Kaplan Behavioral Science Unknown Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

What are reflex arcs?

A

interneurons in the spinal cord relay information to the source of stimuli and to the brain simultaneously

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2
Q

How is the nervous system divided?

A

central nervous system = brain + spinal cord

peripheral nervous system = cranial + spinal nerves
1) somatic
2) autonomic = para and symp

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3
Q

What are the main parts of the forebrain and their functions?

A

thalamus = relay station for sensory info

hypothalamus = homeostasis + endocrine system through a portal system that connects to anterior pituitary

basal ganglia = smooth movement + posture

limbic system = controls emotion and memory
- septal nuclei = pleasure, addiction
- amygdala = fear and aggression
- hippocampus = consolidates memories

cerebral cortex
- frontal = executive function, motor function
- parietal = somatosensation, spatial processing
- occipital = vision
- temporal = sound processing, speech perception, memory, emotion

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4
Q

What is the most important peptide neurotransmitter to know?

A

endorphins = natural painkillers produced by the brain
- neuromodulator: slow, longer effects than NT

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5
Q

Describe the disorders associated with dopamine.

A

Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia: delusions, hallucinations, and agitation arise from either too much dopamine or oversensitivity to it

Parkinson’s Disease: associated with loss of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia
- bradykinesia, postural instability

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6
Q

What is released from the adrenal cortex? the adrenal medulla?

A

Steroid hormones: cortisol, testosterone, estrogen, aldosterone

Catecholamines: epinephrine and norepinephrine

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7
Q

How does the nervous system develop?

A

Neurulation: neural tube = CNS, neural crest cells differentiate into many tissues

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8
Q

What are primitive reflexes?

A

exist in infants and disappear with age
1. rooting: infants turn their heads towards anything that brushes their cheek
2. Moro: extends arms, slowly retracts and cries in response to sensation of falling
3. Babinski: brush sole of foot, toes spread apart
4. grasping

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9
Q

How do motor skills develop?

A

gross to fine, head-to-toe order, core-to-periphery

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10
Q

Describe social development in infants.

A

parent-oriented (separation anxiety, stranger anxiety) –> self-oriented (parallel play) –> other-oriented

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11
Q

What is a threshold?

A

minimum stimulus that causes a change in signal transduction
- absolute threshold = minimum stimulus energy that is needed to activate a sensory system
- threshold of conscious perception = creates signal large enough in size and duration to be brought to awareness
- JND = minimum difference in magnitude between 2 stimuli before one can perceive the difference

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12
Q

What is signal detection theory?

A

effect of nonsensory factors on perception of stimuli
- RESPONSE bias: stim may or may not be given, asked if it was, either hit, miss, false alarm, or correct negatives

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13
Q

Visual pathway

A

optic nerves, optic chiasm, optic tracts, LGN of the thalamus, visual radiations to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe

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14
Q

Auditory pathway

A

vestibulocochlear nerve–>MGN of the thalamus–> auditory cortex of temporal lobe

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15
Q

What is responsible for pain perception?

A

nociceptors
- gate theory of pain: pain sensation is reduced when other somatosensory signals are present

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16
Q

What is habituation? What is dishabituation?

A

repeated exposure to the same stimulus causes a decrease in response

recovery of a response to a stimulus AFTER habituation has occurred

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17
Q

What is associative learning?

A

creation of pairing between two stimuli or between a behavior and a response
- classical or operant conditioning

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18
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

takes advantage of biological, instinctual responses to create associations between two unrelated stimuli

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19
Q

What is an unconditioned stimulus vs. an unconditioned response? Compare to the conditioned situation.

A

unconditioned stimulus brings about reflexive unconditioned response

conditioned stimulus is normally neutral that through association causes a reflexive, conditioned response

Entire process = acquisition
loss of conditioned response = extinction
- spontaneous recovery reverses

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20
Q

What is generalization? what is discrimination in classical conditioning?

A

a stimulus similar enough to the conditioned stimulus can produce a conditioned response

distinguish between similar stimuli

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21
Q

What is operant conditioning? How does it relate to behaviorism?

A

way consequences change the frequency of voluntary behaviors
- theory that all behaviors are conditioned

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22
Q

Compare reinforcement to punishment.

A

Reinforcement: increasing the likelihood of a behavior
- positive: add positive consequence or incentive = $$$
- negative: remove something unpleasant = escape learning + avoidance learning

Punishment: reduce the occurrence of a behavior
- positive: adds unpleasant consequences
- negative: removing stimulus to reduce behavior

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23
Q

Name the types of reinforcement schedules in decreasing order of effectiveness.

A
  1. variable-ratio: reinforce a behavior after a varying number of performances of that behavior, with the average # of performances remaining the same
    - gambling addiction
  2. fixed-ratio: reinforce a behavior after a specific amount of performances
  3. variable interval: reinforce a behavior the first time that behavior is done after a varying amount of time
  4. fixed interval: reinforce the first instance of a behavior after a specific time has elapsed
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24
Q

What is shaping in operant conditioning?

A

rewarding increasingly specific behaviors that come closer to a desired response

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25
Q

What is latent learning?

A

learning that occurs without a reward, but is then spontaneously demonstrated once a reward is introduced

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26
Q

What is automatic processing? What is controlled processing?

A

information gained without any effort
- passively absorbed from your environment

active memorization

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27
Q

What are the types of encoding?

A

visual, acoustic, elaborative (link it to something already in memory), and semantic (put it into meaningful context)
- self-reference effect = context of our own lives

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28
Q

What are the methods of encoding?

A
  1. Mnemonics: acronyms or rhyming phrases that provide organization
    - method of loci: associating each item in a list with a location along a route
    - peg-word system: associating numbers with items that rhyme with or resemble the numbers
  2. Chunking: taking individual elements of a large list and grouping them together
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29
Q

What are the different types of memory?

A

sensory: <1 s, iconic + echoic

short-term memory: <1 min without rehearsal
- working memory: integrates STM, attention, executive function to manipulate information

long-term memory: lifetime
- explicit = conscious recall = episodic + semantic
- implicit = unconscious skills, habits = procedural

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30
Q

What is spreading activation?

A

when one node of the semantic network is activated, the other concepts linked around it are also unconsciously activated
- heart of positive priming w a recall cue

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31
Q

What is Korsakoff’s Syndrome?

A

memory loss caused by thiamine deficiency in the brain
- retrograde and anterograde amnesia
- confabulation: creating vivid, but fabricated memories

caused by alcoholism

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32
Q

What is the misinformation effect?

A

person’s recall of an event becomes less accurate due to the injection of outside information into the memory

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33
Q

What is source-monitor error?

A

confusion between semantic and episodic memory: a person remembered the details of an event, but confuses the context where they gained them

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34
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

the brain’s ability to change and adapt to new experiences and stimuli by changing synaptic connections
- children are extremely plastic

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35
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A

weaker neural connections are broken while stronger ones are bolstered, increasing processing efficiency

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36
Q

What is LTP?

A

the strengthening of neural connections through repeated use; basis of long-term memory
- increase in NMDARs (Glu receptors) and NT release is required

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37
Q

What is the dual-coding theory?

A

both verbal association and visual images are used to process and store information
- “tree” and a pic of a tree recalls similar information

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38
Q

What is the information processing model? What are the pillars?

A

encoding – storage –retrieval

  1. Thinking starts with sensing, encoding, and storing information.
  2. The brain analyzes the information to guide decisions.
  3. Apply and adapt previous solutions to new problems.
  4. Problem-solving depends on your ability and the problem’s difficulty.
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39
Q

What is cognitive development?

A

development of one’s ability to think and solve problems
- limited in childhood

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40
Q

What is a schema? How is information processed?

A

schema: concept, behavior, or sequence of events

new information has to get placed into a schema through ADAPTATION
1) assimilation: classifying new info into existing schema
2) accommodation: existing schemata modified to encompass new info

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41
Q

What are Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development?

A

1) 0-2, sensorimotor = coordinate sensory input with motor actions
- circular reactions: repetitive behaviors
- object permanence
2) 2-7, preoperational
- symbolic thinking: pretend, play make-believe, imagination
- egocentrism: inability to imagine what another person thinks or feels
3) 7-11, concrete operational
- understands conservation
- considers other perspectives
- logical thought on concrete objects
4) 12+, formal operational
- think logically about abstract ideas and problem solve
- hypothetical reasoning

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42
Q

What are the two subtypes of intelligence?

A

Fluid: solving new or novel problems
- peak in early adulthood

Crystallized: solving problems using acquired knowledge
- stable with age

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43
Q

What is dementia?

A

disorders and conditions characterized by general loss of cognitive function
- impaired memory, impaired judgement, confusion

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44
Q

What is delirium?

A

rapid fluctuation in cognitive function that is reversible and caused by medical causes
- alcohol withdrawal

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45
Q

What is a mental set?

A

tendency to approach similar problems in the same way

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46
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

inability to consider how to use an object in an untraditional manner

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47
Q

What are the types of problem-solving approaches?

A

1) trial-and-error
2) algorithms: formula/procedure for solving certain types of problems
3) deductive (top-down) reasoning: starts from set of general rules and draws conclusions from the information given
- solution MUST be true based on info given
4) inductive (bottom-up) reasoning: start with specific observations, then builds towards general conclusion
- conclusion is probable, but NOT guaranteed

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48
Q

What is heuristic?

A

simplified principles used to make decisions
- “rules of thumb”

availability heuristic: used when we base the likelihood of an event on how easily examples of that event come to mind

representativeness heuristic: categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit the prototypical, stereotypical, or representative image of the category
- base rate fallacy: using stereotypical/prototypical factors while ignoring the actual numerical information

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49
Q

What is hindsight bias?

A

tendency for people to overestimate their ability to predict outcomes of events that already happened
- “knew-it-all-along”

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50
Q

What is Gardner’s Theory of Multiple Intelligences?

A

linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal (detect moods/motivations of others), intrapersonal (mindful of own emotions, strengths), and naturalist

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51
Q

What is Sternberg’s Theory of Intelligence?

A

how people USE their intelligence
1) analytical: evaluate and reason
2) creative: solve problems using novel methods
3) practical: dealing w every day problems

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52
Q

What are the states of consciousness?

A

1) alertness: awake and able to think
- physiological arousal = increased HR, BR, BP
- cortisol higher
- maintained by reticular formation in the brainstem
2) sleep
- studied with EEG
3) dreaming = REM
4) altered states of consciousness: hypnosis, meditation, drug-induced

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53
Q

What are the different waves associated with each stage of sleep?

A

Awake
- beta: high frequency, occur when awake and concentrating
- alpha: awake but relaxing, slower than beta

NREM1: theta waves, irregular waveforms, slower frequency

NREM2: sleep spindles = burst of high-frequency waves, K complexes = singular, high A waves

NREM3: slow delta waves; memory consolidation +GH

REM: arousal levels reach wakefulness, dreaming

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54
Q

Describe the sleep cycle for adults. How do hormones change to initiate this?

A

90 minutes
Stage 1-2-3-4-3-2-REM or just 1-2-3-4-REM

change in light promotes melatonin release from pineal gland

cortisol levels from adrenal gland increase in morning

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55
Q

What is activation-synthesis theory?

A

dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry

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56
Q

What is the cognitive process dream theory?

A

dreams are sleeping counterparts of stream-of-consciousness

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57
Q

What are the common sleep-wake disorders?

A

dyssomnias: make it difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or avoid sleep
- narcolepsy (cataplexy = REM during wakefulness, sleep paralysis, hallucinations), insomnia, sleep apnea

parasomnias: abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep
- night terrors or sleepwalking

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58
Q

What are the groups of consciousness-altering drugs?

A

depressants: alcohol, barbiturates (al), and benzodiazepines (am)
- produce or mimic GABA activity in the brain

stimulants: amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy
- increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin concentration in synaptic cleft

opiates and opiods: heroin, morphine, opium, pain medications
- cause death by respiratory depression

hallucinogens: LSD, peyote, mescaline, ketamine, and shrooms

***marijuana: depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogen effects

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59
Q

What is the difference between selective and divided attention?

A

allows one to pay attention to a particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli in the background require attention
- cocktail party phenomenon

uses automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time

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60
Q

What are the components of language?

A

1) phonology: actual sound of speech
2) morphology: building blocks of words
3) semantics: meaning of words
4) syntax: rules dictating word order
5) pragmatics: changes in language delivery depending on context
- prosody: rhythm, cadence, and inflection of our voices

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61
Q

What are the different theories of language development?

A

nativist: innate and controlled by the language acquisition device (pathway in brain)
- critical period between 2-puberty

learning (behaviorist): controlled by operant conditioning and reinforcement by caregivers

social interactionist theory: caused by motivation to communicate and interact with others

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62
Q

What is the timeline of language acquisition?

A

9-12 months: babbling
12-18 months: 1 word per month
18-20 months: explosion of language and combining words
2-3 years: longer sentences, grammar errors
5 years: language rules mastered

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63
Q

What is the linguistic relativity hypothesis?

A

perception of reality is determined by the content of language

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64
Q

Where are speech areas found in the brain?

A

dominant hemisphere, usually left

1) Broca’s area: motor function of speech
2) Wernicke’s area: language comprehension
3) Arcuate fasciculus: connects B+W area; damage = inability to repeat words heard

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65
Q

What is the difference between extrinsic and intrinsic motivation?

A

based on external circumstances vs. internal drive or perception

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66
Q

What are the 4 primary factors that influence motivation?

A

instincts
arousal
drives: internal states of tension
needs

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67
Q

What are the main theories of motivation?

A

1) instinct theory: people perform certain behaviors because of their instincts
2) arousal theory: perform actions to maintain arousal at an optimal level
- Yerkes-Dodson Law = performance is optimal at medium level of arousal
3) drive reduction theory: desire to eliminate drives (internal states of tension)
- primary drives: related to bodily processes
- secondary drives: stem from learning, including accomplishments and emotions
4) satisfy needs: primary (physiological) and secondary (mental states)
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs prioritizes into 5 categories
- physiological needs, safety/security, love and belonging, self-esteem, self-actualization (realize one’s full potential)
5) self-determination theory: three universal needs = autonomy, competence, relatedness (accepted + wanted in relationships)

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68
Q

What are incentive theory, expectancy value theory, and opponent process theory?

A

1) desire to increase reward and avoid punishment

2) amount of motivation = expectation of success + amount the success is valued

3) Every emotion is followed by a secondary, opposing emotion
Ex) drug use increases, body counteracts effects, tolerance increases, resulting in uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms

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69
Q

What is emotion?

A

state of mind, or feeling, that is subjectively experienced based on circumstances, mood, and relationship

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70
Q

What are the three components of emotion?

A

1) physiological (changes in ANS)
- change in HR, temperature, BP
2) behavioral (facial expressions and body language)
3) cognitive (subjective)
- interpretation

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71
Q

What are the 7 universal emotions?

A

happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger

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72
Q

What are the theories of emotion?

A

1) James-Lange Theory: nervous system arousal leads to emotional experience
- 1 phys cue 1 emotion
2) Cannon-Bard Theory: arousal of nervous system and the experience of emotion occurs simultaneously
- thalamus sends signal to cortex and sympathetic nervous system
3) Schachter-Singer Theory: nervous system arousal is combined with cognition to create emotion
- multiple emotions w same physiological cue

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73
Q

What part of the nervous system is responsible for emotion?

A

limbic system
1) amygdala: attention, fear, facial expressions
- implicit (emotional) memory system
2) thalamus: sensory processing station
3) hypothalamus: NTs that affect mood/arousal
4) hippocampus: long-term episodic memories
5) PFC: planning, expressing personality, and making decisions
- VPFC: experiencing emotion
left = positive emotions, right = negative emotions

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74
Q

What are the two stages of stress?

A

cognitive appraisal = evaluating situation that induces stress

primary appraisal: classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful

secondary appraisal: evaluating if the organism can cope with the stress
- looks at harm, threat, challenge

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75
Q

How do you classify stressors?

A

distress: perceived as unpleasant (threat)

eustress: positively-perceived (challenge)
- graduating from college, studying for the MCAT

measured by social readjustment rating scale

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76
Q

What are the types of conflict stresses?

A

approach-approach = choose between two desirable options

avoidance-avoidance = two negative options

approach-avoidance = one choice, but outcome could be positive or negative

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77
Q

What are the stages of Seyle’s general adaptation syndrome for stress?

A
  1. alarm: activation of sympathetic nervous system, hypothalamus CRH–>ACTH–>cortisol–>blood sugar + adrenal medulla–>norepi, epi
  2. resistance: continuous release of hormones
  3. exhaustion: body no longer maintain an elevated response
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78
Q

What is self-concept?

A

sum of the ways in which we describe ourselves: in the present, who we used to be, and who we might be
- self-schema = label that carries a set of qualities (athlete = young, fit)

identities = groups to which we belong
- religion, sexual orientation

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79
Q

What is self-discrepancy theory?

A

we have 3 selves and differences between these lead to negative feelings
1) actual: what we are (self-concept)
2) ideal self: we would like to be
3) ought self: what others think we should be

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80
Q

What is gender identity?

A

scales of masculinity and femininity

androgyny = high M and F
undifferentiated = low M and F

81
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

feel lack of control over the outcome when placed in a consistently hopeless scenario, diminishing self-efficacy

82
Q

What is locus of control?

A

how we characterize the influence in our lives

internal locus of control = successes/failures are result of own characteristics and actions

external = outside factors have more of an influence

83
Q

What is Freud’s psychosexual stages of personality development based on?

A

tension caused by libido that is present since birth
- failure at any stage leads to fixation that causes personality disorders called neurosis

84
Q

What are Freud’s psychosexual stages of personality development? (personality development)

A

1) Oral, 0-1, sucking ~ excessive dependency
2) Anal, 1-3, waste elimination ~ excessive orderliness (anal-retentive) or sloppiness
3) Phallic, 3-5, resolution of Oedipal/Electra conflict by sublimating;
4) Latency, until puberty, libido sublimated
5) Genital, puberty-adulthood, healthy heterosexual relationship

85
Q

What are Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?

A

personality develops from resolution of inner conflict throughout life

1) trust vs. mistrust = 0-1
2) autonomy vs. shame, doubt = 1-3; exercise choice
3) initiative vs. guilt = 3-6; purpose
4) industry vs. inferiority = 6-12; competent
5) identity vs. role confusion = 12-20 years; who they are in society
6) intimacy vs. isolation = 20-40; love
7) generativity vs. stagnation = 40-65; productive
8) integrity vs. despair = 65+; wisdom

86
Q

What is Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning?

A

approaches of individuals to resolving moral dilemmas
a) preconventional morality: preadolescent
1. consequences
- obedience: avoiding punishment
- self-interest: gaining rewards
2. sharing: instrumental relativist stage = reciprocity

b) conventional morality: relationship of individual to society! accepting social rules
3. conformity: “nice person”; approval of others
4. law and order: maintains social order

c) postconventional morality: abstract!
5. social contract: moral rules are conventions that are designed to ensure the greater good
6. universal human ethics: decisions made with abstract principles

87
Q

What is Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development?

A

internalization of culture led development

describes skills that a child has not mastered and require a more knowledgable other to accomplish
- gain higher mental functions

Opposite of Piaget = first develop to explore surroundings

88
Q

What is the psychoanalytic perspective of personality?

A

resulting from unconscious urges and desires

Freud
id: survival and reproduction; pleasure principle
ego: mediator, conscious mind
- makes defense mechanisms to reduce stress caused by the other two
superego: idealist and perfectionist
- morals; conscience

Jung
- collective unconscious that links humans together
- influenced by archetypes

89
Q

What are the 8 defense mechanisms?

A

1) repression: unconscious forgetting; traumatic events
2) suppression: conscious forgetting
3) regression: reversion to an earlier developmental state
4) reaction formation: suppresses urges by unconsciously converting these urges into their exact opposites
5): projection: attribute their undesired feeling to others
6) rationalization: justification of behaviors that is acceptable to self and society
7) displacement: transference of undesired urge from one person to another
8) sublimation: transformation of unacceptable urges into socially acceptable ones

90
Q

What are the Jungian archetypes?

A

1) persona: the aspect of our personality we present to the world
2) anima: man’s inner woman; emotional behavior
3) animus: woman’s inner man; power-seeking behavior
4) shadow: unpleasant and socially reprehensible thoughts, feelings, and actions experienced in the unconscious mind

91
Q

What is fictional finalism?

A

individuals are more motivated by their expectations of the future than by past experiences

92
Q

What is the humanistic perspective of personality?

A

individuals are inherently good; emphasizes personal growth, self-actualization, and the pursuit of happiness
- focuses on free will and the belief that individuals can shape their own personalities through conscious choices
- Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and Rogers’s therapeutic approach of unconditional positive regard (accepts the client completely + expresses empathy)

93
Q

What is the type and trait perspective of personality?

A

personality can be described as a number of identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors

  • type: ancient Greek notion of humors, Sheldon’s somatotypes (category based on physique), division into Types A (competitive/compulsive) and B (laid back), and the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory (1 of 16 personalities based on preferences for dichotomies)

traits: clusters of behaviors to describe people
- PEN = psychoticism (nonconformity), extraversion, neuroticism (arousal in stressful situations) –> BIG 5 adds openness and conscientiousness
- cardinal (ppl organize their lives around), central (major characteristics of the personality), secondary (more personal)

94
Q

What is negative affect?

A

describes how a person thinks of themselves and experiences negative emotions
- high = neuroticism + anxiety

95
Q

What is the behaviorist perspective of personality?

A

based on operant conditioning; behaviors you have learned through rewards and punishments

Token economies = + behavior rewarded with token in therapy

96
Q

What is the reciprocal determinism?

A

you mold your environment according to your personality, and those environments shape you

97
Q

Compare the biomedical approach to the biopsychosocial approach to psychological disorders and direct to indirect approaches to treatment.

A

biomedical: only physical and medical causes

biopsychosocial: relative contributions of biological, psychological, and social components

direct = dealing with the individual (meds)
indirect = increase social support

DSM-5 categorizes mental illness based on symptom patterns

98
Q

What is a psychotic disorder? What are the positive and negative symptoms?

A

psychotic disorder = presents with delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thought, disorganized behavior, catatonia (rigid posture, echolalia (repeating words), echopraxia (imitating))

positive: behaviors, thoughts, or feelings added to normal behavior

negative: absence of normal or desired behavior
- disturbance of affect: blunting, inappropriate
- avolition

99
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

prototypical psychotic disorder; break between individual and reality

6 months with at least 1 positive symptoms

100
Q

What is a depressive disorder?

A

feelings of sadness severe enough in magnitude and duration

9 depressive symptoms: sadness, sleep (insomnia/hypersomnia), lost interest, guilt, low energy, decrease concentration, change in appetite, psychomotor symptoms, suicidal thoughts

101
Q

What are the hallmarks of major depressive disorder?

A

major depressive episode: 2-week (or longer) period in which 5 of 9 depressive symptoms happen – must include depressed mood or anhedonia and impair daily activity

102
Q

What are the hallmarks of persistent depressive disorder?

A

at least 2 years with majority days depressed

103
Q

What is the treatment for depression?

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs): higher levels of serotonin in the synapse relieves symptoms

104
Q

What is bipolar disorder? What are the types?

A

presence of manic and depressive symptoms

manic: exaggerated elevation in mood and increase in goal-directed activity and energy
- 7: distractibility, irresponsibility, grandiosity, flight of thoughts, activity or agitation, decrease sleep, talkative

hypo = 3/7, don’t impair

Bipolar I: presence of manic episodes
Bipolar II: at least one depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode

105
Q

What NTs are associated with manic and depressive episodes?

A

manic: high norepinephrine + serotonin

depressive: low norepinephrine + serotonin

“catecholamine theory of depression”

106
Q

What are anxiety disorders?

A

excessive fear or anxiety impairs one’s daily functions; differentiated by the stimuli that induce it

1) phobias: irrational fears of specific objects or situations
2) separation anxiety disorder: caregiver or px will be harmed
3) social anxiety disorder: patient will be negatively evaluated
4) selective mutism disorder: impairment of speech in situations where speech is expected
5) panic disorder: recurrent panic attacks, overwhelming sym nervous system activity, lead to agoraphobia (fear of being in places where it is difficult to escape)
6) generalized anxiety disorder: disproportionate and consistent worry about many things for at least 6 months

107
Q

What is obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A

perceived needs (obsessions) and paired actions to meet those needs (compulsions)
- persistent intrusive thoughts and impulse + repetitive tasks = significant impairment

related to body dysmorphia, hoarding disorder

108
Q

What is PTSD?

A

intrusion symptoms (reliving the event), avoidance symptoms, negative cognitive symptoms (amnesia, negative mood), and arousal symptoms (startle, irritability, anxiety)

109
Q

What are dissociative disorders?

A

avoid stress by escaping from parts of their identity

dissociative amnesia: inability to recall past experience
- dissociative fugue: sudden, unexpected move or purposeless wandering away from one’s home

dissociative identity disorder: occurrence of two or more personalities that take control of a person’s behavior

depersonalization/derealization disorder: feelings of detachment from the mind and body or from their environment

110
Q

What are somatic (bodily) disorders?

A

Somatic symptom disorder: at least one somatic symptom, may or may not be linked to underlying condition, causes disproportionate concern

illness anxiety disorder

conversion disorder: unexplained symptoms affecting motor or sensory function and is associated with prior trauma

111
Q

What are personality disorders?

A

patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that causes distress or impaired functioning in at least two of the following: cognition, emotions, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control

Cluster A, odd/eccentric = paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid
Cluster B, dramatic/emotional/erratic = antisocial, borderline (splitting), histrionic, narcissistic
Cluster C, anxious/fearful = avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive

112
Q

What are the biological markers associated with depression?

A

decrease in size of frontal lobe, abnormally high glucose metabolism in the amygdala, hippocampal atrophy, abnormally high levels of cortisol, decreased norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

113
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

tendency of people to perform at different level based on the fact that others are around
- Yerkes-Dodson law of social facilitation plateaus for simple task and high arousal level

114
Q

What is deindividualization?

A

loss of self-awarenss in large groups, which can lead to drastic changes in behavior
- mob mentality; often leads to antinormative behavior
ex) violence in crowds at riots

115
Q

What is the bystander effect?

A

observation that when in a group, individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need
- the more people, the less likely there is a response
- the higher the danger, the more likely people are to intervene
- degree of responsibility the observer feels

116
Q

What is social loafing?

A

tendency of individuals to reduce effort when in a group setting

117
Q

What is peer pressure?

A

social influence placed on individuals by others they consider equals
- in negative cases, this causes the identity shift effect = adopt standards of group as their own when facing social rejection

118
Q

What is cognitive dissonance?

