
A