Kahoot Exam 4 Flashcards
1
Q
- Surgery is indicated for aortic aneurysms that exceed (SATA)
a. 5.5 mm
b. >10 cm per year
c. 5.5 cm
d. >10 mm per year
A
A, B
2
Q
- Anterior spinal artery syndrome is characterized by (SATA)
a. Loss of motor function
b. Pain
c. Autonomic dysfunction
d. Hypotension
A
A, C, D
3
Q
- The most common causes of Anterior Spinal Artery Syndrome include: (SATA)
a. Aortic aneurysms
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Aortic dissections
d. Atherosclerosis
A
A, C, D
4
Q
- Ascending aortic aneurysms includes: (SATA)
a. Debakey 1
b. Debakey 2
c. Stanford A
d. Stanford B
A
A, B, C
5
Q
- Most common deficit associated with aortic arch replacement requiring cardiopulmonary bypass?
a. Renal
b. Pulmonary
c. Cardiac
d. Neurologic
A
D
6
Q
- Which population is aortic dissection most common? (SATA)
a. Males
b. Females
c. 2nd trimester pregnancy
d. 3rd trimester pregnancy
A
A, D
7
Q
- Most abdominal aortic aneurysms rupture into the:
a. Right retroperitoneum
b. Left lower quadrant
c. Left retroperitoneum
d. Right lower quadrant
A
C
8
Q
- Primary cause of mortality r/t surgeries of thoracic aorta include: (SATA)
a. CVA
b. PE
c. Liver failure
d. MI
A
A, D
9
Q
- Most commonly, cardiogenic embolisms originate from (SATA)
a. Left atrial thrombus
b. Right atrial thrombus
c. Left ventricle thrombus
d. Right ventricle thrombus
A
A, C
10
Q
- Subclavian steal syndrome leads to
a. Retrograde blood flow in the contralateral SCA
b. Retrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery
c. Retrograde blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery
d. Retrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral SCA
A
D
11
Q
- Superficial thrombophlebitis & DVT are most seen with almost half of patients undergoing which specific surgery
a. Total hip replacements
b. Intramedullary femur nailing
c. Total knee replacements
d. Shoulder repair
A
A
12
Q
- Which is true regarding LMWH vs unfractionated heparin (SATA)
a. Shorter half life
b. Longer half life
c. Reversible
d. Not reversible
A
B, D
13
Q
- Patients with a history of TIA have a ____ times greater risk of CVA
a. 2
b. 10
c. 6
d. 8
A
B
14
Q
- Cerebral O2 consumption/metabolic rate is most affected by (Select 2)
a. Temp
b. PaCO2
c. Hgb
d. Depth of anesthesia
A
A, D
15
Q
- What is the lifespan of non-activated platelets
a. 5-10 days
b. 2-5 days
c. 8-12 days
d. 12-15 days
A
C
16
Q
- The platelet activation phase occurs
a. Upon exposure to ECM products
b. Upon tissue injury
c. When granular contents are released
d. Upon interaction with collagen and tissue factor
A
D
17
Q
- Which element is an essential part of coagulation tenase-complexes
a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
A
A
18
Q
- Prothrombinase complex is composed of which factors (Select 2)
a. Tissue factor
b. Factor Va
c. Factor Xa
d. Factor VIIa
A
B, C
19
Q
- Which factor activates factor IX (Select 2)
a. TF/VIIa Complex
b. XI
c. Xa
d. XIa
A
A, D
20
Q
- Phase 2 homeostasis is primarily initiated by
a. Platelet adhesion
b. Extrinsic pathway
c. Intrinsic pathway
d. Platelet aggregation
A
B
21
Q
- Which system mainly amplifies thrombin generation
a. Intrinsic pathway
b. Extrinsic pathway
c. Common pathway
d. Platelet activation
A
A
22
Q
- Prothrombinase complex converts (Select 2)
a. Fibrinogen to fibrin
b. Factor II to IIa
c. Prothrombin to Thrombin
d. Factor VIII to VIIIa
A
B, C
23
Q
- Coagulation counter-mechanisms include (SATA)
a. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
b. Protein C
c. Serine protease inhibitors
d. Endovascular TPA and urokinase
A
A, B, C, D
24
Q
- Supplements that cause blood thinning include (Select 2)
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Tumeric
d. Vitamin E
A
C, D
25
11. vWF prevents degradation of which factor
a. VII
b. X
c. VIII
d. IX
C
26
12. Which lab value may be abnormal in Hemophilia
a. PTT
b. Platelets
c. INR
d. PT
A
27
13. Which clotting factors are not produced in the liver?
a. VIII
b. II
c. X
d. IX
A
28
14. Which anticoagulant factors are produced in the liver? (SATA)
a. Protein C
b. Protein S
c. Urokinase
d. Antithrombin
A, B, D
29
15. Anemia of chronic kidney disease is due to (Select 2)
a. EPO deficiency
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Factor XIII deficiency
d. Platelet dysfunction
A, D
30
16. Lab findings associated with DIC include (SATA)
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Increased Fibrin
c. Increased fibrin degradation
d. Prolonged PT/PTT
ALL
31
1. What is the innermost layer of the GI tract
a. Serosa
b. Mucosa
c. Submucosa
d. Circular Muscle
B
32
2. Which is the best test to detect gastroparesis
a. GI series with ingested barium
b. High-resolution manometry
c. Upper Gastrointestinal endoscopy
d. Gastric emptying study
D
33
3. Which type of achalasia is associated with the worst outcomes
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
C
34
4. What is the most effective nonsurgical treatment for achalasia
a. Endoscopic botox injections
b. Pneumatic dilation
c. Laparoscopic Hellar Myotomy
d. Peri-oral endoscopic myotomy (POEM)
B
35
5. Normal LES pressure is?
a. 15 mmHg
b. 20 mmHg
c. 25 mmHg
d. 29 mmHg
D
36
6. The descending colon and distal GI tract are innervated by the
a. Celiac plexus
b. Sacral plexus
c. Lumbar plexus
d. Hypogastric plexus
D
37
7. Which of the following describes an independent nervous system which controls motility, secretion, and blood flow?
a. Extrinsic nervous system
b. Autonomic nervous system
c. Enteric nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
C
38
8. Which feature of the myenteric plexus controls motility (SATA)
a. Enteric neurons
b. Circular muscle layer
c. Interstitial cells of Cajal
d. Smooth muscle cells
A, B, C
39
9. Which of the following presents a major anesthesia challenge in colonoscopy?
a. Dehydration
b. Sharing the airway
c. Hypertension
d. Aspiration
A
40
10. Which hormones play a role in gastric motility
a. Gastrin
b. Somatostatin
c. Gastrin inhibitory peptide
d. Motilin
A, C, D
41
11. Common causes of gastric ulcers include (SATA)
a. ETOH
b. H. Pylori
c. Direct-acting oral anticoagulants
d. NSAIDS
A, B, D
42
12. Which of the following are beneficial preop interventions for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome (SATA)
a. Administer PPI’s
b. RSI
c. Correct electrolytes
d. Suction at head of bed
ALL
43
13. Symptoms associated with chrones disease include (SATA)
a. Steatorrhea
b. Peptic ulcers
c. Malabsorption
d. Ileocolitis
A, C, D
44
14. IBD treatments include
a. Steroids
b. 5-Acetylsalicylic acid
c. Rifaximin
d. Vancomycin
A, B, C
45
15. Which drug should be given prior to resection of a carcinoid tumor?
a. Glucocorticoids
b. DDAVP
c. Azathioprine
d. Octreotide
D
46
1. There are six anterior pituitary hormones, they include (SATA)
a. Growth hormone (somatotrophin)
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. Thyroid stimulating hormone
A, B, D
47
2. The two posterior pituitary hormones are? (Select 2)
a. ADH
b. Oxytocin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
A, B
48
3. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urine production
a. True
b. False
True
49
4. SIADH is inappropriate release of ADH seen with ____ (SATA)
a. Cancer of the lung
b. Porphyria
c. Intracranial tumors
d. Hypothyroidism
ALL
50
5. Treatment of SIADH includes (SATA)
a. Fluid restriction
b. Vasopressin
c. Demeclocycline
d. Hypotonic Saline
ALL
51
6. Anesthesia considerations associated with acromegaly include (SATA)
a. Vocal cord hypertrophy
b. Micrognathia
c. Soft tissue overgrowth
d. Skeletal muscle weakness
A, C, D
52
7. The types of Diabetes mellitus include (SATA)
a. Type 1a: autoimmune; destruction beta cells
b. Type 1b: Absent insulin production
c. Type II: Beta cell insufficiency or insulin resistance
d. Type 1c autoimmune pancreas destruction
A, B, C
53
8. DM can result in which types of coma (SATA)
a. Hypoglycemia: BG < 50mg/dL in adults
b. Hyperglycemia, hyperosmolar nonketotic coma: type 2. Serum osmolarity >320
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis: >ketoacids and metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia
d. Neurogenic
A, B, C
54
9. DKA is more common in type 2 diabetics
a. True
b. False
False
55
10. Treatment of DKA includes (SATA)
a. Permissive Hypotension
b. Aggressive isotonic resuscitation
c. Insulin 0.1 u/kg/hr
d. Correct electrolyte derangements
B, C, D
56
11. The symptoms of Whipple’s triad strongly associated with insulinoma include (SATA)
a. Symptoms of hypoglycemia provoked by fasting
b. BG <50 mg/dl
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Relief of symptoms with glucose
A, B, D
57
12. S/S of Cushing’s disease or hypercortisolism include (SATA)
a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Weight gain
A, C, D
58
13. Addison’s Disease aka adrenal insufficiency, has two types (Select 2)
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Aviary
A, B
59
14. Management goals for patients undergoing adrenalectomy include
a. Regulate hypertension
b. Overhydrate
c. Control Hyperglycemia
d. Anticipate hyperkalemia
A, C
60
15. Plasma levels associated with pheochromocytoma include (Select 2)
a. Elevated ADH
b. Reduced ADH
c. Elevated metanephrine
d. Elevated Norepinephrine
C, D