A

simultaneous presence of two opposing thoughts or opinions

119
Q

What is group polarization?

A

tendency toward making decisions in a group that are more extreme than the thoughts of individual group members

120
Q

What is groupthink?

A

tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas
- ethics may be disturbed as there is pressure to conform
- incorrect/poor decision from minimizing conflict

121
Q

What are the 8 factors of groupthink?

A

1) illusion of invulnerability: encourage risk, ignore pitfalls, too optimistic
2) collective rationalization: ignore expressed concerns about group approved ideas
3) illusion of morality: ideas produced by the group are morally correct
4) excessive stereotyping: for ppl expressing other opinions
5) pressure for conformity
6) self-censorship
7) illusion of unanimity
8) mindguards: protect group against opposing views

122
Q

What is assimilation?

A

process by which a group or individual’s culture (beliefs, ideas, behaviors, actions, characteristics) begins to melt into another culture
- usually uneven

123
Q

What is socialization? What are its agents?

A

process of developing and spreading norms, customs, and beliefs
- norms = rules of acceptable behavior

family, peers, schools, religious affiliation, and other groups

124
Q

What are the main categories of socialization?

A

primary: childhood; initially learn acceptable actions and attitudes in our society

secondary: learning appropriate behavior within smaller sections of larger society; outside home

anticipatory: prepare for future change

resocialization: discards old behaviors in favor of new ones
- military training, cults

125
Q

What are sanctions?

A

penalties for misconduct or rewards for appropriate behavior
- formal = enforced by authorities
- informal = enforced by social groups

126
Q

What is a stigma?

A

EXTREME disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences from the rest of society

127
Q

What is deviance?

A

violation of any norms, rules, or expectations within a society

128
Q

What theories are associated with deviance?

A

labeling theory: affect how others respond to them and their self-image –> role engulfment

differential association theory: deviance learned through interaction with others = “fallen into the wrong group”

strain theory: deviance is a natural rxn to disconnect between social goals and social structure

129
Q

What is conformity? What is the difference between this and compliance?

A

changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society vs. changing beliefs or behavior based on request of others

130
Q

Compare internalization to identification.

A

internalization: changing behavior to fit with a group while also agreeing with the ideas

identification: outward accepting of ideas without taking them on

131
Q

What are methods of gaining compliance?

A

foot-in-the-door technique: small request, compliance, then larger request

door-in-the-face technique: larger request made first, if refused, second request is made

lowball technique: initial commitment, then raise cost of commitment

that’s-not-all technique: made an offer, but then is told is the deal is better than expected

132
Q

What is obedience?

A

change in behavior based on command from someone seen as authority

133
Q

What are the components of attitude?

A

affective: way a person feels towards something
behavioral: way a person acts with respect to something
cognitive: way an individual thinks about somethings

134
Q

What is the functional attitudes theory?

A

people hold attitudes because they serve psychological functions
1) knowledge: help organize thoughts/experiences and helps predict the behavior of others
2) ego expression: communicate + solidify self-identity
3) adaptability: social acceptance
4) ego defense: protect self esteem

135
Q

What is the learning theory of attitude?

A

attitudes are developed through forms of learning:
1) conditioning: associations and reinforcement
2) observational learning
3) direct experience

136
Q

What is the elaboration likelihood model?

A

attitudes are formed and changed through different routes of information processing
- based on degree of elaboration = central route processing (high elaboration, scrutinizing content) or peripheral route processing (low elaboration, superficial details such as appearance)

137
Q

What are the different types of status?

A

1) ascribed: involuntarily assigned to an individual based on race, ethnicity, gender, family background
2) achieved: voluntarily earned
3) master: status by which a person is primarily identified

138
Q

What are the different elements of a role?

A

role performance: carrying out the behaviors of a given role

role partner: someone who helps define the roles within a relationship
- whoever the person is interacting with

role set: all the different roles a person has with their status

role conflict: difficulty satisfying requirements of multiple roles simultaneously
- being a single parent

role strain: difficulty satisfying multiple requirements of the same role

139
Q

What are the different types of groups?

A

1) peer group: self-selected group formed around similar interest, ages, or statuses
2) in-group: social group where a person feels belonging
3) out-group: social group a person does not identify with
4) reference group: group to which an individual compares themselves
5) primary group: contain strong, emotional bonds
6) secondary group: temporary, contain fewer and weaker emotional bonds
7) Gemeinschaft (community): group unified by feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs, ancestry, or geography = families, neighborhoods
8) Gesellschaft (society): group unified by mutual self-interests in achieving a goal = companies

140
Q

What is group conflict?

A

out-group competes with or opposes in-group

141
Q

What is the system for multiple level observation of groups (SYMLOG) based on ?

A

SYMLOG = 3 dimensions of interaction within a group
1) dominance vs. submission
2) friendliness vs. unfriendliness
3) instrumentally controlled vs. emotionally expressive
- goals vs. feelings

142
Q

What are the two models for how we express emotions in social situations?

A

1) basic model: universal emotions, along with corresponding expressions that are understood across cultures (Darwin)
2) social construction model: emotions are solely based on the situational context of social interactions
- no biological basis

143
Q

What are the three “selves” we have according to impression management?

A

authentic self: who the person actually is
ideal self: who we would like to be
tactical self: who we market ourselves to be when we adhere to other’s expectations of us
- similar to ought self

144
Q

What are the methods for impression management?

