Kahoot - Assessment Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Surgery is indicated for aortic aneurysms that exceed:

A

5.5 cm
>10 mm per year

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2
Q

Anterior spinal artery syndrome is characterized by:

A

Loss of motor function
Autonomic dysfunction
Hypotension

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3
Q

The most common causes of anterior spinal artery syndrome include:

A

Aortic aneurysms
Aortic dissections
Atherosclerosis

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4
Q

Ascending aortic aneurysms include what classifications?

A

Stanford A
Debakey 1 & 2

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5
Q

Most common deficit associated with aortic arch replacement requiring cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

Neurologic

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6
Q

Which population is aortic dissection most common?

A

Males
3rd trimester pregnancy

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7
Q

Most abdominal aortic aneurysms rupture into the:

A

Left retroperitoneum

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8
Q

Primary causes of mortality r/t surgeries of thoracic aorta include:

A

CVA
MI

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9
Q

Most commonly, cardiogenic embolisms originate from?

A

Left atrial thrombus
Left ventricle thrombus

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10
Q

Subclavian steal syndrome leads to:

A

Retrograde blood flow in ipsilateral SCA

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11
Q

Superficial thrombophlebitis and DVT are most seen with almost half of pts undergoing which specific surgery?

A

Total hip replacements

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12
Q

Which is true regarding LMWH vs unfractionated heparin?

A

Longer half life
Not reversible

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13
Q

Pts with a history of TIA have a ___ times greater risk of CVA

A

10

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14
Q

Cerebral O2 consumption/metabolic rate is most affected by what 2 things?

A

Temperature
Depth of anesthesia

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15
Q

What is the lifespan of non-activated platelets?

A

8-12 days

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16
Q

The platelet activation occurs when:

A

Upon interaction with collagen and tissue factor

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17
Q

Which element is an essential part of coagulation tenase-complexes?

A

Calcium

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18
Q

Prothrombinase complex is combined of which factors?

A

Factor Xa
Factor Va

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19
Q

Which factor(s) activates factor IX?

A

TF/VIIa complex
XIa

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20
Q

Phase II homeostasis is primarily initiated by?

A

Extrinsic pathway

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21
Q

Which system mainly amplifies thrombin generation?

A

Intrinsic pathway

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22
Q

Prothrombinase complex converts:

A

Prothrombin to thrombin
Factor II to IIa

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23
Q

Coagulation counter-mechanisms include:

A

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
Serine protease inhibitors

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24
Q

Supplements that cause blood-thinning include:

A

Tumeric
Vitamin E
Protein C
Endovascular tPA & urokinase

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25
Q

vWF prevents degradation of which factor?

26
Q

Which lab value may be abnormal in hemophilia?

27
Q

Which clotting factor is not produced in the liver?

VIII
X
IX
II

28
Q

Which anticoagulant factors are produced in the liver?

A

Protein C
Protein S
Antithrombin

29
Q

Anemia of CKD is due to:

A

EPO deficiency
Plt dysfunction

30
Q

Lab findings associated with DIC include:

A

Increased fibrin
Prolonged PT/PTT
Thrombocytopenia
Increased fibrin degradation

31
Q

What is the innermost layer of the GI tract?

32
Q

Which is the best test to detect gastroparesis?

A

gastric emptying study

33
Q

Which type of achalasia is associated with the worst outcomes?

34
Q

What is the most effective nonsurgical treatment for achalasia?

A

pneumatic dilation

35
Q

Normal LES pressure

36
Q

The descending colon and distal GI tract are innervated by the:

A

hypogastric plexus

37
Q

Which of the following describes an independent nervous system, which controls motility, secretion, and blood flow?

A

enteric nervous system

38
Q

Which feature of the myenteric plexus controls motility?

A

enteric neurons, interstitial cells of Cajal, and smooth muscle cells

39
Q

Which of the following presents a major anesthesia challenge in colonoscopy?

A

dehydration

40
Q

Which hormones play a role in gastric motility?

A

gastrin, motilin, and gastric inhibitory peptide

41
Q

Common causes of gastric ulcers include:

A

H. pylori, nsaids, and ethanol

42
Q

Which of the following are beneficial preop interventions for zollinger ellison syndrome?

A

correct electrolytes, PPI admin, RSI, and suction at head of bed

43
Q

Symptoms associated with chrons disease include:

A

steatorrhea, malabsorption and ileocolitis

44
Q

IBD treatment include:

A

5 acetylsalicylic acid, rifaximin , and steroids

45
Q

Which drug should be given prior to resection of a carcinoid tumor?

A

octreotide

46
Q

There are six anterior pituitary hormones:

A

GH, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, prolactin

47
Q

The two posterior pituitary hormones are

A

ADH and oxytocin

48
Q

T/F
DI is characterized by excessive urine production

49
Q

SIADH is inappropriate release of ADH seen with:

A

cancer of the lung, porphyria, hypothyroidism, intracranial tumors

50
Q

Treatment of SIADH includes:

A

fluid restriction, hypertonic saline, vasopressin, demeclocycline

51
Q

Anesthesia considerations associated with acromegaly include:

A

Vocal cord hypertrophy, soft tissue overgrowth, skeletal muscle weakness

52
Q

The types of DM include:

A

type 1a (autoimmune), type 1b (absent insulin production), type II (beta cells insufficient / insulin resistance)

53
Q

DM can result in which type of coma:

A

Hypoglycemic → BG less than 50 mg/dL in adult

DKA → ketoacids and metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia

Hyperglycemia, hyperosmolar nonketotic coma→ type 2, serum osmolarity > 320

54
Q

T/F
DKA is more common in type 2 DM

55
Q

Treatment of DKA includes:

A

Insulin 0.1 unit/kg/hr, aggressive isotonic resuscitation, correct electrolyte derangements

56
Q

The syndrome of whipple’s triad strongly associated with insulinoma include:

A

BG < 50 mg/dL, relief of symptoms with glucose, symptoms of hypoglycemia provoked by fasting

57
Q

S/S of cushings disease or hypercortisolism include:

A

hypertension, weight gain, hyperglycemia

58
Q

Addison’s disease aka adrenal insufficiency has two types:

A

primary and secondary

59
Q

Management goals for patients undergoing adrenalectomy include:

A

regulate hypertension and control hyperglycemia

60
Q

Plasma levels associated with pheochromocytoma include:

A

elevated metanephrine and elevated norepinephrine