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Neuroanatomy & -physiology > kahoot questions > Flashcards

kahoot questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which fiber types transmit information on pain and temperature?
- C fibers
- Abeta fibers
- Adelta fibers
- Ia fibers

A

Adelta (poorly- myelinated) & C fibers (unmyelinated)

Abeta = Touch (Merkel, …)
Ia fibers = Proprioception (Muscle spindle)

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2
Q

True or False?

In dissociated sensory loss, nociception remains intact while mechanosensory perception is lost.

A

False

both remain partly intact, depending on where

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3
Q

Which ion is the main substrate for TRP ion channels?

A

Ca2+

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4
Q

Which is the main source for top-down pain modulation?
- somatosensory cortex
- amygdala
- periaqueductal gray
- spinal dorsal horn

A

periaqueductal gray

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5
Q

Which is the most prevalent mechanoreceptor in human skin?
- Meissner corpuscles
- Ruffini corpuscles
- Merkel cells
- Pacinian corpuscles

A

Meissner corpuscles (40%)

Merkel cells (25%), Ruffini corpuscles (20%), Pacinian corpuscles (10-15%)

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6
Q

Inhibitory cortical interneurons make up what mean percentage of the overall cortical neuron count?

A

25%

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7
Q

Which ganglionic eminence(s) produce(s) cortical interneurons?
- Medial ganglionic eminence
- Caudal ganglionic eminence
- Lateral ganglionic eminence
- Rostral ganglionic eminence

A
  • Medial ganglionic eminence
  • Caudal ganglionic eminence
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8
Q

Which interneuron type is particularly effective in suppressing target cell output?
- Chandelier cell
- Martinotti cell
- Non-Martinotti cell
- Translaminar cell

A

Chandelier cell

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9
Q

Put the developmental stages of interneurons in correct order!
- Radial migration through the layers
- Migration towards the cortex
- Neurogenesis in ganglionic eminence
- Tangential migration through the cortex

A
  • Neurogenesis in ganglionic eminence
  • Migration towards the cortex
  • Tangential migration through the cortex
  • Radial migration through the layers
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10
Q

True or False?

Roughly a third of all interneurons undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death) after settling in the cortex.

A

True

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11
Q

Sort the steps a BCI takes when operating with the first step on top and the last step at the bottom of the list!
- Feature translation
- Signal acquisition
- Device output and feedback
- Feature extraction

A
  • Signal acquisition
  • Feature extraction
  • Feature translation
  • Device output and feedback
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12
Q

What pathway is primarily active when flexing an arm muscle?
- Corticobulbar pathway
- Corticospinal pathway

A

Corticospinal pathway

Corticobulbar pathway controls muscles of face, head and neck.

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13
Q

Name a possible feature that could be derived from a modality of signal acquisition!

A
  • amplitude of ERP
  • frequency of ERP
  • frequency power spectra (e.g. sensorimotor rhythms)
  • firing rates of individual cortical neurons
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14
Q

True or False?

Every BCI requires a translation algorithm that translates already extracted and processed data.

A

False

Not all BCIs require it (e.g. artificial neural networks)

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15
Q

True or False?

The stimulation of a single motor neuron in primary motor cortex elicits activity only in a single correspondent muscle.

A

False

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16
Q

Which hormone levels lead to temporary increase in hippocampal volume?
- High estrogen, low progesterone
- Low estrogen, low progesterone
- High estrogen, high progesterone
- Low estrogen, high progesterone

A

High estrogen, low progesterone

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17
Q

True or False?

There is consensus on the role of estrogen on memory.

A

False

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18
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder according to the DSM-5?
- Moodiness
- Hot flashes
- Acne
- Stomach cramps

A

hot flashes

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19
Q

Choose the correct statements!
- Progesterone decreases anxiety.
- Estrogen improves mood.
- Cortisol reactivity decreases in the luteal phase.
- Amygdala activity increases in the luteal phase.

A
  • Progesterone decreases anxiety.
  • Estrogen improves mood.
  • Amygdala activity increases in the luteal phase.
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20
Q

Which of the following is not a phase of the menstrual cycle?
- Fovear phase
- Luteal phase
- Follicular phase
- Ovulation

A

Fovear phase

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21
Q

Which of the following eye movements fulfill the function of shifting gaze?
- Vergence
- Saccade
- vestibulo-ocular movements
- smooth pursuit

A
  • Vergence
  • Saccade
  • smooth pursuit

vestibulo-ocular movements and optokinetic reflex for stabilizing gaze

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22
Q

True or False?

