Coagulation - Assessment Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal hemostasis is a balance between what 3 things?

A

clot generation
thrombus formation
regulatory mechanisms that inhibit uncontrolled thrombogenesis

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2
Q

What are the 3 goals of hemostasis?

A
  • to limit blood loss from vascular injury
  • maintain intravascular blood flow
  • promote revascularization after thrombosis
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3
Q

What are the 2 stages of hemostasis?

A

Primary
Secondary

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4
Q

Explain primary hemostasis

A

Immediateplatelet deposition at the endovascular injury site
- Leads to the initial platelet plug formation
- Only adequate for minor injury

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5
Q

Explain secondary hemostasis

A

clotting factors activated
- Stabilized clot formed and secured with crosslinked fibrin

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6
Q

Vascular endothelial cells have ____, _____, and _____ effects to inhibit clot formation

A

Antiplatelet
Anticoagulant
FIbrolytic

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7
Q

Explain anti-clotting mechanisms of endothelial cells

A
  • are negatively charged to repel platelets
  • produce platelet inhibitors such as prostacyclin and nitric oxide
  • excrete adenosine diphosphatase, which degrades adenosine diphosphate (ADP), a platelet activator
  • increase protein C, an anticoagulant
  • produce Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI), which inhibits factor Xa & TF-VIIa complex
  • Synthesize tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
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8
Q

Platelets play a critical role in ______ and are derived from what?

A

Hemostasis
bone-marrow megakaryocytes

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9
Q

Inactive plts circulate as _____ - shaped _____ cells with a lifespan of ______ days

A

Disc-shaped anuclear cells
8-12 days

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10
Q

Normally, approx ___% of platelets are consumed to support vascular integrity with _____ billion new platelets formed daily

A

10%
120-150

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11
Q

T/F
The platelet membrane contains numerous receptors and a surface canalicularsystem, which increases membrane surface area

A

True

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12
Q

Damage to endothelium exposes the underlying _____ _____, which contains ______, ______, and other _____

A

Extracellular matrix

Contains
- collagen
- vWF
- other glycoproteins

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13
Q

Upon exposure to contents in the ECM, platelets undergo what 3 phases of alteration?

A

adhesion
activation
aggregation

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14
Q

When does adhesion occur?

A

occurs upon exposure to ECM proteins

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15
Q

When is activation stimulated?

A

when platelet interacts w/collagen & tissue factor (TF), causing the release of granular contents

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16
Q

Plts contain what 2 types of storage granules? What are they?

A

Alpha granules: contain fibrinogen, factors V & VIII, vWF, Plt-derived growth factor & more
Dense bodies: contain ADP, ATP, calcium, serotonin, histamine, epinephrine

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17
Q

When does aggregation occur?

A

when the granular contents are released, which activate additional platelets, propagating plasma-mediated coagulation

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18
Q

Each stage of the clotting cascade requires assembly of membrane-bound activated tenase-complexes
- each complex is composed of what 4 things?

A

1) a substrate (inactive precursor)
2) an enzyme (activated coagulation factor)
3) a cofactor (accelerator or catalyst
4) calcium

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19
Q

Clotting cascade picture

A
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20
Q

Other clotting cascade picture

A
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21
Q

The Extrinsic pathway is the initiation phase of what?

A

plasma-mediated hemostasis

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22
Q

Explain extrinsic pathway

A

Begins endothelial injury, exposing TF to the plasma

TF forms an active complex with VIIa (TF/VIIa complex)

TF/VIIa complex binds to and activates factor X, converting it to Xa

TF/VIIa complex also activates IX→ IXa in the intrinsic pathway
- IXaand calcium convert factor X to Xa (intrinsic pathway)

Factor Xa begins the final common pathway

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23
Q

With intrinsic pathway (beginning with factor ____), it was initially thought to occur only in response to endovascular contact with ___________ (glass, dextran)

A

XIIa
negatively-charged substances

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24
Q

Current understanding is the intrinsic pathway plays a minor role in _______ and is more an ______ system to propagate ______ generation initiated by the extrinsic pathway

A

Imitation of hemostasis
Amplification system
Thrombin generation

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25
Q

Explain Intrinsic pathway hemostasis initiation

A
  • Upon contact with a negatively charged surface, factor XII becomes activated
  • Factor XIIa converts XI to XIa
  • (XIa + VIIIa +plt-membrane phospholipid + Ca++) converts factor X to Xa
  • Xa initiates the final common pathway
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26
Q

Explain Intrinsic pathway propagation

A
  • Activated Thrombin (IIa) activates factors V, VII, VIII, XI to amplify thrombin generation
  • This process activates the platelets, leading to propagation of the FCP
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27
Q

Explain the common pathway

A
  • Factor X becomes Xa and binds with Va to form “prothrombinase complex”
  • Prothrombinase complex rapidly converts prothrombin (II) into thrombin (IIa)
  • Thrombin attaches to the platelets and converts fibrinogen (I) to fibrin (Ia)
  • Fibrin molecules crosslink to form a mesh that stabilizes the clot
  • Thrombin cleaves fibrinopeptides from fibrinogen to generate fibrin, which polymerizes into strands to form basic clot
  • Finally, factor XIIIa crosslinks the fibrin strands to stabilize and make an insoluble clot, resistant to fibrinolytic degradation
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28
Q

What does the common pathway depict?

Both intrinsic and extrinsic tenase-complexes facilitate the formation of _____________

A

thrombin generation and fibrin formation

prothrombinase complexes

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29
Q

prothrombinase complexes converts ______ into ______

A

PT (II) into thrombin (IIa)

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30
Q

What are the 4 major coagulation counter-mechanisms?

A

Fibrinolysis
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
Protein C systen
Serine Protease Inhibitors (SERPIN)

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31
Q

Explain fibrinolysis

A

endovascular TPA & urokinase convert plasminogen to plasmin
- Plasmin breaks down clots enzymatically, and degrades factors V & VIII

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32
Q

Explain TFPI

A

forms complex w/Xa that inhibits TF/7a complex, along with Xa; thereby downregulating the extrinsic pathway

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33
Q

Explain protein C system

A

inhibits factors 2 (II), 5a (Va) & 8a (VIIIa)

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34
Q

Explain SERPINs

A
  • Antithrombin (AT) inhibits thrombin, factors 9a (IXa), 10a (Xa), 11a (XIa), 12a (XIIa)
  • Heparin binds to AT, causing a conformational change that accelerates AT activity
  • Heparin cofactor II inhibits thrombin alone
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35
Q

What is the most effective predictor of bleeding during preop?

A

A carefully performed bleeding hx

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36
Q

What are the bleeding disorders?

A

Von Willebrand’s
Hemophilia
Drug-induced bleeding
Liver disease
Chronic renal disease
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Trauma-induced coagulopathy

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37
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder??

It effects __% of the population

A

vWF
1%

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38
Q

What is vWF disease?

A

Deficiency in vWF, causing defective plt adhesion/aggregation
- vWF plays critical role in plt adhesion & prevents degradation of factor 8 (VIII)

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39
Q

What will labs look like in vWF?

A

Platelets & PT will be normal; aPTT might be prolonged d/o level of factor 8

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40
Q

Hemophilia A is factor ____ deficiency and occurs in what ratio?

A

8
1 in 5,000

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41
Q

Hemophilia B is factor ____ deficiency and occurs in what ratio?

A

9
1 in 30,000

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42
Q

Hemophilia frequently presents in ______ as spontaneous ____ involving what 2 things?

A

Childhood
Hemorrhage
Joints/muslces

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43
Q

What do labs look like in hemophilia?

A

Labs show normal PT, Plts, bleeding time
PTT normally prolonged

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44
Q

What may be indicated in hemophilia prior to surgery?

A

DDAVP and Factors 8 and/or 9 may be indicated before surgery

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45
Q

What are the most significant cause of intraop bleeding?

A

Anticoagulant meds

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46
Q

Anticoagulant meds include what? What about herbal supplements?

A

Heparin
Warfarin
Direct Oral Anticoags (DOACs)
Beta-Lactam Abx
Nitroprusside
NTG
NO
SSRIs

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47
Q

The liver is the primary source of what factors?
What other 3 things come from the liver?

