Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CAE > KA 350 Written > Flashcards

KA 350 Written Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The wingspan of the King Air 350 is ____ feet.

a. 55 ft. 4 in
b. 57 ft 11 in
c. 47 ft 9 in

A

b. 57 ft 11 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Electrical power for the Emergency Exit Signs are provided through:

a. Battery Bus
b. Triple Fed Bus
c. Dual Fed Bus
d. Four self-contained C-cell alkaline batteries

A

d. Four self-contained C-cell alkaline batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What normally terminates an engine start sequence?

a. Motive flow pressure switch
b. Start disengage button
c. Start switch moved to off at 50% N1

A

c. Start switch moved to off at 50% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Loss of one inverter causes which of the following conditions?

a. No loss of aircraft flight instruments
b. No adverse condition as the 350 has no inverters for AC avionics systems
c. A red warning annunciator and loss of appropriate AC bus equipment

A

c. A red warning annunciator and loss of appropriate AC bus equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Normal generator voltage output is ____ VDC.

a. 24.0
b. 28.25
c. 28.75

A

b. 28.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. An adequate ground power unit shall be capable of delivering ____ amps continuously.

a. 225
b. 300
c. 1000

A

b. 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. When should engine oil be checked for an accurate quantity reading?

a. During preflight inspection
b. Within 15-20 minutes after engine shutdown
c. Within 30 minutes after engine shutdown

A

b. Within 15-20 minutes after engine shutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. If the start switch is left in the IGNITION and ENGINE START position, which of the following cannot be activated?

a. Auxiliary fuel transfer
b. Auto-Ignition
c. Generator
d. a and b

A

c. Generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A portable fire extinguisher is in the cockpit ____.

a. under the copilot’s seat
b. under the pilot’s seat
c. behind the copilot’s seat

A

a. under the copilot’s seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is used as a variable force to counteract the spring-fixed force to adjust propeller blade angle?

a. Bleed air
b. Hydraulic fluid
c. Governor boosted engine oil

A

c. Governor boosted engine oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What will occur with a failure of the primary governor oil pump?

a. Propeller overspeed
b. Propeller feathers
c. Either a or b depending on circumstances

A

b. Propeller feathers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What mechanism controls propeller speed in the event the propeller becomes fixed-pitch?

a. Overspeed governor
b. Fuel-topping governor
c. Primary governor

A

b. Fuel-topping governor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The CROSSFEED light illuminates when the ____.

a. crossfeed valve is in the open position
b. motive flow valve cycles from one position to another
c. crossfeed switch is placed either left or right
d. both a and c

A

a. crossfeed valve is in the open position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Maximum fuel imbalance is ____ pounds.

a. 300
b. 1000
c. 100

A

a. 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of the braking system?

a. A shuttle-valve prevents both pilots from applying brakes simultaneously.
b. Pressure from either pilot’s master cylinders can be used to set the parking brake.
c. The power brakes will operate normally without the anti-skid function.

A

b. Pressure from either pilot’s master cylinders can be used to set the parking brake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Upon gear retraction, electrical power is removed from the power-pack by which of the following?

a. After a 14 second time delay
b. After contact is made with all three uplock switches
c. When hydraulic pressure reaches 2775 PSI
d. Either a or c

A

d. Either a or c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the pilot’s electric trim switch?

a. The pilot’s electric trim switch overrides the copilot’s electric trim switch
b. Moving either side of the split switch activates the electric trim
c. The copilot’s electric trim switch overrides the pilot’s electric trim switch

A

a. The pilot’s electric trim switch overrides the copilot’s electric trim switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs when the flaps are extended beyond 40% with the landing gear up?

a. The landing gear warning horn can be silenced
b. The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced
c. The landing gear warning horn sounds only if aircraft is below 150 KIAS

A

b. The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. How does the rudder boost system detect an engine power loss?

a. Pneumatic pressure transducers detect a loss of bleed air in the associated pneumatic line
b. Engine torque gages are monitored and rudder boost initiated at 50% torque indication
c. Engine torque meter oil pressure is compared and rudder boost initiated after 30% torque differential

A

c. Engine torque meter oil pressure is compared and rudder boost initiated after 30% torque differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Yaw damp must be on and operative for operations at or above ____ feet.