Abduction and adduction are executed by the superior and inferior rectus muscles.

A

False

by medial and lateral rectus muscle

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23
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves innervate muscles of the ipsilateral eye?
- oculomotor (III) and trochlear (IV)
- optic (II) and abducens (VI)
- trochlear (IV) and abducens (VI)
- oculomotor (III) and abducens (VI)

A

oculomotor (III) and abducens (VI)

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24
Q

During a saccade to the left, which of the following structures are activated?
- left lateral rectus muscle
- right abducens nucleus
- right oculomotor nucleus
- left medullary reticular formation

A
  • left lateral rectus muscle
  • right oculomotor nucleus
  • left medullary reticular formation
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25
Q

True or False?

We can orient our eyes in response to an auditory stimulus due to topographically organized maps in the superior colliculus.

A

True

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26
Q

Which of the following processes are part of the amyloid cascade?
- Cleavage of APP by alpha-secretases and gamma-secretase
- Excessive accumulation of Abeta peptides
- Disruption of normal synaptic transmission
- Cleavage of APP by beta-secretase and gamma-secretase

A
  • Excessive accumulation of Abeta peptides
  • Disruption of normal synaptic transmission
  • Cleavage of APP by beta-secretase and gamma-secretase
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27
Q

True or False?

Injections with an Abeta-based antigen are an example of passive immunotherapy against Abeta.

A

False

passive immunotherapy: injection of antibodies or cytokines

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28
Q

Aducanumab mainly binds to …
- APP
- Monomers
- Oligomers
- Soluble monomers

A

Oligomers

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29
Q

Which of the following was the most common adverse event reported in the phase 3 trials EMERGE and ENGAGE?
- ARIA-H microhemorrhage
- Headache
- ARIA-E
- Nasopharyngitis

A

ARIA-E

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30
Q

True or False?

Aducanumab received accelerated FDA-approval due to beneficial effect on cognitive decline in MCI or mild dementia.

A

False

no clear link bw achieved reduction in Aβ plaques & cog.
improvement

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31
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Alzheimer’s disease pathogenesis?
- Decreased Firmicutes species in gut
- Increased GABA in CNS
- Highly active microglia
- Chronic secretion of proinflammatory cytokines in the gut

A

increased GABA in CNS

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32
Q

True or False?

The release of lipopolysaccharides in the gut induces blood-brain barrier permeability.

A

True

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33
Q

What percentage of overall serotonin and GABA are produced in the gut, respectively?
- 75% of serotonin, 20% of GABA
- 50% of serotonin, 95% of GABA
- 90% of serotonin, 50% of GABA
- 10% of serotonin, 60% of GABA

A

90% of serotonin, 50% of GABA

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34
Q

Choose all the correct statements regarding Ghrelin.
- Ghrelin induces weight gain.
- Ghrelin receptors are expressed in the CNS.
- Ghrelin level decrease causes depression.
- Ghrelin is implicated in hippocampal neurogenesis.

A
  • Ghrelin induces weight gain.
  • Ghrelin receptors are expressed in the CNS.
  • Ghrelin is implicated in hippocampal neurogenesis.
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35
Q

True or False?

Improved sanitation in early life has been shown to increase the risk of Alzheimer’s disease.

A

True

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36
Q

Order events leading to Alzheimer’s disease according to gut-brain connections.
- Leaky blood-brain barrier and neuroinflammation
- Increased gut inflammation and leaky gut
- Amyloid plaque aggregation
- Gut dysbiosis

A
  • Gut dysbiosis
  • Increased gut inflammation and leaky gut
  • Leaky blood-brain barrier and neuroinflammation
  • Amyloid plaque aggregation
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37
Q

True or False?

A feedforward control system needs a representation of the system’s internal state.

A

True

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38
Q

According to the UCT theory, what is the cognitive outcome of cerebellar damage called?
- Dystonia of thought
- Ataxia of thought
- Dysmetria of thought
- Arrhythmia of thought

A

Dysmetria of thought

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39
Q

According to the Guell, Hoche & Schmahmann (2014) paper, what did patients with dysmetria of thought find difficult?
- Understanding a new sentence
- Constructing a new sentence given context constraints
- Evaluating the syntactic correctness of a sentence
- Constructing a new sentence by inferring it from context

A

Constructing a new sentence by inferring it from context

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40
Q

True or False?

The cerebellar output to the basal ganglia is thought to preferentially influence the direct pathway.

A

False

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41
Q

Put in correct order: How does the indirect pathway unfold?
- GPi (and SNr)
- striatum
- GPe
- STN

A
  • striatum
  • GPe
  • STN
  • GPi (and SNr)
42
Q

Which part of the (pre)frontal cortex and basal ganglia are most involved in error-type learning?
- Ventromedial PFC and ventromedial striatum
- Dorsolateral PFC and putamen
- Premotor cortex and ventromedial striatum
- Orbitofrontal cortex and dorsomedial striatum

A

Ventromedial PFC and ventromedial striatum

43
Q

What is not a theme of taboo words?
- Sex
- Excrement
- Body parts
- Pain

A

Pain

44
Q

Order the “rage circuit” pathway!
- Gray matter of midbrain
- Hypothalamus
- Amygdala

A
  • Amygdala
  • Hypothalamus
  • Gray matter of midbrain
45
Q

Which of these does not increase the strength of an EMG signal?
- Closer proximity of the muscle to the skin
- Closer proximity of the electrode to the muscle
- Fat tissue layers between the electrode and the muscle
- Higher contraction of the muscle

A

Fat tissue layers between the electrode and the muscle

46
Q

EOG, ECG, EMG, EEG, or respiratory signal?

A

respiratory signal

47
Q

EOG, ECG, EMG, EEG, or respiratory signal?

A

EOG

48
Q

EOG, ECG, EMG, EEG, or respiratory signal?

A

ECG

49
Q

EOG, ECG, EMG, EEG, or respiratory signal?

A

EMG

50
Q

EOG, ECG, EMG, EEG, or respiratory signal?

A

EEG

51
Q

Vertical eye movement artifacts can maximally affect which electrodes?
- FP1-FP2
- FP3-FP4
- TZ-T4
- P6-P7

A

FP1-FP2

52
Q

Which term refers to the number of oscillations?
- Phase
- Superimposition
- Amplitude
- Frequency

A

Frequency

53
Q

Which of the following is not a possible treatment for narcolepsy-cataplexy?
- Stimulants
- Benzodiazepines
- Antidepressants
- Sodium oxybate

A

Benzodiazepines

54
Q

Which brain waves are observed during NRM sleep, stage 3?
- Alpha
- Beta
- Gamma
- Delta

A

Delta

55
Q

Which one of the following statements is NOT true for DMN?
- It houses a dense expression of 5-HT2A receptors.
- DMN resting state FC correlates negatively with ratings of internal depressive rumination.
- One of its primary functions is instantiating metacognition.
- It is considered to be the physical counterpart of the narrative self or the “ego”.

A

DMN resting state FC correlates negatively with ratings of internal depressive rumination.

56
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a direct neurobiological/psychological consequence associated with psilocybin?
- The repertoire of inter-regional and between-network FC is expanded.
- Within network activity in higher-order association cortices appears to be acutely reduced.
- Precision weighting of previous beliefs (i.e., priors) is relaxed.
- Neural connectivity and network activity becomes more modular.

A

Neural connectivity and network activity becomes more modular.

57
Q

What are the key mechanisms that underlie psilocybin’s antidepressant effects?
- Increased, dynamic network flexibility across the trans-model regions of the brain
- Its generalized affinity towards 5HT-1A receptors on deep pyramidal cells
- A perturbed DMN functional connectivity linked to the dissolution of the “ego”
- A decoupling between DMN and other association networks such as EN and SN

A
  • Increased, dynamic network flexibility across the trans-model regions of the brain
  • A perturbed DMN functional connectivity linked to the dissolution of the “ego”
58
Q

Write down a major hub in DMN!

A
  • mPFC, PCC, precuneus, angular gyrus
59
Q

Which neurotransmitter does psilocin’s chemical makeup resemble the most?
- Serotonin
- Dopamine
- Acetylcholine
- GABA

A

Serotonin

60
Q

Through which of these mediators does psilocin modulate neuroplasticity?
- Nerve growth factor
- C-fos
- Ependymin
- L-dopa
- BDNF

A
  • C-fos
  • BDNF
61
Q

True or False?

