Kanani: Surgical Critical Care Flashcards

1
Q

What does Henry’s law state, and how is this used to calculate the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood?

A

Henry’s law states that the gas content of a solution is equal to the product of the solubility and the partial pressure of the gas.

At 37°C the solubility of oxygen in blood is 0.03 ml/L for every mmHg rise in the partial pressure (0.03 ×PaO2).

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2
Q

What is haemoglobin composed of?

A

4 Haem component: Fe2+ and protoporphyrin ring

4 Globin chains: 2 alpha, 2 beta chain + 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate

Haemoglobin can bind with 4 oxygen molecules = 8 oxygen atoms

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3
Q

What other molecules may bind to a haemoglobin under normal circumstances?

A
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2): binds to globin chain forming carbamino compound
  • Protons (H+): bind to amino, carboxyl and imidazole groups in globin chain
  • 2,3-BPG: by-product of red cell metabolism, forms covalent bond with beta subunits, wedging them apart in de-oxygenated state
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4
Q

What are the main sites of haemopoesis?

A
  • Yolk sac: in first few weeks of gestation
  • Bone marrow: from first few weeks after birth
  • live and spleen: important until c.7mo gestation, in adulthood may revert to these sites in pathological states -> extramedullar haemopoesis
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5
Q

Life span for RBC

A

120 days -> broken down by reticuloendothelial system

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6
Q

Draw the oxygen dissociation curve and label the axis

A

Co-operative - binding of 1 molecule facilitates binding of the next -> Sigmoidal due to progressive nature with which each O2 molecule binds Haemoglobin

Bohr Effect - shift of dissociation curve to the right, signifying a reduction in affinity to oxygen, i.e. a tendency to off-load O2 into the tissues. Caused by:

  • increased temp
  • increased acidity
  • increased 2,3-BPG (e.g. chronic hypoxia)
  • hypercarbia

This ensures O2 is more readily available during states of acute/chronic reduction in O2 perfusion

NOTE: CO2 dissociation curve is curvilinear

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7
Q

How does the oxygen dissociation curve in the foetus compare of that of the adult and what accounts for this difference?

A

Foetal oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left reflecting increased O2 affinity of foetal haemoglobin caused by the presence of the gamma (rather than beta) subunit that cannot form covalent bonds with 2,3-BPG. This ensures it is readily available to take up O2 from maternal Hb molecule

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8
Q

How much oxygen is bound to haemoglobin when fully saturated?

What factors does the total amount of oxygen in the blood depend? How is this calculated?

A

When fully saturated each gram of haemoflobin can bind to 1.34ml of oxygen.

Oxygen carrying capaciy of blood = 1.34 x [Hb] at full (100%) saturdation

O2 content = amount bound to Hb + amount dissolved in blood

= 1.34 x [Hb] x % saturation + 0.03 x PaO2

Factors:

  • [Hb]
  • % saturation
  • PaO2
  • Temp (which determines O2 solubility)
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9
Q

What’s the FiCO2 of atmospheric air

A

0.00035 = 0.035%

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10
Q

What is the alveolar-arterial pCO2 difference?

A

Virtually none due to high water solubility of CO2 compaired to O2 -> CO2 rapidly diffused across resp epithelium

The difference increases under pathological conditions of V/Q mismatch and when there is increased CO2 production

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11
Q

How is CO2 transported in the body?

A
  • Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-): 85-90% of carriage
  • Carbamino compounds: 5-10% of carrigae - CO2 binds with terminal amino groups of plasma proteins (including haemoglobin)
  • Dissolved in solution: 5% (compared to c.1% of O2)

In arterial blood: Less carbamino compound carriage and more bicarbonate carriage (due to difference in pH affecting the binding/dissociation properties)

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12
Q

How does CO2 come to be carried as the bicarbonate ion?

A

CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 = H+ + HCO3-

Catalysed by carbonic anhydrase

H+ is mopped up by other buffer systems e.g. binds with the imidazole group of the polypeptide chain in haemoglobin

The H+ and CO2 binding to the haemoglobin chain -> R shift in oxygen dissociation curve -> reduced affinity to O2

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13
Q

What happens to the bicarb generated in the red cell when it carries CO2?