A

1) self-disclosure: sharing factual information about yourself
2) managing appearances: refers to using props, appearance, emotional expressions, to create positive image
3) ingratiation: flattery or conformity to win over someone else
4) aligning actions: excuses to account for questionable behavior
5) alter-casting: imposing identity onto another person

145
Q

What is the Me vs. I theory of impression management?

A

Me = part of self developed through interaction with society by considering the “generalized other” = expectations in a social situation

I = own impulses

Me shapes the I

foundation of symbolic interactionism
= assign meaning through interactions

146
Q

What is the dramaturgical approach?

A

create image of yourself
- front stage = preserve their desired image
- back stage = free to act outside of desired image

147
Q

What are the types of communication?

A

verbal = spoken, written, signed words, tactile languages
non-verbal = body language, prosody (tone), facial expressions, gestures, eye contact
animal communication = human/other animals, body language, visual displays, scents, vocalizations

148
Q

What influences interpersonal attraction?

A

1) physical attractiveness: increased with symmetry and proportions close to the golden ratio
2) similarity of attitudes, intelligence, education, height, age, religion, SES
3) Self-disclosure: sharing fears, thoughts, goals without judgement
4) reciprocity: we like people who we think like us
5) proximity: being physically close to someone

149
Q

What is aggression?

A

behavior that intends to cause harm or increase social dominance
- amygdala = stimuli with corresponding rewards/punishment, i.e. whether something is a threat or not
- increased activity, lower PFC activity = aggression

150
Q

What are the 4 types of attachment?

A

1) secure: consistent caregiver so the child and go out and explore knowing they will be there

insecure attachments
2) avoidant: caregiver has little to no response to a distressed, crying child; child has no preference for caregiver compared to strangers
3) ambivalent: caregiver has inconsistent response to child’s distress; child is distressed when caregiver leaves, but ambivalent when they return
4) disorganized: caregiver is erratic or abusive; child has no pattern of behavior with the caregiver

151
Q

What are the different types of social support?

A

1) emotional support
2) esteem support = affirms qualities or skills of a person
3) material support: physical/monetary resources
4) informational support: useful info to person
5) network support: sense of belonging to a person

152
Q

What controls hunger/satiety in the brain?

A

hypothalamus

lateral = promoting hunger
- damage = lost appetite
ventromedial = satiety
- damage = obesity

153
Q

What are the different types of mating?

A

monogamy, polygamy = polygyny (multiple women), polyandry (multiple men), promiscuity = without exclusivity

154
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect benefits of mating?

A

direct: material advantages, protection or emotional support

indirect: better survival of offspring

155
Q

What are the 5 mechanisms of mate choice?

A

1) phenotypic benefits: observable traits that make a mate more attractive
2) sensory bias: development of a trait that matches a preexisting preference that exists in the population
3) runaway selection: + feedback mechanism where trait has no impact on survival, but is sexual; (peacock)
4) indicator traits: signify overall health of an organism
5) genetic compatibility: creations of mate pairs that have complementary genetics

156
Q

What is altruism?

A

form of helping in which people’s intent is to benefit someone else at the cost to themselves
- empathy

157
Q

What is game theory?

A

models how organisms use strategies in interactions to maximize survival and reproduction, with payoffs measured in evolutionary fitness.
- Hawk-Dove game (conflict over resources) and the concept of Evolutionary Stable Strategies (ESS), which predict stable behaviors in populations (winning strategy)

158
Q

What is inclusive fitness?

A

measure of organism’s success based on # of offspring, success in supporting offspring, and the ability of the offspring to support others

159
Q

What cognitive biases affect our perception of others?

A

1) primacy effect: first impressions are more important than subsequent impressions
2) recency effect: most recent info is most important in forming our impressions
3) reliance on central traits: tendency to organize perception of others based on traits and personal characteristics that matter to the perceiver
4) halo effect: judgement about specific aspect of an individual can be impacted by the overall impression of the individual (i like bob, so he is a good person)
5) just-world hypothesis: good things happen to good people
6) self-serving bias: individual success is based on internal factors; failures = external factors
- depression reverses this n

160
Q

What is attribution theory?

A

tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people’s behavior

dispositional causes (internal) = those that relate to the features of the person whose behavior is being considered
- beliefs, attitudes, personality

situational causes (external) = related to the features of the surrounding social context
- threats, money, social norms, peer pressure

161
Q

What is correspondent inference theory?

A

when individual unexpectedly performs a behavior that helps or hurts us, we tend to explain the behavior by dispositional attribution

162
Q

What is the fundamental attribution error?

A

bias towards making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions in regard to others

163
Q

What is actor-observer bias?

A

tendency to explain our own behavior as being influenced by external factors, while explaining others’ behavior as resulting from their internal characteristics.

self-serving bias + fundamental attribution error

164
Q

What is attribute substitution?

A

instead of making complex judgements, use a simpler solution or heuristic

165
Q

What is a self-fulfilling prophecy?

A

expectations from stereotypes (based on limited/superficial info) create conditions that lead to confirmation of the stereotype

166
Q

What is stereotype threat?

A

concern or anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype about one’s social group

167
Q

What is prejudice?

A

irrational positive or negative attitude toward a person, group, or thing PRIOR to an actual experience

168
Q

What is discrimination?

A

prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently from others
- individual discrimination: one person doing it
- institutional: discrimination by an entire institution

169
Q

What is the difference between stereotypes, prejudice, and discrimination?

A

stereotypes: cognitive
prejudice: affective
discrimination: behavioral

170
Q

What is functionalism?

A

function of each component of society work together to maintain an equilibrium

manifest functions: deliberate actions that serve to help a given system

latent functions: unexpected, unintended, or unrecognized positive consequences of manifest functions

171
Q

What is conflict theory?

A

how power differentials are created and how these differentials contribute to the maintenance of social order

172
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

ways individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and symbols
- overlooks macro-level structures like cultural norms

173
Q

What is social constructionism?

A

the ways in which individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality; how WE construct concepts and principles
- race, money are created and accepted ideas based on phenotypic differences between groups and value

174
Q

What is rational choice theory?

A

individuals will make decisions that maximize potential benefits and minimize potential harm
- exchange theory applies this in groups

175
Q

What is feminist theory?

A

critiques institutional power structures that disadvantage women in society
- glass ceiling vs. glass escalator

176
Q

What are the four tenets of American medicine.

A

1) beneficence = acting in patient’s best interest
2) nonmaleficence = avoiding treatments where the risk is more than the gain; do not harm
3) respect for autonomy = patients’ right to make decisions
4) justice = treating patients similarly and distributing healthcare resources fairly

177
Q

What is cultural lag?

A

material culture (objects) changes more quickly than symbolic culture (ideas)

178
Q

What is the life course perspective?

A

considering an individual’s age + cumulative life experience when analyzing their personality, social status, health, and other social metrics
- age cohorts = gen Z, etc.

179
Q

What are the key demographic statistics?

A

fertility rate = children per woman per lifetime
birth rate = children per 1000 people per year
mortality rate = deaths per 1000 people per year
migration rate = immigration rate - emigration rate

180
Q

What is the difference between race and ethnicity?

A

race = socially constructed groupings of people based on inherited phenotypic characteristics

ethnicity = people grouped by shared language, cultural heritage, religion, and or national origin
- symbolic ethnicity = recognizes on specific occasion, but does not play a significant role in every day life (St. Patrick’s Day)

181
Q

What is the Kinsey scale?

A

0-6;
0 = exclusive heterosexuality
6 = exclusive homosexuality

182
Q

How is the population of the USA trending?

A

older, bigger, and more diverse

183
Q

What is Demographic Transition Theory?

A

Stage 1: preindustrial society; birth and death rates are both high, resulting in stable population

Stage 2: economic progress leads to improvements in healthcare, nutrition, sanitation, wages, causing a decrease in death rate. Population increases

Stage 3: improvements to contraception, women’s rights, and a shift from agricultural society to industrial economy causes birth rates to drop. birth rates and death rates equalize, leveling off pop growth

Stage 4: industrialized society; birth and death rates low, constant total pop

184
Q

What is social stratification (inequalities) based on?

A

socioeconomic status (SES), which depends on ascribed + achieved status
- intersectionality between more than one underserved group can compound this

185
Q

What is a social class?

A

category of people with shared socioeconomic characteristics
- upper, middle, lower
- intragenerational mobility: change in social status in a person’s lifetime
- intergenerational mobility: change in social status from parent to child

186
Q

What is prestige and power?

A

prestige = respect and importance tied to specific occupations or associations

power = capacity to influence people through real or perceived rewards and punishments
- often depends on unequal distribution of valued resources; power differentials create social inequality

187
Q

What is anomie?

A

state of normlessness
- erode social solidarity by means of excessive individualism, social inequality, and isolation

188
Q

What is social capital?

A

investment people make in their society in return for economic or collective rewards
- social networks are one of the most powerful forms; can create either situational inequality (socioeconomic advantage) or positional (how connected/central you are to the network)

189
Q

How is the poverty line determined in the US?

A

government’s calculation of minimum income requirements for families to acquire the minimum necessities of life

doesn’t take into account the value of money in different areas

190
Q

What are the two types of poverty?

A

absolute: people do not have enough resources to acquire basic life necessities, such as shelter, food, clothing, water

relative: poor in comparison to a larger population

191
Q

What is social reproduction?

A

passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, from one generation to the next

192
Q

What is spatial inequality? How does this differentiate urban from rural areas?

A

social stratification across territories and their populations and can occur along residential, environmental, and global lines
- urban areas = more diverse economic opportunities, more ability for social mobility, more low-income and racially and ethnically underrepresented
- formation of higher income suburbs is common

environmental injustice = uneven distribution of environmental hazards in a community

globalization makes this worse: core nations exploit peripheral nations for labor

193
Q

What is incidence? What is prevalence?

A

incidence = number of new cases of a disease per population at risk in a given period of time

prevalence = number of cases of a disease per population in a given period of time

194
Q

What is morbidity?

A

burden or degree of illness associated with a given disease

195
Q

What is second sickness?

A

exacerbation of health outcomes caused by social injustice
- poverty associated with worse health outcomes (decreased life expectancy, higher rates of disease/suicide/homicide/infant mortality)
- African Americans have the worst health profiles, white/American Indians/Hispanic are in the middle, Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders have the best
- females better than males; lower mortality, higher morbidity

196
Q

How does healthcare access and quality differ across the population?

A

low income groups and racially and ethnically underrepresented groups receive worse care than high-income and White Americans
- morbidity + mortality rates are highest

biases against overweight + obese people, LGBTQ

women have better access to healthcare and utilize more healthcare resources than men

197
Q

What is medicare and medicaid?

A

medicare: 65+, end-stage renal disease, ALS

medicaid: significant financial need

198
Q

What are the different kinds of cues?

A

distinctiveness cues: when the target person acts similarly across multiple situations

consistency cues: target person engaging in similar behavior over time

consensus cues: when a person compares a target behavior to everybody else’s