One can develop (physical) substance dependence to psilocin.

A

False

62
Q

Which of the following is not a type of neuroplasticity?
- homologous area adaptation
- distal attribution
- map expansion
- cross-modal reassignment

A

distal attribution

63
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
- Crossmodal plasticity explains unsuccessful results after retinal implantation.
- Changes in connectivity with the thalamus may cause cross-modal plasticity.
- TVSS by Paul Bach-y-Rita was the first sensory substitution device.
- V1 in the blind is recruited for touch due to compensatory plasticity.

A

V1 in the blind is recruited for touch due to compensatory plasticity.

64
Q

How do the cortical maps rapidly change in response to amputation?
- sprouting of axonal collaterals
- synaptic proliferation
- activation of redundant/dormant connections
- wishful thinking

A
  • sprouting of axonal collaterals
  • activation of redundant/dormant connections
65
Q

True or False?

The neuromatrix of pain accurately, and completely, defines PLP.

A

False

66
Q

What do cross-modal plasticity and map expansion have in common?
- They are both ways the brain responds to injury.
- They can be related to learning or enhancing cognitive capacities.
- They both happen only at youth in critical periods.
- They only happen at M1.

A
  • They are both ways the brain responds to injury.
  • They can be related to learning or enhancing cognitive capacities.
67
Q

Which factors influence our perception of time?
- Emotion
- Attention
- Novelty
- Sensory change

A

all

68
Q

True or False?

Dopamine neuron activity reflects and can directly control the judgement of time.

A

True

69
Q

Put the biological rhythms/timings in the right order (from longer to shorter?
- Ultradian
- Millisecond
- Interval
- Circadian

A
  • Circadian
  • Ultradian
  • Interval
  • Millisecond
70
Q

Which of the following is not true about the development of time perception in infants and children?
- Explicit time judgement is related to maturation of fronto-striatal systems
- infants develop circadian rhythms within the first months after birth
- children between 1-3 years can make both implicit and explicit time judgements
- 10-month old infants can detect offsets in timing of repetetive stimuli

A

children between 1-3 years can make both implicit and explicit time judgements

71
Q

Which of these areas is not involved in time perception?
- Cerebellum
- Basal ganglia
- prefrontal cortex
- brain stem

A

brain stem

72
Q

What is not true about Pain Perception?

  • The Placebo effect can be blocked by opioid antagonists.
  • Top-down modulation of pain refers to the exclusively intracortical mechanism of pain modulation.
  • A-delta and C-fibers ascend contralaterally.
  • Fast pain fibers aren’t really that fast.
A

Top-down-modulation of pain refers to the exclusively intracortical mechanism of pain modulation.

73
Q

Which statement about the top-down modulation of pain is correct?

  • Patients have to be tricked into believing in a placebo substance for it to work.
  • A major node of top-down pain modulation is the cerebellum.
  • Top-down pain modulation ensures that comparable nociceptive stimuli are subjectively perceived as being equal.
  • Top-down pain modulation relies on endogenous opioids and ca be diminished or abolished by opioid antagonists.
A

Top-down pain modulation relies on endogenous opioids and ca be diminished or abolished by opioid antagonists.

74
Q

What is true about interneurons?

  • They are known for their long axons, connecting different brain parts.
  • They originate in the medial and caudal ganglionic eminences.
  • They start to migrate as neuroblast in the ventricular zone.
  • make up 30-40% of the total neuron population.
A

They originate in the medial and caudal ganglionic eminences.

75
Q

Which statement about interneurons is false?

  • Some interneurons are excitatory.
  • Interneurons can be classified as belonging to one of three mayor subtypes (parvalbumin-posititve, PV+; somatostatin-positive, SST+; serotonin-receptor expressing, 5HTR3s).
  • Interneurons are produced within the ganglionic eminences and migrate towards the nascent cortex.
  • 30-40 % of interneurons originally produced will undergo programmed cell death (apoptosis) during development.
A

Some interneurons are excitatory.

76
Q

Which statement is not true about premotor areas?

  • They integrate information about circumstances and intention.
  • Some Neurons in the SMA project directly to muscle fibers.
  • They are part of the frontal cortex.
  • They fire at cue perception in conditioned tasks.
A

Some Neurons in the SMA project directly to muscle fibers.

77
Q

What do Brain-Computer Interfaces do?

  • BCIs measure CNS activity and convert it into a device command.
  • BCIs improve natural CNS output.
  • BCIs skip the corticospinal track and mimic the CNS.
  • All of the above.
A

All of the above.

78
Q

Which statement about the lower / second-order motor neurons is correct?

  • Lower motor neurons are localized in the dorsal part of the spinal cord.
  • Lower motor neurons are used as a common source for brain-computer interface (BCI) signal acquisition.
  • There is a horizontal topography within spinal cord segments, with medial lower motor neurons innervating proximal muscles and lateral lower motor neurons innervating distal muscles.
  • Approximately 5 % of all lower motor neurons are so-called giant Betz cells.
A

There is a horizontal topography within spinal cord segments, with medial lower motor neurons innervating proximal muscles and lateral lower motor neurons innervating distal muscles.

79
Q

How does the performance of emotion recognition tasks change within the menstrual cycle?
- Accuracy is lower during the follicular phase, especially for sad faces.
- Accuracy is lower during the follicular phase, but responses elicit faster.
- Accuracy is higher during the follicular phase compared to responses in the luteal phase.
- Accuracy is highest during the ovulation phase.

A
  • Accuracy is higher during the follicular phase compared to responses in the luteal phase.
80
Q

Which statement about neuroimaging findings regarding the menstrual cycle is correct?
- The volume of the amygdala increases significantly just prior to ovulation.
- Hippocampal gray matter volume has been found to increase in the late follicular phase.
- Reactivity of the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) to emotional stimuli was reduced during the luteal phase.
- Activity in areas associated with executive functions (e.g., middle and superior frontal gyri) is unaffected by the menstrual cycle.

A

Hippocampal gray matter volume has been found to increase in the late follicular phase.

81
Q

Which of the following structures is of particular importance for the production of saccadic eye movements?
- superior colliculus
- anterior thalamus
- orbitofrontal cortex
- nucleus basalis Meynert

A

superior colliculus

82
Q

Activity in which of the following is necessary for a saccade to the right?
- right rostral interstitial nucleus
- left medial rectus muscle
- right trochlear nucleus
- all of the above

A

left medial rectus muscle

83
Q

Which statement about anti-β-amyloid (anti-Aβ) treatment in Alzheimer’s disease is false?
- Immunization can be either active or passive.
- Clinical trials in humans have, so far, yielded mixed results.
- Aducanumab animal trials have shown a reduction in Aβ-plaque levels.
- The majority of immunotherapy trials utilize polyclonal antibodies.

A

The majority of immunotherapy trials utilize polyclonal antibodies.

84
Q

What is Aducanumab’s hypothesised mechanism of action?

  • Vaccination with Aducanumab elicits production of anti-Aβ antibodies.
  • Aducanumab prevents the formation of ARIA-E and ARIA-H.
  • Aducanumab binds to Aβ-oligomers and stimulates microglia to clear Aβ-plaques.
  • Aducanumab is a gene therapy treatment that substitutes APOE-ε4 with APOE-ε2.
A

Aducanumab binds to Aβ-oligomers and stimulates microglia to clear Aβ-plaques.

85
Q

Why does the consumption of short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) lead to an increase of cognitive functions and learning?
- They promote the permeability of the blood-brain barrier.
- They elevate the expression of BDNF and NMDA receptors.
- They activate the proliferation of Microglia.
- They promote the intestinal functions via the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.

A

They elevate the expression of BDNF and NMDA receptors.

86
Q

Which glia cell was reported to be particularly susceptible to experimental changes of the gut microbiota (e.g., showed lack of maturation and responsiveness in germ-free mice)?
- Microglia
- Astrocytes
- Oligodendrocytes
- Ependymocytes

A

Microglia

87
Q

Which of the following comparisons of cerebellum and cerebrum is correct?
- The cerebellum is larger than the cerebrum.
- The density of cerebral neurons is higher than the density of cerebellar neurons.
- The cerebellum contains more neurons than the cerebrum.
- Cytoarchitecture (cellular arrangement) is more homogenous in the cerebral cortex than in the cerebellar cortex.

A

The cerebellum contains more neurons than the cerebrum.

88
Q

How does the cerebellum’s indirect pathway unfold?

  • Striatum => GPi => STN => GPe => Thalamus
  • Striatum => GPe => STN => GPi => Thalamus
  • Striatum => STN => GPi => GPe => Thalamus
  • Striatum => GPe => GPi => STN => Thalamus
A

Striatum => GPe => STN => GPi => Thalamus

89
Q

Which statement about the Cerebellum is true?

  • It has a similar anatomy as the cortex, with different parts of the cerebral neocortex having a different amount of layers.
  • Its main function in motor control is the relaying of feedback back to the cortex
  • According to the dysemtria of-thought hypothesis it plays a key role in motor, cognitive and emotional processing.
  • Damage to the cerebellum can lead to dysmetria of thought, which is also called motor ataxia.
A

According to the Dysemtria-of-Thought Hypothesis it plays a key role in motor, cognitive and emotional processing.

90
Q

What is not true about Tourette syndrome?

  • Coprolalia and copropraxia are the most common symptoms of Tourette syndrome.
  • A dysfunction of the cortico-striato-thalamo circuits is thought to play a key role.
  • The dopaminergic system is compromised in Tourette syndrome.
  • The symptoms often subside in late adolscence.
A

Coprolalia and copropraxia are the most common symptoms of Tourette syndrome.

91
Q

Activity in which brain regions is strongly associated with spontaneous swearing?
- pineal gland
- left hemisphere and the basal ganglia
- cerebellum and the limbic system
- right hemisphere and the limbic system

A

right hemisphere and the limbic system

92
Q

What is not true about EEG?

  • The international 10-20 system is used to describe and apply the location of scalp electrodes during EEG studies.
  • EEG has poor temporal resolution and good spatial resolution.
  • Eye movements, muscle activity, heartbeat and sweating are biological artefacts of EEG.
  • Brain waves are distinguished on the basis of frequency.
A

EEG has poor temporal resolution and good spatial resolution.

93
Q

Which sleep stage is also referred to as “slow-wave sleep” (SWS) and characterized by a high percentage of delta waves?
- N1
- N2
- N3
- REM

A

N3

94
Q

What are the symptoms of REM-parasomnia?

  • nightmare disorder, recurrent isolated sleep paralysis
  • wake-like EEG activity, inhibition of muscle tone, vivid dreams
  • loud snoring, noisy breathing, repeated periods of breathing interruption
  • problems falling asleep, waking up and lying awake in the night
A

nightmare disorder, recurrent isolated sleep paralysis

95
Q

What are the suggested mechanisms/models due to which Psilocybin alters consciousness states ?
- The Resting State Functional Connectivity (RSFC) of the Default Mode Network Model (DMN) gets strengthened leading to new possible neuronal connections.
- Neuroplasticity increases because of the ongoing metabolic action on 5HTR3a serotonin receptors.
- BDNF decreases and that is how new synaptic connections evolve.
- Prior beliefs about “the self” are weakened because of changes in the Functional Connectivity of the DMN.

A

Prior beliefs about “the self” are weakened because of changes in the Functional Connectivity of the DMN.

96
Q

Which clinical condition is considered particularly amenable to treatment with psilocybin?
- depression
- Alzheimer’s disease
- Parkinson’s disease
- schizophrenia

A

depression

97
Q

Which is not a type of neuroplasticity?

  • homologous area adaptation
  • cross-modal reassignment
  • sensory substitution modality
  • compensatory masquerade
A

sensory substitution modality

98
Q

Which assertion best encapsulates the “neuromatrix of pain” hypothesis?

  • Pain perception induces remodelling of nociceptive pathways via synaptogenesis.
  • A painful stimulus is whatever you make of it.
  • The Neuromatrix 2 was painful, but less so than The Neuromatrix Reloaded.
  • Our body image is a subjective and malleable experience constructed by a series of patterns in a widely distributed network.
A

Our body image is a subjective and malleable experience constructed by a series of patterns in a widely distributed network.

99
Q

What is true about the development of time perception in infants & children?
- Children’s explicit time judgment ability is related to the maturation of the parasympathetic system.
- At the age of 7, children can make both implicit and explicit time judgments.
- All circadian rhythms emerge immediately after birth.
- Infants discriminate changes in duration in absolute values.

A

At the age of 7, children can make both implicit and explicit time judgments.

100
Q

Which of the following brain structures was shown to play a pivotal role in implicit timing?
- cerebellum
- basal ganglia
- medulla
- amygdala

A

cerebellum

Neuroanatomy & -physiology (14 decks)

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