June 10-20 Flashcards

1
Q

What are medications that can cause lithium toxicity?

A

Anything that decreases Renal Perfusion

Thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors

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2
Q

A patient comes in to the ED c/o worsening N/V/D with associated confusion and agitation. She has a hx of bipolar disorder that has been controlled with treatment. She has recently had a flare up of tension headaches and has been taken ibuprofen for the headaches. What is the best course of action for this patient?

A

IV hydration

She has sx of lithium toxicity

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3
Q

What tracts are affected with a subacute combined degeneration?

A

Dorsal Column: Loss of position and vibration sense

Spinocerebellar tract: ataxia

Lateral corticospinal tract: Spastic paresis

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4
Q

What is the mutation in X-linked agammaglobulinemia and what does it cause on a cellular level?

A

BTK gene mutation

Impaired B cell maturation and Ig production

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5
Q

An 8 month old male is brought to the pediatrician by mother. She states that the patient has had recurrent sinopulmonary infections and has had “gastric issues all his life”. On examination, the patient has smaller than normal tonsils.

On serology, the patient has decreased B cells and normal T cells. What do you suspect?

A

X linked agammaglobulinemia

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6
Q

What are the sx of X liked agammaglobulinemia?

A

Recurrent sinopulmonary infections

Chronic enteroviral infection

Small or absent lymphoid tissue

On serology, there will be decreased Igs and B cells

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7
Q

What bacteria commonly cause septic abortions?

A

Enterobacteriaceae
Group A strep
Staph aureus

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8
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a septic abortion?

A

Fever
Lower abdominal pain
Malodorous purulent cervical discharge
Tender uterus with dilated cervix

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9
Q

Which infectious agents can cause reactive arthritis?

A
Chlamydia 
Salmonella 
Shigella
Yersinia 
Campylobacter 
Cdiff
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10
Q

What are the symptoms of reactive arthritis?

A
Oligoarthritis 
Dactylitis 
Enthesitis 
Conjunctivitis, anterior uveitis
Urethritis, cervicitis, prostatitis
Oral ulcers
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11
Q

A pregnant woman comes in with HTN, RUQ pain, and N/V.

Labs show elevated liver enzymes, low platelets, and signs of anemia with some proteinuria, what do you suspect?

A

HELLP syndrome

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12
Q

What is the MOA of metformin?

A

Inhibits the mitochondrial glycerophosphatase dehydrogenase

Upregulates AMP activated protein kinase

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13
Q

What are the metabolic effects of metformin?

A

Decreased hepatic glucose production (gluconeo)

Decreased intestinal glucose absorption

Increased peripheral glucose uptake

Decreased lipogenesis

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14
Q

What are the adverse effects of metformin?

A

Diarrhea
Lactic Acidosis
Vitamin B12 def

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15
Q

How do bulk forming laxatives ease constipation?

A

Binds luminal water and decreases the consistency of the stool

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16
Q

What are the side effects of bulk forming laxatives?

A

Flatulence and abdominal distension

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17
Q

What is the MOA of osmotic laxatives?

A

Draws water into the lumen

Can cause electrolyte issues and bloating

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18
Q

How do the surfactant laxatives work?

A

Decreases stool surface tension and lets water enter the stool

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19
Q

What kind of laxatives activates enteric nerves in the myenteric plexus to stimulate peristalsis?

A

Stimulant laxatives

20
Q

Which types of laxatives are the following? Polyethylene glycol, magnesium hydroxide, lactulose

A

Osmotic laxatives

21
Q

What type of laxative is docusate? How does she work?

A

Surfactant laxative

Decreases stool surface tension which allows water to enter the stool

22
Q

Bisacodyl and senna are examples of what kind of laxative? What are the common side effects?

A

Stimulant laxatives

Can cause abdominal cramping and electrolyte issues

23
Q

What is the chloride channel agonist laxative?

A

Lubriprostone

24
Q

What is methylnaltrexone?

A

It is a peripherally acting mu opioid receptor antagonist

25
What medications are known for causing QT prolongation?
Macrolides and fluoroquinolones Antimetics Azoles Antipsychotics, TCAs, methadone Quinidine: Class IA Dofetilide: Class III
26
What would you expect to see on the physical examination of someone who has bulemia?
``` Hypotension Tachycardia Dental enamel erosion Dorsal hand calluses Parotid gland swelling ```
27
Prochlorperazine and metoclopramide are examples of what anti-emetic?
Dopamine receptor antagonist Used for chemotherapy induced emesis
28
What are the neurokinin 1 receptor antagonists?
Aprepitant | Fosaprepitant
29
What are the clinical features of acute adrenal insufficiency
``` hypotension and shock N/V abdominal pain Fever Generalized weakness ```
30
How do you treat acute adrenal insufficiency
hydrocortisone and dexamethasone Rapid IV volume repletion
31
What do the toxins of Cdiff effect?
Toxins A and B disrupt the cytoskeleton integrity and stimulate inflammation Forms pseudomembranes
32
What two organsims toxins act by inactivating EF2 via ribosylation and inhibits protein cell synthesis
Corynebacterium diphtheria | Pseudomonas aeruginosa
33
What does the pertussis toxin do?
Disinhibits adenylate cyclase via Gi ADP riboslyation increasing cAMP production in the host cell Causes increased histamine sensitivity and phagocyte dysfunction
34
How does the cholera toxin work?
Activates adenylate cyclase via Gs ADP ribosylation Increases cAMP production in the host cell Secretory diarrhea, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances
35
What are the most common pathogens causing nosocomial bloodstream infections?
Coagulase negative staphylococci Staph aureus Enterococci Candid species
36
What are the effects of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn?
Abnormal persistence of elevated fetal pulmonary vascular resistance Right to left shunting across ductus arteriosus
37
What are the risk factors for persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn?
Lung hypoplasia Meconium aspiration syndrome Infection
38
What are the clinical examination findings in an infact with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn?
Decreased postductal relative to preductal oxygen saturation Respiratory distress and cyanosis Prominent S2
39
What are medications that increase the methadone effect?
Fluconazole, voriconazole, ketoconazole Cipro, clarithromycin Cimetidine Fluvoxamine
40
What antiseizure medications block NA channels?
Phenytoin Carbamazepine
41
What antiseizure medication blocks Na channels and increases GABA levels?
Valproic acid
42
What antiseizure drugs increases GABA a action?
Benzodiazepine | Phenobarbital
43
What antiseizure medication modulates GABA and glutamate release?
Levetiracetam
44
what antiseizure medication blocks T type Ca channels
Ethosuximide
45
What enzymes require biotin as a cofactor?
Pyruvate carboxylase Acetyl CoA carboxylase propionyl CoA carboxylase