Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Spring 2025 > Erin's Assessment Exam 1 > Flashcards

Erin's Assessment Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

V fib steps ACLS

A
  1. CPR
  2. Shock
  3. CPR
  4. Shock
  5. Epi Q3-5 min
  6. Shock
  7. Amio or Lido
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Initial dose amio and lido

A

amio 300 mg
lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Initial defibrillator joules monophasic

A

360 J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Initial defibrillator joules biphasic

A

120-200 J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

H’s (5)

A

Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Hydrogen ion (acidosis)
Hypo/hyperkalemia
Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T’s (5)

A

Tension
Tamponade
Thrombosis, pulmonary
Thrombosis, coronary
Toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SVT, stable

A

Adenosine, 6 and then 12 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SVT unstable intervention

A

cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Meds that can be given via ETT

A

Lidocaine
Epinephrine
Atropine
Narcan
(LEAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 most common causes of cardiac arrest:

A

hypoxia and hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hyperkalemia interventions

A

-Calcium
-Insulin / D50
-Albuterol
-Volume
-Bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Beck’s triad

A

Hypotension (narrow pulse pressure too), JVD and muffled heart sounds.

Indicates cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Beta blocker OD interventions

A

Glucagon - 3-5 mg
If unstable, may need to pace as a bridge to get glucagon working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adult bradycardia atropine doses

A

1 mg bolus Q3-5 min to a max of 3 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Adult bradycardia epi dose, drip

A

2-10 mcg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adult bradycardia dopamine dose, drip

A

5-20 mcg/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adult bradycardia steps:

A
  1. Identify and treat underlying cause
  2. Atropine
  3. If atropine ineffective:
    Pacing and/or dopamine or epinephrine infusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Stable wide QRS tachycardia Procainamide IV dose

A

20-50 mg/min max dose 17 mg/kg
Maintenance infusion 1-4 mg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Stable wide QRS tachycardia amiodarone IV dose

A

150 mg over 10 min
Maintenance dose: 1mg/min x 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stable wide QRS tachycardia sotalol IV dose

A

100 mg (1.5 mg/kg) over 5 min. Avoid in prolonged QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Unstable tachyarrhythmia cardioversion joules dose

A

1-2 J/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Peds compression to ventilation ratio and how often to deliver a breath

A

15:2
Q 2-3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pediatric ACLS shock energy for defibrillator

A

First shock: 2J/kg
Second shock: 4j/kg
Subsequent shocks: >4J/kg up to a max of 10J/kg or adult dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PALS epinephrine dose IV

A

0.01 mg/kg max dose of 1 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
PALS epi dose down ETT
0.1 mg/kg
26
PALS amiodarone IV dose for VF/VT
5mg/kg bolus. May repeat up to 3 doses for refractory VF/pulseless VT
27
PALS lidocaine dose
1mg/kg
28
PALS atropine dose for bradycardia
0.02 mg/kg May repeat once. Max single dose 0.5 mg
29
PALS bradycardia steps
CPR if HR <60 BPM despite oxygen and ventilation Epi Atropine
30
Why to have atropine ready when giving succ to kids?
Sucd byproduct can cause bradycardia in kids
31
Peds tachycardia adenosine IV dose
0.1 mg/kg rapid bolus (max 6mg) Second dose: 0.2 mg/kg (max 12 mg)
32
Biggest causes of tachycardia in kids:
volume depletion and elevated temp
33
Pediatric tachycardia HR in 2-8 year olds
>180
34
Pediatric tachycardia HR in child less than 2 years
>220
35
In neonates, HR less than ___, we ventilate
100
36
In peds and neonates; if HR less than ___, start compressions
60
37
Potential cause of cardiac arrest in pregnancy
Anesthesia complications Bleeding Cardiovascular Drugs Embolic Fever General (H and Ts) HTN
38
The heart has the ability to generate its own spontaneous action potentials, a phenomenon known as ___
automaticity.
39
the SA node can produce spontaneous action potentials at a rate of ____ beats per minute intrinsically without any external stimuli.
60-100 beats
40
SA node is represented by _ wave
p
41
Pathway of electrical signal in heart
SA --> internodal --> AV --> bundle of His --> R and L bundle branches --> purkinje fibers
42
The rate at which the AV node produces spontaneous action potentials is approximately ______ beats per minute.
40-60
43
The bundle of His has pacemaker cells that can generate action potentials at ___ beats per minute.
40-60
44
The bundle branches consist of pacemaker cells that can generate spontaneous action potentials at a rate of ___ beats per minute.
20-40
45
The pacemaker cells within the Purkinje fibers have the ability to generate spontaneous action potentials at a rate of ___ beats per minute.
20-40 but often lower
46
How many seconds is a big box on EKG? Little box?
Big box = 0.2 seconds Little box = 0.04 seconds
47
P wave length
0.12 seconds
48
What does the PR interval represent? Why is the end flat?
Represents AV conduction PR interval later part flat is due to delay as it travels through AV node
49
QRS normal duration
0.12 seconds
50
What does the QRS represent?
Ventricular depolarization
51
What does the ST segment represent?
Early stages of ventricular repolarization
52
If confirming MI, need ST segment greater than ____ elevation/depression in contiguous leads
>1 mm
53
What does T wave represent?
Ventricular repolarization
54
This a physiological response that causes a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) when pressure is applied to the eyeball or traction is exerted on the extraocular muscles. What can we give to block this?
Oculocardiac reflex Can give atropine or glycopyrrolate to block reflex
55
Volatile that prolongs QT interval
Desflurane
56
Volatile with high potential for bradycardia, especially in kids
Sevo
57
Why does giving a bunch of blood impact calcium?
Citrate lowers calcium levels because it readily binds to calcium ions, forming a complex that effectively removes free calcium from the bloodstream, essentially "chelation" of calcium; this is why citrate is often used as an anticoagulant, as calcium is a crucial factor in blood clotting mechanisms.
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
Normal junctional rate is ___ BPM Junctional bradycardia is
40-60 Brady: <40
77
How long to be NPO after a full meal / enteral tube feeds
8 hours
78
Your patient had toast, liquids, formula and coffee with milk as well as non human milk. How long should they be NPO
6 hours
79
How long to be NPO after breast milk
4 hours
80
How long to stay NPO after clear liquids (coffee, tea, juice no pulp, carbonated beverages)
2 hours
81
ASA I
Healthy non smoking no/minimal alcohol use
82
What asa score is a current smoker
ASA II
83
What asa score is a social drinker or pregnany patient
ASA II
84
What ASA score is a patient with a BMI between thirty and 40 or someone with well controlled DM/HTN
ASA II
85
A patient with severe systemic disease is an ASA
III
86
Poorly controlled DM / HTN COPD and morbid obesity will all fall into ASA
III
87
Hepatitis, alcohol abuse, implanted PM moderately reduced EF are all ASA
III
88
ESRD undergoing regular HD and >3 month history of: MI, CVA, TIA or CAD/stents are ASA
ASA III
89
ESRD non compliant with HD, recent <3 months CVA, MI, TIA or CAD/stents are ASA
ASA IV
90
DIC, ARDS or severely reduced EF and most ICU patients are ASA
ASA IV
91
ASA VI
STA patients
92
What ASA class is the only one who mentions surgery
ASA V
93
A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operaiton is an ASA
V
94
Examples of ASA V patients
* Ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm * Massive trauma * Intracranial bleed with mass effect * MODS * Ischmic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology
95

Spring 2025 (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions