Key points Flashcards

1
Q

Phakic eye with silicone oil induces what refractive error?

A

hyperopic shift usually between 5-9 dioptres

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2
Q

Aphakic eye with silicone oil induces what refractive error?

A

myopic shift

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3
Q

What is the prevalence of contralateral FTMH in patients with established MH

A

The prevalence of bilaterality of idiopathic macular holes, including earlier stages before a full-thickness dehiscence develops, will be higher, approaching 20% to 25%. Because a large proportion of early holes spontaneously resolve, only a small fraction (5%) develop bilateral full-thickness defects.

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4
Q

What type of lenses does the panfundoscope lens consist of?

A

2 convex lenses

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5
Q

When doing IO, is the 20D lens held further or closer to the patient than the 30D lens?

A

Further away

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6
Q

Which drug is SJS associated with mainly?

A

Sulphonamides

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7
Q

Diagnosis? A patient with a history of recurrent haematuria has increasing myopia, anterior lenticonus and macular flecks.?

A

Alport syndrome

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8
Q

Histopathological findings in Alport syndrome?

A

a defect in Type 4 (basement membrane) collagen

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9
Q

Features of Alport syndrome?

A

1) glomerular basement membrane nephritis
2) anterior lenticonus
3) cortical cataract
4) posterior polymorphous dystrophy
5) dot-fleck retinopathy

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10
Q

Inheritance pattern of Alport syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive (80%) and X-linked dominant (5%) forms

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11
Q

Congenital Causes of Ectopia Lentis

A

Familial
Aniridia
Marfan’s
Homocystinuria
Weill-Marchesani
Hyperlysinaemia
Sulphite oxidase deficiency
Stickler’s syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

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12
Q

Acquired causes of Ectopia Lentis

A

Trauma
Large eye (myopia, buphthalmos)
Anterior uveal tumours
Hypermature cataract

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13
Q

In severe TB, what proportion of patients is the Mantoux test negative in?

A

50%

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14
Q

POAG risk factors?

A

elevated IOP
positive family history of glaucoma
myopia
diabetes mellitus
cardiovascular disease
African American race
asymmetric cupping
large cups
early nonspecific visual field changes
thin corneas

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15
Q

What is the surface tension of silicone oil like in comparison to all the gases?

A

Significantly less than all gases

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16
Q

Features of lateral medullary syndrome?

A

ipsilateral vestibular nuclei symptoms (vertigo, nausea, nystagmus)
ipsilateral cerebellar signs such as dysdiadokinesia and dysmetria
lateral spinothalamic tract damage causing contralateral pain and temperature sensation loss
spinal trigeminal nucleus damage causing ipsilateral facial paraesthesia
ipsilateral Horner’s
ipsilateral bulbar signs such as hoarseness and dysphagia

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17
Q

Features of Terrien’s marginal degeneration

A

an uncommon, idiopathic, non-inflammatory condition
male preponderance
typically bilateral
peripheral corneal thinning
occurs superiorly first, then circumferentially
intact epithelium in an essentially quiet eye (unlike Mooren’s ulcer or PUK)
peripheral gutter: outer slope shelves gradually, central slope rises sharply
separated from limbus by clear zone
perforation is rare
against-the-rule astigmatism is often induced (flattening in the vertical meridian)
pseudo-pterygia can develop in longstanding cases
Treatment: rigid gas-permeable contact lens; crescentic patch graft in severe cases

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18
Q

Features of Parinaud’s dorsal midbrain syndrome?

A

light-near dissociation
mydriasis
Collier’s sign (lid retraction in primary position)
paralysis of convergence and accommodation
paralysis of upgaze (supranuclear palsy)
convergence-retraction nystagmus (worsened by upward rotation of OKN drum)
skew deviation
papilloedema or optic atrophy (if ventricular flow compromised)

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19
Q

Commonest cause of Parinaud’s Dorsal Midbrain Syndrome?

A

infants: hydrocephalus
young children: pinealoma
young adults: head trauma and multiple sclerosis
older adults (60 years): stroke

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20
Q

What is ICE syndrome?

A

caused by an abnormal corneal endothelial cell layer which proliferates and migrates across the angle and onto the iris

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21
Q

Commonest complication of ICE syndrome?

A

Glaucoma occurs in about 50% of cases, due to synechial angle closure secondary to contraction of this abnormal tissue.

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22
Q

What is thought to cause ICE syndrome?

A

PCR suggests a possible herpes simplex viral origin to the disease process.

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23
Q

Focal lymphoid aggregates in the substantia propria of the conjunctiva are otherwise known as:

A

Conjunctival follicles represent focal lymphoid aggregates in the substantia propria.

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24
Q

Follicles vs papillae?

A

The central part of the follicle is avascular, but dilated blood vessels may surround the base and sweep up from the base over the convexity

Papillae are vascular changes most prominent on the palpebral conjunctiva and the limbus; sites where fibrous septa anchor the conjunctiva to the underlying tissues. In contrast to follicles, papillae have a dilated vascular core surrounded by oedema and a mixed inflammatory infiltrate producing raised elevations of the conjunctival epithelium.

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25
Q

What are features of Plateau iris configuration?

A

Shallow iridocorneal angle due to anterior rotation of ciliary processes
AC depth NORMAL
Iris plane flat as opposed to convex in usual normal angles
Common in South East Asians than whites

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26
Q

Glucocorticoid with highest systemic potency?

A

dexamethasone, methylprednisolone, prednisolone, hydrocortisone, cortisone.

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27
Q

Features of PORN

A

caused by varicella zoster virus
occurs predominantly in immunocompromised individuals
presentation is initially unilateral

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28
Q

Features of Prednisolone

A

cytostatic anti-inflammatory agent that is a nonspecific immunosuppressive.

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29
Q

According to the Silicone Study, what is the rate of retinal re-detachment after removal of silicone oil in the setting of proliferative vitreoretinopathy

A

The Silicone Study compared the efficacy of silicone oil to C3F8 and SF6 in the treatment of proliferative vitreo-retinopathy. It found silicone oil to be superior to SF6 and equally effective to C3F8. The rate of re-detachment was 20% after removal of silicone oil.

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30
Q

Marfan’s syndrome is caused by a defect in:

A

Fibrillin

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31
Q

Ehler Danlos syndrome is caused by a defect in:

A

defective Type 1 (or Type 3) collagen

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32
Q

Stickler syndrome is caused by a defect in:

A

defective Type 2 (or Type 9) collagen

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33
Q

Alport syndrome is caused by a defect in:

A

defective Type 4 collagen

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34
Q

Features of Ghost cell glaucoma

A

vitreous haemorrhage (red blood cells degenerate and become rigid in the vitreous) and a break in the anterior hyaloid face (to allow the cells to enter the anterior chamber). The khaki-coloured ghost cells layer out in the anterior chamber and can be distinguished from fresher red cells, creating the effect of a candy stripe.

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35
Q

Difference between haemolytic and phacolytic glaucoma?

A

haemolytic glaucoma, haemoglobin-laden macrophages block the meshwork, while in phacolytic glaucoma, macrophages are engorged with lens protein from a hypermature cataract.

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36
Q

Features of Birdshot chorioretinopathy

A

idiopathic, chronic, recurrent bilateral disease.
affects females more than males, and occurs in the fifth to seventh decades
insidious impairment of vision, floaters, photopsia and night blindness
Signs include mild to moderate vitritis (without snowballs or snowbanking), retinal vasculitis and multiple, small ill-defined cream-coloured choroidal spots. Old scars are well-delineated atrophic spots, with no tendency to become hyperpigmented

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37
Q

What % of patients are HLA-A29 positive in Birdshot Chorioretinopathy

A

95% of patients are HLA-A29 positive

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38
Q

When is a paired t- test useful?

A

The paired t-test is appropriate when we obtain pairs of results on only one variable of interest

The differences between pairs of observations should be normally distributed.

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39
Q

What ocular structures are derived from Neuroectoderm?

A

retina - neurosensory and RPE
epithelial lining of iris and ciliary body
optic nerves

40
Q

What ocular structures are derived from Surface ectoderm

A

lens
corneal epithelium
conjunctival epithelium
lacrimal gland
nasolacrimal system
Meibomian glands

41
Q

What ocular structures are derived from Neural crest cells

A

sclera
iris stroma
cornea: stroma and endothelium
TM and Schlemm’s canal
extraocular muscle
ciliary muscle
connective tissue and bony structure of the orbit

42
Q

What ocular structures are derived from Mesoderm

A

extraocular muscles
endothelial lining of blood vessels of the eye
blood vessels in sclera and choroid
sclera
vitreous
suspensory fibres
angle outflow apparatus

43
Q

Which chromosome codes Red and Green cones

A

X chromosome

44
Q

Which Chromosome code Blue cones

45
Q

Commonest location for adnexal dermoid cyst

A

Superotemporal orbital rim in association with the zygomaticofrontal suture line

46
Q

Systemic features of Behcet disease?

A

acne
erythema nodosum
aphthous ulcers
genital ulcers
interstitial lung changes
pulmonary artery aneurysm (pathognomonic finding)

47
Q

Treatment for Behcet disease?

A

systemic and periocular corticosteroids. Colchicine may be useful in reducing recurrences of the disease. Cyclosporine and cytotoxic agents may also be required.

48
Q

Hypopyon features of HLAB27 uveitis vs Behcet

A

The hypoyon in HLA-B27 disease is fibrinous and immobile, in contrast to Behcet’s disease where the hypyon is mobile and often occurs in a relatively white eye.

49
Q

Histological finding in Optic nerve sheath meningioma?

A

Psammoma bodies

50
Q

Features of LCA

A

the ERG is typically non-recordable at birth
the fundus examination is typically normal at birth
the infant is typically blind at birth
Most forms of Leber’s congenital amaurosis are autosomal recessive.

51
Q

Features of an image formed by a thin concave lens

A

virtual, erect, diminished, inside F2

52
Q

Where is the brain lesion if a right handed man presents with a left homonymous hemianopia without sparing of the macula.

A

lesion of his non-dominant parieto-occipital lobe.

53
Q

Features of microtropia

A

small angle manifest deviation less than 10PD
central suppression scotoma
eccentric fixation
abnormal retinal correspondence
anisometropia common - often hypermetropia +- astigmatism
stereopsis reduced
amblopia
Rx: refractive correction, occlusion for amblyopia

54
Q

What is microtropia with identity?

A

the deviation is associated with eccentric fixation which is coincident with the angle of abnormal retinal correspondence so no manifest deviation is detected.
The visual acuity is usually reduced and a BSV is demonstrable.

55
Q

What is microtropia without identity?

A

When a very small manifest deviation is seen on cover test. The eccentric fixation is not coincident with the angle of abnormal retinal correspondence.

56
Q

Features of Wyburn Mason syndrome

A

sporadic condition
retinal racemose angioma
ipsilateral intracranial AVMs of midbrain, basofrontal regions and posterior fossa
orbital AVMs may also occur (and consequent ocular bruits)

57
Q

what is the definition of 1PD of power?

A

that which produces a linear apparent displacement of 1cm of an object 1 m away.

A displacement of 2cm therefore represents a power of 2 dioptres.

58
Q

Why can macula sparing occur in occipital stroke?

A

the occipital pole may have a dual blood supply between the posterior and middle cerebral arteries, which may explain the macular sparing phenomenon.

59
Q

Features of Alport Syndrome

A

X-linked recessive (80%) and X-linked dominant (5%) inheritance patterns
defect in Type IV basement membrane collagen
renal failure secondary to glomerular dysfunction
megalocornea
posterior polymorphous dystrophy
anterior lenticonus
anterior sub-capsular cataract
corneal arcus
peripheral retinal flecks
sensorineural deafness

60
Q

Features of Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma is a very rare disorder but it is an important differential in childhood, sudden-onset, painful, unilateral proptosis. The peak incidence is age 7-8 years and CT findings a non-enhancing, poorly defined mass of homogenous tissue density.

61
Q

Features of PAM

A

unilateral condition
occurs in middle age
affects fair-skinned individuals
proliferation of conjunctival epithelial melanocytes
features: irregular, uni- or multi- focal flat brown pigment over any part of conjunctiva
with or without cellular atypia
with atypia: 50% chance of invasive malignancy in 5 years
excision biopsy should be performed on any suspicious nodular lesions
Treatment:
without atypia: does not require treatment
with atypia: excision +- cryotherapy +- MMC

62
Q

Why are anterior sclerotomies are indicated at the time of surgery in nanophthalmic eyes?

A

Reduce chance of uveal effusions

63
Q

Features of Kearns Sayre syndrome

A

mitochondrial inheritence
ragged red fibres on muscle biopsy
presentation in 1st or 2nd decades
ptosis
external ophthalmoplegia
cardiac conduction defects
deafness
diabetes
short stature
mild pigmentary retinopathy

64
Q

Most important brain nuclei for generation of normal vertical eye movements

A

rostral interstitial nucleus of the medial longitudinal fasciculus (riMLF) and the interstitial nucleus of Cajal (INC). The PPRF also has a lesser role

65
Q

Causes of hyperpigmented trabecular meshwork

A

pseudoexfoliation
pigment dispersion
previous inflammation, trauma or surgery
uveal melanoma

66
Q

Examples of gram negative rod bacteria

A

Haemophilus
Pseudomonas
Brucella
E. coli

67
Q

What is oculomotor apraxia

A

an inability to initiate voluntary horizontal saccades

68
Q

What is reverse heterochromia?

A

where the affected eye becomes more pigmented, may occur in blue eyes, where iris stromal atrophy allows the posterior pigmented layer to show through.

69
Q

What deposits possess apple-green birefringence

A

amyloid deposits

70
Q

Features of bifocal glasses

A

they are used in the management of convergence excess esotropia
the executive type may be used in the treatment of accommodative spasm
decentration of the reading segment can be used to treat diplopia for near

71
Q

Liver enzyme inducers?

A

phenobarbitone
rifampicin
primidone
carbamazepine

72
Q

Among the phakomatoses, which ones are unilateral glaucoma seen in?

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome (25% of cases, often associated with an angioma on the upper lid)
von-Recklinghausen’s syndrome (especially if plexiform neurofibroma of the upper lid)
von Hippel-Lindau disease

73
Q

What urine features are found in GPUT deficiency

A

Reducing substances

74
Q

Differentials for uveitic glaucoma

A

sarcoidosis, zoster, Fuchs’ iridocyclitis, and rarely toxoplasma, syphilis, and sympathetic ophthalmia (SO)

75
Q

Which are appropriate histopathological stains for calcium

A

Von Kossa stains calcium black. Alizurin red can also be used, and stains calcium red.

76
Q

Commonest tumour of the lacrimal gland

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

77
Q

Conditions associated with seizures?

A

neurofibromatosis
Sturge-Weber syndrome
tuberous sclerosis

78
Q

Features of Kawasaki disease

A

fever lasting over 5 days
injected pharynx
lymphadenopathy
bilateral conjunctivitis
mucous membrane fissures
strawberry tongue
desquamating rash of palms and soles
non-specific rash
complications: coronary artery aneurysm
Treatment: aspirin

79
Q

Choristoma vs Hamartomas

A

Choristomas represent normal tissue in an abnormal location, e.g. dermolipomas and dermoids.

Hamartomas represent abnormal growth of tissue in its normal location, e.g. haemangiomas and lymphangiomas.

80
Q

Causes of unilateral superonasal masses in the orbit

A

rhabdomyosarcoma (needs to be excluded)
myocele
mucopyocele
encephalocoele
neurofibroma

81
Q

Risk factors for ocular involvement in JIA

A

ANA positive
rheumatoid factor negative
pauciarticular type (90% of cases)
female
involvement of lower extremity joints
lack of involvement of the wrists
early age of disease onset

82
Q

What is the correlation between prism dioptres and apex angle?

A

A prism of 1 prism dioptre (Δ) has a refracting angle (α) of 1 ° and an angle of apparent deviation θ of 1/2 ° (half a degree)

Thus a glass prism of apical angle 10 degrees deviates light through 5 degrees and has a power of 10 prism dioptres

83
Q

In congenital nasolacrimal system obstruction, where is the most common site of obstruction?

A

Valve of Hasner

84
Q

Capillary Haemangioma vs Cavernous Haemangioma in terms of blood flow?

A

Capillary haemangiomas are high-flow lesions, in contrast to cavernous hemangiomas, which are haemodynamically low-flow.

85
Q

Characteristics of Capillary Haemangioma?

A

appear a short time after birth
composed of blood vessels that have an abnormal growth proliferation
can be superficial or deep in the orbit
capillary haemangiomas are characteristically high flow lesions
majority: spontaneous involution
70% will resolve before 7 years of age

86
Q

Follicular conjunctivitis is typically more severe inferiorly than superiorly EXCEPT in which condition?

87
Q

Conditions where follicular conjunctivitis is seen more severely inferiorly?

A

inclusion conjunctivitis, Toxic follicular conjunctivitis secondary to medications and viral keratoconjunctivitis are also more severe inferiorly.

88
Q

How does topiramate induce angle closure glaucoma?

A

Topiramate can produce a secondary acute-angle closure glaucoma, which is typically bilateral. The proposed mechanism of myopia and secondary angle closure is choroidal effusion and forward rotation of the iris-lens diaphragm.

89
Q

A 10 degree rotation of a toric IOL reduces the astigmatic effect of the lens by:

90
Q

How eye problems are associated with Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

anti-basement membrane antibody. retinal and choroidal vasculitis can occur.

91
Q

Features of basic exotropia

A

exotropia equal at distance and near

92
Q

Features of Convergence-insufficiency exotropia

A

exotropia greater at near

93
Q

Features of Divergence-excess exotropia

A

exotropia greater at distance than near

94
Q

What is the 20 PD base out test?

A

The normal movement when a 20-dioptre base-out prism is placed in front of an eye is for both eyes to move towards the apex of the prism, followed by an adduction movement of the fellow eye to take up binocular fixation

95
Q

What are the findings when a dense monocular visual impairment is present with 20PD BO test?

A

one would expect no movement of the eyes when the prism is placed in front of the affected eye.

96
Q

Which children’s acuity test would be best at detecting reduced acuity in amblyopia?

A

The Sonksen-Silver acuity test, unlike the other options, provides crowded letter optotypes. Crowding is useful as it is a more sensitive test for amblyopia (i.e. it will detect reduced visual acuity in an amblyopic eye more readily) compared to a single optotype.

96
Q

Characteristic ERG findings in AZOOR

A

reduced a-wave and b-wave amplitude and delayed 30 Hz flicker