A

The HCO3- diffused out of the red cell into plastma (unlike H+, it is able to penetrate the red cell membrane)

Electrochemical neutrality is maintained by the chloride shift - CL- enters as HCO3- leaves

The bicardb and chloride generated following CO2 carriage by RBC -> increased osmotic pressure -> H20 diffusion in -> 3% higher haematocrit in arterial blood

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14
Q

Why cannot the amount of CO2 in blood be expressed in %-saturation unlike the case for oxygen?

A

Because CO2 is more water soluble than oxygen and never reaches a saturation point!

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15
Q

Difference between the Bohn effect and the Haldane effect?

A

Bohr Effect - changes in affinity of haemoglobin chain for oxygen following variations in PaCO2 H+ temp

Haldane effect - changes in affinity of blood for CO2 as PaO2 changes - as PaO2 increased, affinity of blood for CO2 decreases (downward shift)

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16
Q

What is the relationship between PaO2 and PaCO2?

A

Alveolar gas equation

PaO2 = PiO2 - PaCO2 / R

PiO2 = inspired pO2

R = respiratory exchange ratio = 0.8

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17
Q

How may O2 be delivered to the patient?

A
  • Variable performance devides: FiO2 delivered depends of flow rate e.g.:
    • Nasal cannulae
    • Face mask/Hudson mask: ;at 2L/min, FiO2 achieved = 0.25-0.3, At 6-10L/min FiO2 = 0.3-0.4
  • Fixed performance devices: constant FiOs delivered
    • Venturi: O2 flows through a device that entrains air from side holes at a certain rate, degree of air mixing determines FiO2
    • Resevoir bag/non-re-breath mask: attached to end of facemask. Patient inhales directly from O2 in bag therefore FiO2 is close to 1.0
    • Continuous positive pressure ventilation: positive pressue is delivered throughout the respiratory cycle ensuring small airways don’t collapse at the end of expiration e.g. pulonary oedema, pneumonia, OSA
    • BiLevel Positive airway pressure/Non-invasive ventilation: provides 1 pressure level of inhalation and 1 for exhalation, drives ventilation e.g. COPD/hypercapnic resp failure/weaning tracheal intubation
    • Invasive respiratory support: requires intubation to enable intermittend positive pressure ventilation

FiO2 of atmospheric air = 0.21

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18
Q

What are the dangers of oxygen therapy?

A
  • In chronic retainers
    • Loss of hypoxix pulmonary drive -> apnoea
    • Loss of hypoxia reverses normal compensatory hypoxic pulmonary vasocontriction -> deteriorating V/Q mismatch
  • Absorption atelectasis: absence of nitrogen, which by slow absorption splints the airways open, airways collapse after rapid O2 absorption in the alveoli
  • Pulmonary toxicity: O2 irritates the mucosa of airways -> loss of surfactant -> fibrosis
  • Risk of fires/explosion: O2 supports combustion
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19
Q
A
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20
Q

What is pulose oximetry and what does it measure?

A

Non-invasive continuous method of assessing SaO2 and pulse rate

Finger tip and ear lobe = most common sites

Does NOT measure total oxygen or PaO2

Does NOT assess ventilation - which requires PcAO2 meaurement

Uses spectrophotometry - LEF at red 660nm and infra-red 940nm wavelengths on a photodetector (photodiode) - differing amoounts of light absorbed by saturated and unsaturated Hb molecules - % O2 saturation is calculated from the ratio between these 2 forms of the molecule

Issues:

  • Diminished accuracy below 70% saturation
  • 20secs delay between actual and siplayed values
  • in poor peripheral perfusion ambiant light pollution leads to poor signal quality
  • Abnormal pigments affect the results e.g. external: nail varinish, internal: bilirubin (underestimates), methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin (over-extimates)
  • Abnormal pulsations e.g. arrhythmias/benous pulsations of R heart valve defects may intefere with the signal
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21
Q

What is methaemoglobin?

A

Haemoglobin containing iron in the ferric Fe3+ state within the haem portion (as opposed to ferrous Fe2+ state)

  • congenital deficiency in reducing enzymes
  • Acquired e.g. exposure to LA prilocaine

Carry less O2 -> cyanotic (darker colour)

Rx - reducing agent e.g. methylene blue

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22
Q

How may ventilation be assessed?

A

Measured by ability to ‘blow off’ CO2 adequately

Therefore measure by capnography - end tidal CO2 detected by sensory in exhaled stream of air = good measure of PaCO2 when VQ is well matched due to high solubility of CO2

Capnography therefore useful for measuring airway patency & detection of oesophageal intubation

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23
Q

Airway adjuncts

A

Overcome soft palate obstruction and backward tongue displacement

Nasopharyngeal airway - bevelled end & stopped at other end

  • tolerated in conscious patient
  • CI in base of skull/cribriform plate fractures
  • 6-7mm
  • SE: damage nasal mucosa, nasal bleeding, laryngeal/glossopharyngeal reflexes -> laryngospasm and vomiting
  • How? Check right nostril patency, lubricate tip, insert bevel end first and perpendicular to orifice (towards ear). Oncer in place re-assess airway (look listen feel)

Oropharyngeal airway - curved plastic tuve, flanged and reinforced at the oral end, stopped flattened so teeth can bite into it

  • Not tolerated in conscious patients
  • Insertion contraindicated if gag reflex is present, if tolerated = significant decreased in GCS and imminent airway compromise
  • sizes: SML,2/3/4
  • SE: insertion may push the tongue back, exacerbating obstruction, lodge the vallecular/epiglottis, laryngospasm and vomiting may occur if inserted in conscious patient (glossopharyngeal and laryngeal reflexes present)
  • How? Open mouth employing basic airway menourvres. Suction out debris, insert upside down (curved side pointing the palate) Rotate 180 between hard and soft palate and seat the flattened section between gums and teeth
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24
Q

What kinds of surgical airway are there?

A
  • Needly cricothyroidotomy
  • Cricothyroidotomy
  • Tracheostromy, emergency or elective
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25
Q

What are the indications for a surgical airway?

A
  • Failed intubation, due to oedema
  • Traumatic fracture of larynx
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26
Q

In which anatomical location are the surgical airways sited?

A

Cricothyroidotomy: Median cricothyroid ligament - Thickened anterior portion of the cricothyroid membrane - runs between cricoid and thyroid cartilate

Tracheostomy: from 2nd-5th tracheal rings

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27
Q

How is jet insufflation of O2 performed, and what is the main precaution to be considered?

A

Needle passed into airway through median cricothyroid ligament

Connected to source of O2 via tracheal tube connector

Oxygenate but poorly ventilated -> progressive hypercarbia

Limitted to <45mins

Need to obtain definitive airway

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28
Q

How can you assess respiratory function?

A

Non-invasive:

  • Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): bedside measure of airway resistance and resp muscle function
  • Pulse oximetry: arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) and HR
  • Capnography: end-tidal CO2
  • Pulmonary function tests:
    • Spirometry - lung volumes e.g. Functional expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), functional vital capacity (FVC), FEV1/FVC (normally >80%), Total lung capacity (TLC), Residual volume (RV)

Invasive:

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29
Q

Which investigations can be used to assess cardiovascular function?

A

Non-invasive:

  • Pulse: clinical assessment of rate, rhythm e.g. radial artery, volume, character e.g. carotid artery
  • Non invasive BP: sphygmomanometer
  • Electrocardiograph (ECG) - rate, rhythm, intervals, axis, waveform
  • Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE): systolic function, cardiac filling, valve function, morphology, blood flow
  • Radiology: plain chest radiograph (cardiothoracic ratio), CT, MRI
  • Clinical: GCS (cerebral perfusion), CRT, urine output

Invasive:

  • Intra-arterial BP: e.g. radial arterial line - continuous arterial waveform and beat to beat variations
  • Central venous catheter: e.g. internal jugular vein -> Central Venous Pressure
  • Pulmonary artery flotation catheter: direct and derived left heart function e.g. cardial output + systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance e.g. pulmonary artery capillary wedge pressure, oxygen delivery, SaO2 and demant
  • Transoesophageal echocaridiography (TOE): more detailed picture than transthoracic echo
  • Cardiac catheterisation and coronary angiography: gold standard diagnostic procedure re structure and function of heart
  • Invasive assessment of cardiac index and peripheral organ perfusion:
    • ABG - acidosis and base excess assoc with anaerobic metabolism
    • Biochem e.g. serum lactate
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30
Q

Define the blood pressure

A

BP = CO x SVT

Blood pressure = cardiac output x systemic vascular resistance

CO = HR x SV

Cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume = 5-6L/min

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31
Q

How can blood pressure be monitored?

A

Non-invasively e.g. sphygmomanometer

Invasively - direct cannulation of a peripheral artery e.g. invasive arterial blood pressure -> continuous waveform trace after attachement to electronic pressure transducer

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32
Q

How does invasive monitoring compare to non-invasive monitoring?

A

Invasive blood pressure monitoring e..g radial lines measure SBP/DBP 5/8mmHg higher/lower than non-invasive BP measurement techniques

Advantages:

  • Continuous - does not need repeated nurse measurements
  • Accurate - even when profoundly hypotensive
  • Other - indications re myocardial contractility can be determined from arterial swind of trace

Disadvantages:

  • Complications - invasive procedure in artery under high pressure
  • Skilled: requires technical skill & fell ASNTT
  • Expensive
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33
Q

Draw the BP waveform

A

The dicrotic notch is a momentary rise in the arterial pressure
trace following closure of the aortic valve.

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34
Q

How is mean arterial pressure calculated?

A

MAP = DBP + 1/3 (SBP-DBP)

35
Q

What info can be acquired from the shape of the arterial waveform?

A
  • Myocardial contractility - rate of change of pressure by unit time i.e. slope of arterial upstroke
  • Hypovolaemia - narrow waveform, low dicrotic notch, peak pressure which varies with respiration (or deep inspiration in spontaneously breathing patient (arterial swind)
36
Q

What is Allen’s test?

A

Evaluates compentence of collateral circulation of hand

Determines if ulnar artery supply to hand is capable to cope in face of absent radial artery e.g. radial artery as vascular conduit for bypass surgery, ABG analysis or arterial line insertion

How? Blood flow is occluded by pressing down both radial and ulnar fossae while patient drains hand of blood by repeated opening and closing of the first, hand is then held open whilst ulnar flow is released. +ve is hand is still blanched @ 15secs = unlar artery is NOT sufficient to supply the hand alone

37
Q

How does arterial pressure at the radial artery compare to that at the aortic root and what accounts for this difference?

A

both pressure values and waveform change at difference levels of the circulation

In radial artery SBP is 10mmHg higher and DBP is 10mmHg PP (pulse pressure) is higher and MAP is 5mmHg lower lower compared to the aortic root

This is a result of differential wall stiffness throughout the arterial tree and its effect on pulse wave transmission in the vessel

38
Q

How does the arterial pressure waveform differ with diseases of the aortic valve?

A

Aortic stenosis: anacrotic pulse, slow to rise and low amplitude

Aortic incompetence: water hammer pulse, rapid to rise and decline but attaining high amplitude

Mixed aortic valve disease: pulses bisferiens, large amplitude pulse with double peak, often felt as double pulse at brachial artery

39
Q

What is pulses alterans?

A

Random variation in amplitude of arterial pressure tracing palpated as strong and weak beats during each cardiac cycle e.g. LVF, cariomyopathy, aortic stenosis

40
Q

What is pulses bisferiens?

A

Palpated as double peak during cardiac cycle e.g. mixed aortic valve disease (AR and AS)

41
Q

what is pulses paradoxus?

A

>10mmHg reduction in arterial pressure cause by inspiration e.g. cardiac tamponade - tight pericardial space -> reduction of LV end diastolic volume and stroke volume despite the usual increase in venous return during inspiration

42
Q

What blood products are available?

A

Blood components:

  • Red cells
  • Platelets
  • Fresh Frozen Plasma - incl platelet concentrates
  • Cryoprecipitate

Plasma derivatives:

  • human albumin solution
  • coagulation factor concentrate
  • Immunoflobulin
43
Q
A
44
Q

What are the basic constituents and characteristics of a unit of RBCs?

A
  • Volume: 220-340ml
  • Storage temperature: 2-6
  • Shelf life: 35 das from donation
  • Haemoglobin content: 40g
  • Haematocrit 0.5-0.7

Additive solution = SAG-M (Saline, Adenine, Glucose, Mannitol) - enables resuspension of packed red cells once plasma has been removed

45
Q

How are red cells treated to decrease disease transmission and allergic reactions?

A
  • Irradiation: for patients at risk of transfusion-associated graft vs host disease (TA-GvHD) using gamma rays <14 days of donation (shelf life <14 days)
  • Washing: plasma is removed and cells re-suspended in 100ml SAG-M if patients have recurrent allergic (or febrile) reactions, IgA deficiency and have anti-IgA deficient antibodies (shelf life <24hrs)
46
Q

What are the indications for transfusing a pack of red cells?

A

Causes of reduced oxugen carrying capacity of the blood:

1) Hypovolaemic shock 2nd to blood loss in trauma
2) symptomatic anaemia

47
Q

Basic constituents and characteristics of a unit of platelets?

A

Rx bleeding 2nd to platelet loss/consumption/dysfunction

Adult therapeutic dose = 240x10^9

1x donation = 55 x 10^9

  • Multiple donors:
    • Centrifuged: 4xdonations are pooled in plasma of 1 donor -> reduced risk of TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury) BUT increased exposure to multiple donors -> risks e.g. vCJD transmission
      • Donors/pack= 4
      • Volume = 300ml
      • Storage temp = 20-24 and agitation
      • Shelf life = 5 days (7 days if bacterial screening)
      • Mean platelets = 308x10^9
  • Single donor:
    • Apheresis: donors give multiple donations in a single session
      • Donors/pack = 1
      • Volume = 200ml
      • Storage temp = 20-24 and agitation
      • Shelf life = 5 days (7 days if bacterial screening)
      • Mean platelets = 280 x10^9
48
Q

How are pllatelets treated to decreased disease transmission and allergic reactions?

A
  • Irradiation: using gamma rays, for patients at risk of TA=GvHD - note, same shelf life
  • Washing: plasma is removed, cells resuspended in 200ml of Platelet additive solution (PAS), for patients with recurrent allergic (or febrile) reactions, shelf life <24hrs
  • Human leucocyte antigen-selected patients: HLA typed platelet donors, for patients refractory to treatment due to HLA antibodies developed following previous transfusions
  • Human Platelet Antigen - Selected Patients: HPA-1a/5b negative platelets stored for use in neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)
49
Q

What are the indications for transfusing a pack of platelets?

A

Any cause of thrombocytopenia e.g. <50x10^9, DIC, post cardiopulmonary bypass (devreased plt no and cooling reduces plt function)

Aspirin is a commmon pre-op factor reducing platelet number

50
Q

What are the basic constituents and characteristics of a unit of plasma?

A

Male donors only - reduced risk of TRALI

Used to treat bleeding due to multiple clotting factor defficiencies

  • Single donor: FFP (Fresh frozen plasma): cryoprecipirate & cryosupernant, von Willebrand’s factor, plasma proteins e.g. fibrinogen
    • Donors/pack: 1
    • Volume: 275ml
    • Temp: -25
    • Shelf life: 36 months (24hrs at 4degreeds after thawing)
    • Mean Factor VIIIc: 0.83 iU/ml
  • Multiple donors: SD-FFP (Solvent detergent FFP): e.g. octoplas pooled from -1520 vCJD low risk donors
    • Donors/pack: 1520max
    • Volume: 200ml
    • Storage temp: -18
    • Shelf life: 4 yrs (transfused immediately post thaw)
    • Mean Factor VIIIc: 0.8iU/ml
    • Mean fibrinogen: 2.6 mg/ml
51
Q

How is plasma treated to decrease disease transmission and allergic reactions?

A
  • methylene blue e.g. SD=FFP inactivates bacteria encapsulated viruses e.g. HBV, HCV, HIV, reduces incidence of allergic reactions and TRALI, decreases concentrations of factor VIIIc, fibrinogen 15-20% and Protein S 30%
52
Q

What are the indications for transfusing a pack of platelets?

A
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  • Inherited clotting factor deficiencies e.g. Factor V leiden deficiency, antithrombin deficiency, resistance to heparin, following massive blood transfusion, intra-operative post operative bleeding
53
Q

What are the basic constituents and characteristics of a pack of cryoprecipirate?

A

Supernant obtained by thawing FFP at 4 degrees

Contains: Fibrinogen, von Willebrand’s factor, Factor VIIIc, Factor XIII

  • Single donors:
    • Donors/pack: 1
    • Volume: 40ml
    • Storage temp: -25
    • Shelf life: 36 months (transfuse immediately after thawing and do not refrigerate)
    • Mean Factor VIIIc: 105iU/pack
    • Mean Fibrinogen: 400mg/pack
  • Multiple donors:
    • Donors/pack: 5
    • Volume: 190ml
    • Storage: -25
    • Shelf life: 36 months (transfuse immediately after thawing and do not refrigerate)
    • Mean Factor VIIIc 464iU/pack
    • Mean Fibrinogen: 1550mg/pack

The dose is 1 U per 5-10kg of body weight and raises plasma fibrinogen by 1 g/L

54
Q

What are the indications for transfusing a pack of cryoprecipitate?

A

Indication is to replace fibrinogen if plasma level <1.0g/L

Concentrated source of fibrinogen compared to FFP

Lower volume infusion required

55
Q

What is human albumin solution (HAS) and what types are available?

A

Contains no clotting factors or blood group antibodies ie cross matching is not required:

  • Isotonic solutions (4.5%): 50-500ml, used to replace plasma loss in e.g. burns, pancreatitis, trauma, fluid replacement in plasma exchange
  • Hypertonic soltions (20%): 50-100ml, initiates diuresis in hypoalbuminaemic patients e.g. hepatic cirrhosis (or nephrotic syndrome), reduction of ascites in portal hypertension. (aka salt poor albumin as contains less sodium)
56
Q

What are coagulation factor concentrates and their use in surgical patients?

A

PCC Prothrombin complex concentrate: Factor II (prothrombin), VII, CI, X - used in treatment of warfaring overdose (superior efficacy, ease of administration, decreased risk of allergic reaction and fluid overload compared to FFP)

57
Q

For which infections is donated blood screened?

A
  • Hep B: HBsAg
  • Hep C: Anti-HCV, HCV NAT
  • HIV: Anti HIV1 and 2, HIV NAT
  • Human T cell lymphocyte virus: HTLV1 and 2
  • Syphilis

In immunocompromise patients: CMV is screened

All blood donations are filtered to remove leucocyted (pre-storage leucodepletion) to leave <1x10^6 leucocytes/pack -> reduce vCJD risk

58
Q

What is the management of PCC in warfarin overdose?

A

depends on severity of blood loss and international normalise ratio (INR)

  • No haemorrhage:
    • INR 4.5-6.0: reduced the dose (or stop warfarin) and restart once INR <5
    • INR 6-8: stop warfarin and restart once INR <5
    • INR >8: if no bleeding or minor bleeding, stop warfarin. If risk factors exist, give 0.5-2.5mg vit K orally (or as an infusion)
  • Major haemorrhage:
    • INR>1.1: ABCDE assessment, stop warfarin, dual pharm Rx incl 5-10mg vit K as infusion in 5% dec and PCC, e.g. 25-50 iU/Kg of Octaplex (max dose 3000 U) Recheck INR 15-30mins after PCC & 4-6hrs after vit K. ONLY if PCC unavailable give FFP
59
Q

What is the purpose of blood transfusion?

A

Restore circulating volume in order to improve tissue perfusion and maintain adequate blood oxygen carrying capacity

60
Q

What is the expected increase in haemoglobin concentration following a transfusion of packed red cells?

A

4ml/kg packed cells -> 1g/dL rise in [Hb]

61
Q

How may the complications of blood transfusion be classified?

A
  • Complications of massive transfusion
  • Complications of repeated transfusion
  • Infective complications
  • Immune complications
62
Q

Define massive transfusion and what are the potential problems?

A

Transfusion equalling the patients’ blood volume within 24hrs

  • Volume overload: ->pulmonary oedema
  • Thrombocytopenia: loss of functional platelets during storage -> dilutional thrombocytopenia
  • Coagulation factor deficiency: ->coagulopathy (reversed by FFP)
  • Poor tissue oxygentation: redction of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
  • Hypothermia: due to cold storred blood products being rapidly infused
  • Hypocalcaemia: chelation of citrate in additive solution -> compound the coagulation defect
  • Hyperkalaemia: progressive K+ leakage from storred RBCs

^can occur with repeated transfusion (PLUS: secondary haemochromatosis)

63
Q

Which coagulation factors are most affected by storage?

A

Factor V and VIIIc

(VIIIc may be offset by metabolic response to stress which stimulates VIIIc production)

64
Q

What infective complications may be seen following transfusion?

A
  • Viruses e.g. HBV, HBV, HIV
  • Bacteria:
    • Gram-neg e.g. Yersinia enterocolitica (RBC transfusion)
    • Gram-Positive e.g. Staphyloccoccal following contamination
  • Syphilis
  • Tropical disease e.g. malaria, chagas disease
65
Q

What would make you suspect that a unit of RBC has bacterial contamination?

A
  • Presence of clots in bag
  • High degree of haemolysed RBCs

@risk if storred at 2-6 degrees -> lethal septic shock

66
Q

Which immune reactions may occur following transfusion?

A
  • Severe:
    • Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions e.g. ABO incompatibility -> AntiA/B antibodies in host rapidly destroy donor RBCs -> intravascular haemolysis -> inflammatory cytokines
      • Sx: Pyrexia, rigors, headache, abdo/loin pain, facial flushing, hypotension progressing to AKI/DIC/Acute lung injury
    • Anaphylactic reactions: mild urticaria to shock, sever hypotension, bronchospasm, stridor from laryngeal oedema, life threatening angio-oedema
    • Allergic reactions (IgA deficiency): sever IgA <0.04g
    • Transfusion related actue lung injury (TRALI): antibodies in donor blood reacting to neutrophils, monocytes or pulmonary endothelium. Inflam cells, sequestered in lungs, non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
    • Transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO): acute pulmonary oedema in <6hrs post transfusion
      • Sx: acute resp distress, tachycardia, hypertension, fluid overload
  • Less severe:
    • Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTR): <1hr commencement, reaction to leucocyte antigens in donated bloods.
      • Sx: pyrexia, shivering, myalgia
  • Delayed reactions:
    • Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR): <24hrs, pt immunised to foreign RBC antigens due to previous exposure -> jaundice and haemolysis
    • Post-transfusion purpuric reaction (PTP): 5-12 days following transfusion, due to reaction to human platelet antigen 1a (HPA-1a)
    • Tissue-associated graft v host disease: 7-14days, uniformly fatal. Immunocompetent donor lymph mediate immune reaction to recipient cells of different HLA type
      • Prevented by irradiation
67
Q

How is immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction managed and which investigations would you perfom?

A

ABCDE assessment

Order investigations

Contact on call haematologist

  • Stop transfusion
  • Commence IV fluid resusc, ensure UO >30-40ml/kg/hr
  • Repeat grouping on pre-/post-transfusion recipient sample
  • Repeat cross match
  • Perform direct antiglobulin (Coomb’s test) on recipient’s post-transfusion sample
  • Look for DIC e.g. increased fibrin degradation products, coagulopathy
  • Check for evidence of response to intra-vascular haemolysis e.g. hyperbilirubinaemia, reduced circulating haptoglobin, haemoglobinaemia, haemoglobinuria
  • Send samples for blood culute in case this was, in fact, a septic episode in response to contaminated blood
68
Q

What is a direct Coomb’s test?

A

dAg

  • used for detection of antibody or complement on the surface of RBC that have developed in vivo

Indirect Coombs

  • detection of antibody or complement on the surface of RBC that have developed in vivo
  • Haemolytic transfusion reactions
  • Haemolytic disease of newborn
  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
69
Q

What are the problems associated with platelet transfusion?

A
  • Risk of infection
  • Risk of sensitisation: Rhesus negative females <45yrs should receive Rh-D negative platelets
  • Alloimmunisation: due to development of antibodies to HLA class I antigens -> febrile transfusion reaction and refractoriness (plt cnt rises less than expected following transfusion)
70
Q

Where are anatomic locations of the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes?

A
  • SAN: elliptical area @junction of SVC and R atrium
  • AVN: triangular area of R atrial wall above septal cusp of tricuspid valve
71
Q

Where on the body are ECG leads placed?

A
  • Bipolar (limb) leads:
    • Red - Right wrist
    • Yellow - Left wrist
    • Green - Left ankle
    • Black - Right ankle
  • Unipolar (chest) leads:
    • V1 - 4th intercostal space, R of stenum
    • V2 - 4th intercostal space, L of sternum
    • V3 - midway between V2 and V4
    • V4 - normal apex, left 5th intercostal space, mid clavicular line
    • V5 - anterior axillary line @ level of V4
    • V6 - mid-axillary line @ level of V4
72
Q

Draw a typical ECG waveform and label the various reflections

A

PR - begining of P to begining of QRS complex

QRS - widge of QRS

QT -begining of QRS to end of T

73
Q

When do heart sounds occur in relation to electrical cycle of the heart?

A
  • 1st heart sound: closure of AV valves at end of R wave
  • 2nd heart sound: Closure of VA (aortic/pulmonary) valves at end of T-wave on ECG
74
Q

What is the origin of the P-wave?

A

Atrial depolarisation

Not due to activity at the SAN

75
Q

Define the PR interval. What does it represent and what is the normal range?

A

Begining of P wave to begining of QRS complex

Time taken for impulse to travel from SA node to ventricle

0.12-0.2 secs = 3-5 small squares

>0.2 secs/5 small squares = heart block

76
Q

What does the QRS interval represent and what is the upper limit of its duration?

A

QRS complex represents ventricular muscle depolarisation

<0.12secs = < 3 small squars = normal

Widened QRS > 0.12 secs/3 small sq = conduction delays e.g. bundle branch block

77
Q

Define QT interval

A

QT interval = start of QRS complex to end of T wave

Onset of ventricular depolarisation to full repolarisation

Heart rate dependent - therefor QTc (corrected QT interval standardised to HR of 60bpm using Bazett’s formula

QTc= QT/sqrt (RR)

At HR of 60BPM QTc=QT = 0.35-0.42secs

78
Q

What does the T wave represent and why is its deflection in the same direction as the QRS complex ?

A

T = ventricular myocardial repolarisation

Same deflection as QRS and repolarisation occurs epicardium to endocardium

79
Q

What are J and U waves, where do they occur and under what circumstances?

A

J wave (Osborn) = upward deflection at the junction of S wave and ST segment, represents hypothermia

U wave = low voltage wave after T wave, prominent in hypokalaemia

80
Q

ECG: Causes of sinus tachycardia (>100bpm)

A
  • Exercise
  • Pain (& anxiety)
  • Pyrexia
  • Shock
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Anaemia
  • Drugs
    • Catecholamines eg. adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine
    • Atropine
    • Aminophylline
81
Q

Causes of sinus bradycardia (HR<60pm)

A
  • Athletic heart syndrome
  • Vasovagal
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Jaundice
  • Drugs;
    • Beta blockers
    • Digoxin
    • Amiodarone
82
Q

What kinds of tachyarrythmias do you know?

A
  • Broad complex:
    • Regular: VT or SVT in BBB
    • Irregular: AF in BBB, AF in ventricular pre-excitation syndrome e.g. Wolff Parkinson White syndrome, polymorphic VT
  • Narrow complex
    • Regular: non-pathological sinus tachy and paroxysmal SVT e.g. Atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT) WFW syndrome and atrial flutter in regular AV conduction block e.g. 2:1
    • Irregular: AF (most common) or A flutter in variable AV conduction block 2:1, 3:1, 4:1
83
Q

What are the characteristic features of an SVT?

A
  • HR >150-220 bpm
  • QRS complex duration <0.12s
  • P wave abn shape/absent
84
Q

What are the characteristic features of atrial flutter?

A
  • Atrial rate >250-350bpm
  • QRS complexes of normal morphology
  • P waves are sawtooth shaped