a. 5,000 AGL
b. 5,000 MSL (350)
c. 19,000 MSL with aft body strakes
d. either b or c

A

d. either b or c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Under what condition is rudder boost required?

a. All operations above 5000 feet MSL
b. When autopilot is inoperative
c. For all operations

A

c. For all operations

22
Q
  1. When conducting operations in icing conditions, the engine anti-ice system should be activated ____

a. at outside temperature of +5*C, or less, when flight free from visible moisture cannot be assured.
b. after encountering visible moisture.
c. only on by main system

A

a. at outside temperature of +5*C, or less, when flight free from visible moisture cannot be assured.

23
Q
  1. The minimum authorized temperature allowed for operation of the surface deice boots is:

a. -40F
b. -40C
c. -53.9*C
d. either a or b

A

d. either a or b

24
Q
  1. N1 is required to engage the air conditioner compressor clutch.

a. High idle
b. 60%
c. 62%

A

c. 62%

25
Q
  1. Where should the pressurization controller be set for landing?

a. 500 feet above field elevation
b. field elevation
c. 500 feet above field pressure altitude

A

c. 500 feet above field pressure altitude

26
Q
  1. What three modes of operation do the crew masks include?

a. Normal, 100%, Emergency
b. 100%, Auto, Normal
c. Emergency, 100%, Auto

A

a. Normal, 100%, Emergency

27
Q
  1. When the Bus Sense switch is tested during the Electrical System Check, 24 volts are observed on the Center bus. What would cause this?

a. The battery tie has not opened
b. This is the normal observation
c. A generator tie has not opened

A

a. The battery tie has not opened

28
Q
  1. What is the corrective action for a tripped circuit breaker?

a. Reset it once if it is essential to flight operation.
b. Never reset a tripped circuit breaker
c. Do not reset a tripped circuit breaker a second time
d. Both a and c are correct

A

d. Both a and c are correct

29
Q
  1. ENGINE FAILURE DURING FLIGHT Place the following checklist immediate action items in order (1,2,3…)

____ Firewall Valve - CLOSE
____ Prop Lever - FEATHER
____ Fire Extinguisher - AS REQUIRED
____ Condition Lever - FUEL CUTOFF

A

3 Firewall Valve - CLOSE
2 Prop Lever - FEATHER
4 Fire Extinguisher - AS REQUIRED
1 Condition Lever - FUEL CUTOFF

30
Q
  1. Although the system tested normal during the runups, only one Autofeather annunciator illuminates during takeoff.

a. Continue takeoff since the system tested normally
b. Abort the takeoff. The autofeather annunciator is not in the MEL.
c. Abort the takeoff. The 88% power lever switches were not tested during runup.

A

c. Abort the takeoff. The 88% power lever switches were not tested during runup.

31
Q
  1. If the hydraulic powerpack operates for longer than 14 seconds ____ .

a. system will overheat and hydraulic fluid is vented overboard
b. the control printed circuit board (PCB) will trip the landing gear control CB
c. the control printed circuit board (PCB) will trip the landing gear power CB
d. there is no time to delay protection.

A

b. the control printed circuit board (PCB) will trip the landing gear control CB

32
Q
  1. Vacuum has been lost. Which statement is correct concerning the pressurization system?

a. Cabin will slowly depressurize
b. Cabin will achieve maximum differential and controller will be unresponsive to commands
c. Cabin will slowly depressurize upon landing when door seal deflates
d. Both b and c are correct

A

d. Both b and c are correct

33
Q
  1. GLIDE Place the following checklist immediate action items in correct order (1, 2, 3…)

____ Props - FEATHER
____ Gear - UP
____ Airspeed - 135 KIAS
____ Flaps - UP

A

3 Props - FEATHER
1 Gear - UP
4 Airspeed - 135 KIAS
2 Flaps - UP

34
Q
  1. After accomplishing the Electrical Smoke/Fume checklist, electrical switches identified with a white circle indicate:

a. Items that have not been automatically shed
b. Items which are powered from either the Triple-Fed or Center bus
c. Items that must be turned off if not necessary
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

35
Q
  1. What is zero fuel weight?

a. Basic empty weight plus the payload limited to of 15.000 lbs.
b. Basic empty weight plus the payload limited 16,300 lbs.
c. Max takeoff weight minus payload limited 11,000 lbs.
d. The airplane ramp weight minus the weight of usable fuel on board limited to 12,500 lbs.