A

5, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12
proteins C & S, and antithrombin

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48
Q

What are the 3 reasons that liver disease leads to multifactorial hemostatic issues?

A

Impaired synthesis of coagulation factors
Quantitative and qualitative platelet dysfunction
Impaired clearance of clotting and fibrinolytic proteins

49
Q

What do coagulation labs look like in liver disease?

A

Lab findings often show prolonged PT and possible prolonged PTT

50
Q

CKD pts display baseline anemia due to what 2 things?

A

Lack of erythropoietin
Platelet dysfunction (due to uremic environment)

51
Q

_____ and _____ are both shown to shorten bleeding times

A

Dialysis
Correction of anemia

52
Q

Treatment of plt dysfunction in CKD pts includes?

A

Cryoprecipitate (rich in vWF)
DDAVP
Conjugated estrogens given pre-operatively x 5 days

53
Q

What is DIC?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
- Pathological hemostatic response to TF/7a complex causing excessive activation of the extrinsic pathway, which overwhelms the anticoagulant mechanisms and generates intravascular thrombin
- Coagulation factors & platelets become depleted during widespread microvascular thrombotic activity, causing multi-organ dysfunction

54
Q

DIC may be precipitated by?

A

trauma, amniotic fluid embolus, malignancy, sepsis, or incompatible blood transfusion

55
Q

Lab findings in DIC

A

↓Plts, prolonged PT/PTT/Thrombin time,↑soluble fibrin & fibrin degradation products

56
Q

_____ is a common cause of trauma-related death

A

Uncontrolled hemorrhage

57
Q

Coagulopathies occurs due to:

A

acidosis, hypothermia and/or hemodilution

58
Q

What is TIC?

A

Trauma Induced Coagulopathy
- acute coagulopathy seen in trauma pts, which is thought to be related to activated protein C decreasing thrombin generation
- The endothelial glycocalyx, which contains proteoglycans, degrades
- Proteoglycan-shedding results in “auto-heparinization”
- Platelet dysfunction contributes to the increased bleeding

59
Q

What is thought to be the driving factor for protein C activation in TIC?

A

Hypoperfusion

60
Q

The most common inherited prothrombotic diseases are caused by a mutation in what 2 things?

A

Factor V
PT

61
Q

Factor V Leiden mutation leads to what?

A

activated protein C resistance

62
Q

Prothrombin mutation causes what?

A

↑PT concentration, leading to hypercoagulation

63
Q

What is thrombophilia?

A

inherited or acquired predisposition for thrombotic events
- generally manifests as venous thrombosis
- highly susceptible in virchow’s

64
Q

What is antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

autoimmune disorder w/antibodies against the phospholipid-binding proteins in the coagulation system
- Characterized byrecurrent thrombosis and pregnancy loss
- Often require life-longanticoagulants

65
Q

In pts in prothrombic states, what things greatly increase the risk of thrombosis?

A

Oral contraceptives, pregnancy, immobility, infection, surgery & trauma

66
Q

HIT occurs _____ after heparin treatment

67
Q

Explain HIT

A

Mild-moderate thrombocytopenia associated w/Heparin
- Results in platelet count reduction as well as activation of the remaining platelets and potential thrombosis

68
Q

Risk factors for HIT

A

women, pts receiving high heparin doses such as w/CPB
- Unfractionated heparin carries greater rx than LMWH

69
Q

What do you do if HIT is suspected?

A

D/C heparin, convert to an alternative anticoagulant
- Warfarin is contraindicated bc it decreases protein C & S synthesis

70
Q

HIT diagnosis is confirmed with?

Antibodies are typically cleared from circulation in ____

A

HIT antibody testing

3 months

71
Q

Coagulation labs include

A

Prothrombin Time (PT)
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
Anti-factor Xa activity assay
Platelet Count
Activated Clotting Time (ACT)
Heparin Concentration Measurement
Viscoelastic Coagulation Tests
- TEG (Thromboelastogram)
- ROTEM (Rotational Thromboelastometry)

72
Q

Explain a prothrombin time

A

Plasma is mixed w/TF and the number of seconds is measured until a clot forms
- Assesses integrity of extrinsic & common pathways

73
Q

A PT (lab) reflects deficiencies in what factors?

What is this used to monitor?

A

1, 2, 5, 7, 10

Used to monitor vit K antagonists s/a Warfarin
- (factors 2, 7 & 10 are vit K dependent)

74
Q

Explain aPTT

A

Measures seconds until clot forms after mixing plasma w/phospholipid, Ca², and an activator of the intrinsic pathway
- Assesses integrity of intrinsic and common pathways

75
Q

What factors are looked at with aPTT?
What is this used to monitor?

A

More sensitive to deficiencies in factor 8 & 9

May be used to measure effect of Heparin

76
Q

Explain Anti-factor Xa activity assay

A

Plasma combined w/Xa and an artificial substrate that releases a colorimetric signal after factor Xa is cleaved

77
Q

What do you use a Anti-factor Xa activity assay for?

A

Provides functional assessment of heparin’s anticoagulant effect
- Can also be used to assess effect of LMWH, Fondaparinux, factor Xa inhibitors

78
Q

Explain plt count lab with normal values

A

Standard component of coagulation testing
- Normal = Plt count >100,000 plts/microliter

79
Q

Explain ACT

A

Variation of whole blood clotting time, with the addition of a clotting activator to accelerate clotting time
- Addresses intrinsic and common pathways

80
Q

What is ACT used for?
What is normal?

A

Used to measure responsiveness to heparin
Normal = 107 +/- 13 seconds

81
Q

What is a Heparin Concentration Measurement?

___ mg of protamine will inhibit ___ mg of heparin

A

determines perioperative heparin concentration
- As increasing amts of protamine are added to heparinized blood, time to clot decreases until protamine concentration > heparin concentration

1 mg protamine : 1 mg heparin

82
Q

Explain viscoelastic coagulation test

A

Measures all aspects of clot formation from early fibrin generation to clot retraction & fibrinolysis. Coagulation diagrams generated
- Allows for more precise blood product administration

83
Q

TEG picture

84
Q

Antiplatelet agents inhibit what?

A

platelet aggregation and/or adhesion

85
Q

What are the 3 main classes of anti platelets?

A

Cyclooxygenase inhibitors
P2Y12 receptor antagonists
Platelet GIIb/IIIa R antagonists

86
Q

What do COX inhibitors do?

Examples of this with length of anti platelet effects?

A

Block Cox 1 from forming TxA₂, which is important in plt aggregation

ASA: anti-plt effects x 7-10 days after d/c
NSAIDS: anti-plt effect x 3 days

87
Q

What do P2Y12 receptors agonist do?

Examples of this with length of anti platelet effects?

A

Inhibit P2Y12-R→preventing GIIb/IIIa expression

Clopidogrel: anti-plt effects x 7 days after d/c
Ticlopidine: anti-plt effects x 14-21 days after d/c
Ticagrelor & Cangrelor: Short-acting, <24h activity

88
Q

What do Platelet GIIb/IIIa R antagonists do?

Examples?

A

prevent vWF & fibrinogen from binding to GIIb/IIIa-R

Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban

89
Q

Anticoagulants include:

A

Vitamin K antagonists
Heparin
Direct thrombin inhibitors
Direct oral antiocagulants
Direct Xa inhibitors

90
Q

What do vitamin K antagonist do?

Example of this?

Who is this the DOC for?

A

Inhibit synthesis of Vit-K dependent factors 2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S

Warfarin

Valvular a-fib and valve replacement

91
Q

Warfarin has a ____ half life (___hrs) and can take ______ days to reach therapeutic INR

Usually requires what med until therapeutic effect achieved?

A

40 hr
3-4 days

Heparin

92
Q

What does heparin do?

A

Binds to antithrombin→ directly inhibits soluble thrombin and Xa

93
Q

Describe differences in unfractionated heparin and LMWH

A

Unfractionated Heparin
- Short HL, given IV
- Fully reversable w/Protamine
- Close monitoring required

LMWH
- Longer HL, dosed BID SQ
- No coag testing needed
- Protamine only partially effective

94
Q

What is the half life of Fondaparinux?

Is protamine effective?

A

17-21 hr
No

95
Q

What do direct thrombin inhibitors do?

Examples?

A

bind/block thrombin in both soluble & fibrin-bound states

  • Hirudin
  • Argatroban
  • Bivalirudin
  • Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
96
Q

Where is hirudin naturally found?

97
Q

Agratroban info

A

synthetic, reversibly binds to thrombin. HL 45 min.
- Monitored intraop w/PTT or ACT

98
Q

Bivalirudin info

DOC for which pt?

A

synthetic, shortest HL of DTI’s
DOC for renal or liver impairment

99
Q

What was the first DOAC?

It was approved for what?

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
- direct thrombin inhibitor approved for CVA prevention and non-valvular A-fib

100
Q

What are DOACs?

A

Direct Oral Anticoagulants
- Have more predictable pharmacokinetics/dynamics
- Fewer drug interactions
- Dosed daily w/o lab monitoring

101
Q

DOAC have an efficacy similar to ____, but a much shorter half life

It has fewer _____, _____, and lower _____ than this drug.

A

Warfarin

Fewer embolic events, intracranial hemorrhages, and lower mortality than warfarin

102
Q

What are direct Xa inhibitors?

A

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto), Apixaban (Eliquis), Edoxaban (Savaysa)

103
Q

What are thrombolytics used for?

A

Used to dissolve blood clots
- Most are serine proteases that convert plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrinogen to fibrin

104
Q

What are the 2 categories of thrombolytics?

A

Fibrin-Specific: Altepase (tPA), Reteplase, Tenecteplase
Non-Fibrin-Specific: Streptokinase * not widely used d/t allergic reactions

105
Q

Surgery is contraindicated within ______ days of thrombolytic treatment

106
Q

Absolute and relative contraindications for thrombolytics picture

107
Q

What are procoagulants used for?
What are the 2 classes?

A

Used to mitigate blood loss
Antifibrinolytics & Factor Replacements

108
Q

What are the 2 subclasses of antifibrinolytics?

A

Lysine analogues: Epsilon-amino-caproic acid (EACA) & Tranexamic Acid (TXA)
Binds & inhibits plasminogen from binding to fibrin→impairing fibrinolysis

SERPIN: Aprotinin (removed from market d/t renal & cardio toxicity)

109
Q

What are the 4 types of factors replacements (procoagulant)?

A

Recombinant VIIa (RfVIIa): ↑’s thrombin generation via intrinsic & extrinsic paths

Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC): contain vitamin-K factors

Fibrinogen Concentrate: derived from pooled plasma. Standard concentration.

Cryoprecipitate & FFP: Cheaper & contain more coag factors, but less specific composition

110
Q

Preop guidelines for warfarin

A

low rx pts should d/c 5 days prior to surgery & restart 12-24h postop
high rx pts should stop 5 days prior & bridge w/UFH or LMWH

111
Q

Preop guidelines for heparin

A

UFH should be d/c’d 4-6h prior to surgery & resumed (no bolus) ≥12h postop
LWMH should be d/c’d 24h prior to surgery & resumed 24h postop

112
Q

Preop guidelines for aspirin

A

mod/high rx pts- current recommendation is to continue ASA
low rx pts- stop 7-10 days prior to surgery

113
Q

Pts post coronary stent placement anticoagulant pre op guidelines

A

Bare-metal stents→ delay elective surgery 6 weeks after placement
Drug-eluding stents→ delay elective surgery 6 months after placement

114
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia on anticoags chart

115
Q

Why would emergent reversal of warfarin be required?

What does this include?

A

excessive bleeding or emergent surgery

Prothrombin Complex Concentrates: DOC for emergent coumadin reversal
- Vit K to restore liver carboxylation of vit K-dep factors for more sustained correction

116
Q

Is there a reversal for direct thrombin inhibitors?

What is the exception?

A

Noreversal for most, however, HL relatively short

The DOAC Dabigatran (Pradaxa) does have an antidote –Idarucizumab

117
Q

What can you use to reverse DOAC factor Xa inhibitors?

A

Andexanet, a derivative of factor Xa

118
Q

Common anticoags with lab monitoring chart