A

d. The airplane ramp weight minus the weight of usable fuel on board limited to 12,500 lbs.

36
Q
  1. What station is assigned to the pilot seats?

a. FS 129
b. FS 167
c. FS 258
d. FS 327

A

a. FS 129

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is an element of Takeoff Feild Length (TOFL)?

a. Distance of the runway in use.
b. Distance to accelerate and recognize an engine failure at V1 and bring the airplane to a stop.
c. An all-engine operating distance to accelerate to and rotate at Vr, then climb and accelerate in order to achieve V35 at 35 feet above the runway; plus 15%.
d. Both b and c are correct.

A

d. Both b and c are correct.

38
Q
  1. Maximum Landing Weight may be limited by:

a. Landing climb requirements
b. Normal landing distance
c. Wet runway requirements
d. a or b
e. None of the above

A

d. a or b

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is assumed by the CAE SimuFlite Landing Distance table:

a. ISA temperature
b. Paved, level, dry runway surface
c. Zero wind
d. Maximum braking after touchdown
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

40
Q
  1. Maximum Takeoff Weight may be limited by:

a. Takeoff Field Length
b. Takeoff climb requirements
c. Tire speed
d. Brake energy
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

41
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding the ground interphone system.

a. The avionics master switch must be on for operation of the ground interphone.
b. The ground interphone is automatically activated when an aviation headset is plugged into the exterior nose jacks.
c. The ground interphone is automatically disconnected when the avionics master is switched off.
d. Both b and c.

A

b. The ground interphone is automatically activated when an aviation headset is plugged into the exterior nose jacks.

42
Q
  1. Following the depletion of the standby battery, reliable attitude reference is available from the AI-804 for up to ____ minutes after the flag falls into view.

a. 9
b. 15
c. 25
d. 30

A

a. 9

43
Q
  1. What does illumination of a single GEN TIE OPEN annunciator indicate?

a. A generator is offline
b. Respective generator bus has been isolated from center bus
c. Battery has been completely isolated.

A

b. Respective generator bus has been isolated from center bus

44
Q
  1. The respective L/R Fuel QTY annunciator illuminates when the associated nacelle quantity decreases to approximately ____.

a. 600 gal.
b. 365 lbs.
c. 300 lbs.
d. 30 minutes at max continuous power

A

d. 30 minutes at max continuous power

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is true concerning the landing gear system?

a. Engine driven hydraulic pumps power the landing gear system
b. One electrical hydraulic pump powers the landing gear system
c. An emergency blow-down bottle is used in the event or normal gear system failure.
d. One electrical motor mechanically powers the landing gear system

A

b. One electrical hydraulic pump powers the landing gear system

46
Q
  1. What position should the oxygen mask selector be left in following preflight inspection?

a. Normal
b. 100%
c. Emergency
d. Either a. or b.

A

b. 100%

47
Q
  1. Altitude limiters begin closing the outflow/safety valves at approximately what cabin altitude?

a. 10,000 ft.
b. 12,000 ft.
c. 13,000 ft.
d. 15,000 ft.

A

c. 13,000 ft.

48
Q
  1. What is the minimum altitude the autopilot can be used on approach?

a. 100 feet AGL
b. 200 feet AGL
c. 500 feet AGL
d. 1000 feet AGL

A

b. 200 feet AGL

49
Q
  1. Activating which of the following will NOT disconnect the autopilot?

a. Red button on the yoke
b. Go-around button on the throttles
c. Trim switches on the yoke
d. Turning off EFIS switches

A

d. Turning off EFIS switches

50
Q
  1. When landing in a single engine situation:

a. Full reverse can be used on the operating engine
b. Reverse can be used on the operating engine on dry pavement
c. Do not use reverse thrust with one engine inoperative and care must be exercised when using single engine ground fine on surfaces with reduced traction.

A

c. Do not use reverse thrust with one engine inoperative and care must be exercised when using single engine ground fine on surfaces with reduced traction.

CAE (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions