Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

kaps > Joyce notes > Flashcards

Joyce notes Flashcards

1
Q

Transdermal Systems Should Be Changed every 7 days

a. clonidine patch
b. estradiol patch
c. fentany patch

A

a. clonidine patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Transdermal Systems Should Be Changed every once - twice weekly ( depending on brand of production)

a. clonidine patch
b. estradiol patch
c. fentany patch

A

b. estradiol patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Transdermal Systems Should Be Changed every 3 days

a. clonidine patch
b. estradiol patch
c. fentanyl patch

A

c. fentanyl patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how frequent does lidocaine patch should be changed

a. everyday
b. twice weekly
c. every 3 days

A

a. everyday( remove for 12 hours each night)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how frequent does nicotine patch should be changed

a. everyday
b. twice weekly
c. every 3 days

A

a. everyday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how frequent does nitroglycerin patch should be changed

a. everyday
b. twice weekly
c. every 3 days

A

a. everyday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how frequent does oxybutynin patch should be changed

a. everyday
b. twice weekly
c. every 3 days

A

b. twice weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how frequent does scopolamine patch should be changed

a. everyday
b. twice weekly
c. every 3 days

A

c. every 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how many mg of epinephrine in 1 mL of a 1:1000 solution?

a. 1
b. 40
c.154

A

a. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how many mEq of potassium in 30 mL of a 10% potassium chloride solution.

a. 1
b. 40
c.154

A

b. 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how many % solution of sodium bicarbonate contains 1 mEq each of sodium and bicarbonate ions per
mL?

a. 8.4
b. 154
c. 50

A

a. 8.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how many mEq of sodium in 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride?

a. 8.4
b. 154
c. 50

A

b. 154

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how many grams of dextrose in 1000 mL of D5W?

a. 8.4
b. 154
c. 50

A

c. 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

There are ____ calories in 1000 ml of D50W (500 grams of dextrose).

a. 1700
b. 400,000
c. 0.4

A

a. 1700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

There are ____ units of penicillin in 250 mg.

a. 1700
b. 400,000
c. 0.4

A

b. 400,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A nitroglycerin ____ mg sublingual tablet contains 1/150 grains.

a. 1700
b. 400,000
c. 0.4

A

c. 0.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

vitamin c

a. ascorbic acid
b. cyanocobalamin
c. niacin
d. thiamine

A

a. ascorbic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

vitamin B12

a. ascorbic acid
b. cyanocobalamin
c. niacin
d. thiamine

A

b. cyanocobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

nicotinic acid

a. ascorbic acid
b. cyanocobalamin
c. niacin
d. thiamine

A

c. niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

vitamin B 1

a. ascorbic acid
b. cyanocobalamin
c. niacin
d. thiamine

A

d. thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causes scurvy

a. vitamin C
b. vitamin B 12
c. folic acid

A

a. vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causes pernicious anemia

a. vitamin C
b. vitamin B 12
c. folic acid

A

b. vitamin B 12 ( cyanocobalamin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causes megaloblastic anemia

a. vitamin C
b. vitamin B 12
c. folic acid

A

c. folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causes pellegra

a. niacin
b. thiamine
c. vitamin D

A

a. niacin ( nicotinic acid )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causes beriberi

a. niacin
b. thiamine
c. vitamin D

A

b. thiamine (vitamin B1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causes wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

a. niacin
b. thiamine
c. vitamin D

A

b. thaimine (vitamin B1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

deficiency of this vitamin causes rickets

a. niacin
b. thiamine
c. vitamin D

A

c. vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.
vistide

a. cidofovir
b. ganciclovir
c. foscarnet

A

a. cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.
cytovene

a. cidofovir
b. ganciclovir
c. foscarnet

A

b. ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.
foscavir

a. cidofovir
b. ganciclovir
c. foscarnet

A

c. foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

vitravene

a. fomivirsen
b. Interferon alfa-2b
c. Lamivudine

A

a. fomivirsen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

Intron A

a. fomivirsen
b. Interferon alfa-2b
c. Lamivudine

A

b. interferon alfa-2b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

Epivir HBV

a. fomivirsen
b. Interferon alfa-2b
c. Lamivudine

A

c. Lamivudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

zovirax

a. acyclovir
b. famciclovir
c. valacyclovir

A

a. acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

famvir

a. acyclovir
b. famciclovir
c. valacyclovir

A

b. famciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

valtrex

a. acyclovir
b. famciclovir
c. valacyclovir

A

c. valacyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

symmetrel

a. amantadine
b. rimantadine
c. oseltamivir
d. zanamivir

A

a. amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

Flumadine

a. amantadine
b. rimantadine
c. oseltamivir
d. zanamivir

A

b. rimantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

tamiflu

a. amantadine
b. rimantadine
c. oseltamivir
d. zanamivir

A

c. oseltamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

Relenza

a. amantadine
b. rimantadine
c. oseltamivir
d. zanamivir

A

d. zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

match the brand name to its generic name.

rebetron

a. ribavirin
b. rimantadine
c. oseltamivir
d. zanamivir

A

a. ribavirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit cytomegalovirus

a. Cidofovir (Vistide)
Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
Foscarnet (Foscavir)
Fomivirsen (Vitravene)

b. Adefovir dipivoxil
Interferon alfa-2b (Intron A)
Lamivudine (Epivir HBV)

A

a. Cidofovir (Vistide)
Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
Foscarnet (Foscavir)
Fomivirsen (Vitravene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit hepatitis B virus

a. Cidofovir (Vistide)
Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
Foscarnet (Foscavir)
Fomivirsen (Vitravene)

b. Adefovir dipivoxil
Interferon alfa-2b (Intron A)
Lamivudine (Epivir HBV)

A

b. Adefovir dipivoxil
Interferon alfa-2b (Intron A)
Lamivudine (Epivir HBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit hepatiits C virus

a. Interferon alfa-2b/ribavirin
Pegylated interferon

b. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Famciclovir (Famvir)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

A

a. Interferon alfa-2b/ribavirin
Pegylated interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit herpes simplex virus?

a. Interferon alfa-2b/ribavirin
Pegylated interferon

b. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Famciclovir (Famvir)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

A

b. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Famciclovir (Famvir)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit influenza A virus

a. Amantadine (Symmetrel)
Rimantadine (Flumadine)

b. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Famciclovir (Famvir)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

A

a. Amantadine (Symmetrel)
Rimantadine (Flumadine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit
Influenza A and B virus

a. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
Zanamivir (Relenza)

b. Interferon alfa-2b/ribavirin
Pegylated interferon

A

a. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
Zanamivir (Relenza)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit Respiratory syncytial virus

a. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Famciclovir (Famvir)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

b. Ribavirin (Rebetron)

A

b. Ribavirin (Rebetron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what group of drugs are use to inhibit Varicella zoster virus

a. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Famciclovir (Famvir)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

b. Ribavirin (Rebetron)

A

a. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Famciclovir (Famvir)
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Emulsions made with tweens are usually
A. unstable
B. w/o
C. o/w
D. clear
E. reversible

A

*(C) Tweens favor o/w emulsions because of high HLB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following factors affect the distribution of a drug?
A. Lipid solubility
B. Plasma protein binding
C. Polarity
D. Molecular size
E. All of the above

A

*(E) All of the factors affect drug distribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The rate of zero-order reactions
A. changes constantly
B. is independent of temperature
C. is independent of concentration
D. holds only for light-catalyzed reactions
E. holds only for radioactive compounds

A

*(C) All other orders are dependent on concentration of one or more substances present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Spans and tweens are
A. highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrides
B. phospholipids
C. polyoxyalkalene derivatives
D. glycosides
E. none of the above

A

*(C) Spans merely contain fewer oxyethylene groups than tweens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lidocaine HCl is not administered orally because it is
A. ineffective by this route
B. too acidic
C. too toxic by this route
D. a cause of arrhythmias
E. unstable

A

*(A) Oral doses are metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The two major properties of drugs that are usually modified by complexation are
A. odor and taste
B. taste and solubility
C. chemical structure and solubility
D. chemical structure and stability
E. stability and solubility

A

*(E) Stability and solubility properties may be changed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the processes of biotransformation and
elimination?
A. High blood levels of drug
B. Low blood levels of drug
C. Synergism
D. Potentiation
E. Failure to attain diffusion equilibrium

A

*(E) Drugs will be changed or eliminated before diffusion is attained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In radiopharmacy, the term rem means
A. radiations per millisecond
B. radiations per minute
C. roentgen-equivalent-man
D. external roentgens per minute
E. roentgen exposure per minute

A

*(C) The term rem is a measure of exposure to radioactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

pH is
A. not temperature dependent
B. a measure of acidity
C. the same as pOH
D. high for acids
E. none of the above

A

*(B) pH is the negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration (or hydronium ion concentration).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following types of tissues frequently stores drugs?
A. Fatty tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Protein tissue
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

(E) Muscle tissue is the only one of the three types of tissue that seldom stores drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?
A. Aspirin
B. Penicillin G
C. Acetaminophen
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Chlortetracycline

A

*(B) Hydrolysis of penicillin G is rapid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Precipitated sulfur is often incorporated into ointments to be used as a
A. parasiticide (e.g., for scabies)
B. emollient
C. keratolytic
D. A and C only
E. A, B, and C

A

*(D) Ten percent sulfur paste or ointment is used as an alternative treatment for Sarcoptes scabiei.
Sulfur is also used as an active keratolytic. At full strength, it is used alone or in combination with other
keratolytics, such as salicylic acid. If a patient’s skin demonstrates intolerance to sulfur, the concentration
should be reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Solutions that contain bacteriostatic agents
A. cannot be tested for sterility
B. must be cultured on agar plates for sterility tests
C. must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for sterility tests
D. do not require a sterility test
E. are none of the above

A

*(C) If the solutions are not diluted, a false-negative result is common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A source of anticarcinogenic drugs is
A. belladonna
B. nux vomica
C. vinca rosea
D. cascara
E. digitalis

A

*(C) Vinblastine and vincristine are the drugs obtained from vinca rosea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

If a central nervous system (CNS) drug is extensively ionized at the pH of blood, it will
A. penetrate the blood-brain barrier slowly
B. penetrate the blood-brain barrier rapidly
C. not penetrate the blood-brain barrier
D. be eliminated slowly
E. not be distributed to any tissue sites

A

*(A) The drug must be highly un-ionized to penetrate the blood-brain barrier; this process is quite slow
in general.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pharmacists should caution patients who are taking niacin that this drug
A. stains the urine bright red
B. causes ringing in the ears
C. causes muscular weakness
D. should be taken before meals
E. should be taken with meals

A

*(E) Niacin may cause GI upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If a drug has a biological half-life of 9.6 days, the best dosing interval would be
A. weekly
B. biweekly
C. semiweekly
D. qid
E. daily

A

*(E) Daily dosing is necessary to maintain therapeutic level. The appropriate dosing interval is
approximately 2.5 times the half-life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

First-order half-life is equal to
A. 1/k
B. k
C. 0.693/k
D. 2k + 1
E. none of the above

A

*(C) The half-life is equal to 0.693/k in first-order kinetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A prescription calls for 25 mEq of potassium chloride. How many grams of KCl (MW 74.6) are
needed?
A. 7.46 g
B. 0.746 g
C. 8.86 g
D. 1.86 g
E. 0.186 g

A

*(D) 25 × 74.6 ÷ 1000 = 1.86 g.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

An IV order requires 5 million units of sodium penicillin G to be added to 100 mL of normal saline.
How many mEq of sodium are present in this solution?
A. 154 mEq
B. 10 mEq
C. 8.4 mEq
D. 25.4 mEq
E. 1620 mEq

A

*(D) Penicillin G sodium contains 2 mEq of sodium per 1 million units of penicillin G; 100 ml of
normal saline contains 15.4 mEq of sodium (154 mEq/liter).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

An order calls for 500 ml of a solution of potassium sulfate to be made so that it contains 10 mEq of
K+. How many grams of potassium sulfate are required?
A. 0.440 g
B. 4.44 g
C. 0.044 g
D. 0.870 g
E. 8.70 g

A

*(D) 87 g ÷ xg = 1 Eq/500 ml per 0.01 Eq/500 cc; x = 0.87.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How many milliliters of a 10% KCl (MW 74.6) solution contain 5.0 mEq of K+?
A. 2.10 mL
B. 21.0 mL
C. 3.73 mL
D. 37.3 mL
E. 0.373 mL

A

*(C) 74.6 × 0.05 = 3.73.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

One hundred milligrams (100 mg) of a drug are given as an IV bolus. The drug fits a onecompartment, first-order pharmacokinetic model. The volume of distribution is 20 L. The plasma
concentration immediately after administration (at time 0) is

A. 20 mg/L
B. 10 mg/cc
C. 2 mg/cc
D. 5 mg/cc
E. 5 mg/L

A

*(E) The volume of distribution is the proportionality constant between amount of drug in the body
and plasma concentration. Immediately after administration of a drug by IV bolus, the amount of drug in
the body equals the intravenous dose divided by the volume of distribution. Plasma concentration at time
0 (C0) = IV dose ÷ volume of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Most drugs are
A. strong acids or bases
B. weak acids or bases
C. nonelectrolytes
D. highly ionic
E. none of the above

A

*(B) Most drugs are weak acids or weak bases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The major mechanism of degradation of drugs in the GI tract is
A. oxidation
B. hydrolysis
C. acetylation
D. conjugation
E. reduction

A

*(B) Hydrolysis occurs to some degree with many drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Sodium bicarbonate is compatible with which of the following IV medications?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Calcium salts
C. Atropine
D. Catecholamines
E. All of the above

A

*(A) Due to its high pH, sodium bicarbonate is incompatible with many common IV medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The pKw of water at 25°C is
A. 7
B. 14
C. 1 × 10–14
D. 1 × 10–7
E. 1

A

*(B) This ion product is obtained by adding the pH and pOH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following is not a major pathway or type of biotransformation?
A. Oxidation
B. Deamination
C. Reduction
D. Hydrolysis
E. Conjugation

A

*(A) Oxidation pathways are less common in vivo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When making pharmacokinetic recommendations in aminoglycoside dosing, if you want to
decrease only the trough concentration, you would
A. decrease the dose
B. take the trough measurement 3 hours before the next dose
C. lengthen the dosing interval
D. increase the dose
E. none of the above

A

*(C) Trough concentrations are indicative of drug accumulation. To decrease only the trough level and
maintain peak concentrations, lengthening the dosing interval is the method of choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a 6-year-old child who weighs 44 lb?
A. 0.003 g
B. 0.033 g
C. 0.010 g
D. 0.100 g
E. 0.05 g

A

*(C) 0.5 mg ÷ x mg = 2.2 lb/44 lb; x = (10) mg (0.01 g). (Age not relevant).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

If a prescription order requires 30 gs of concentrated sulfuric acid (density is 1.8 g/mL), what
volume should the pharmacist measure?
A. 1.67 mL
B. 18 mL
C. 30 mL
D. 16.67 mL
E. 166.7 mL

A

(D) Volume = weight ÷ density. Thus, volume = 30 g ÷ 1.8 g/mL = 16.67 mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Calculate the weight of 25 mL of hydrochloric acid whose density is 1.18 g/mL.
A. 29.5 g
B. 2.95 g
C. 0.295 g
D. 295 g
E. None of the above

A

*(A) Weight = density × volume. Thus, weight = 1.18 g/mL × 25 mL = 29.5 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In most biotransformation reactions, the metabolite of a drug
A. is more polar than the parent compound
B. is more lipid-soluble than the parent compound
C. has a longer t1/2 than the parent compound
D. is all of the above
E. is none of the above

A

*(A) For most drugs, biotransformation results in conversion to a more polar compound, which is more
easily cleared by the kidney.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine
A. t1/2
B. body clearance
C. fraction protein bound
D. volume of distribution
E. all of the above

A

*(D) The optimal loading dose is easily estimated by use of the following formula:
Loading dose = desired plasma concentration × volume of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Convert 60 grams to grains
A. 9240 grains
B. 924 grains
C. 9.24 grains
D. 0.924 grains
E. 0.0924 grains

A

*(B) 15.4 grains = 1 gram. Thus, 60 grams × 15.4 grains/gram = 924 grains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Radioactive decay follows a
A. mixed-order rate
B. fractional-order rate
C. zero-order rate
D. first-order rate
E. second-order rate

A

*(D) It is a classic type of first-order reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The HLB system is used to classify
A. flavors
B. colors
C. surfactants
D. organic ring structures
E. perfumes

A

*(C) It is a measure of oil and water balance in emulsions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Alpha particles are very similar to
A. hydrogen atoms
B. helium atoms
C. neutrons
D. protons
E. electrons

A

*(B) Alpha particles and helium atoms have the same mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

To achieve the same steady-state plasma concentration (for a drug that is excreted by the kidney) in
renal failure patients as in patients with normal renal function, you should
A. increase the dosing interval
B. decrease the dose
C. adjust both the dose and the dosing interval
D. do any of the above, depending on the pharmacodynamic properties of the drug
E. not adjust the dosing regimen unless the patient shows signs of toxicity

A

*(D) Both adjustment of dosage interval and dosage size reduction are acceptable methods for
decreasing drug accumulation in patients with renal failure. The two methods may be used in
combination, depending on the dosage forms available, the therapeutic range, and convenience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The most common disintegrator in compressed tablets is
A. dextrose
B. lactose
C. starch
D. potassium bitartrate
E. powdered sucrose

A

*(C) Corn or potato starch is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Freons are
A. alkanes
B. alkenes
C. alkynes
D. fluorinated hydrocarbons
E. a mixture of CO2 and air

A

(D) These fluorinated hydrocarbons are used as propellants in aerosols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric
patients?
A. Reduced enzyme activity
B. Reduced kidney function
C. Enhanced absorption
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C

A

*(D) The liver and kidneys commonly become less functional in the elderly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Convert 2 pints 3 fluid ounces into mL.
A. 1500 mL
B. 1050 mL
C. 150 mL
D. 105 mL
E. 10.5 mL

A

*(B) Assume 16 oz/pint, and 30 mL/oz. Thus,
2 pt × 16 oz/pt = 32 oz
(32 oz × 30 mL/oz) + (3 oz × 30 mL/oz) = 960 mL + 90 mL
= 1050 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Tablet hardness range is normally
A. 0.2 to 0.5 kg
B. 0.5 to 1.0 kg
C. 1.0 to 2.0 kg
D. 2.0 to 3.5 kg
E. 3.5 to 7.0 kg

A

*(E) Less than 3.5 kg hardness tablets would cause fragmentation during shipping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

An antidote for heparin overdosage is
A. protamine sulfate
B. BAL
C. atropine
D. calcium salts
E. dicumarol

A

*(A) Protamine sulfate is the primary antidote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which of the following may be used as plasma expanders?
A. Sodium salts
B. Dextrans
C. Mannitol
D. Calcium salts
E. Prostaglandins

A

(B) Dextrans are inert and soluble, so they cause no problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The dose of a drug is 0.6 mg. How many doses are contained in 96 mg of the drug?
A. 16
B. 160
C. 360
D. 600
E. None of the above

A

(B) 96 mg ÷ 0.6 mg/dose =160 doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The expression ppm as used in compounding prescriptions most often is defined as
A. parts per million
B. parts per mL
C. parts per mole
D. pieces per million
E. parts per molar

A

*(A) The term ppm is typically used in expressing concentrations of very dilute preparations and is
defined as “parts per million.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

GMP regulations (USFDA) primarily apply to
A. controlled drugs
B. wholesalers
C. pharmaceutical manufacturers
D. hospital pharmacy
E. community pharmacy

A

*(C) These are good manufacturing practices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

pH is equivalent to pka at
A. pH of 7
B. pH of 1
C. pH of 14
D. half neutralization point
E. neutralization point

A

*(D) At this point acid/base is 1.0 and log of 1 is 0; so pH = pka.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Popular theory of acids and bases is
A. Boyle’s law
B. Four Humors’ theory
C. Pythagorean theory
D. Brønsted-Lowry theory
E. Henry’s theory

A

*(D) The Brønsted-Lowry theory is the proton donor-acceptor theory of acids and bases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Salicylic acid is used primarily as a(n)
A. analgesic
B. antipyretic
C. cough suppressant
D. uricosuric agent
E. keratolytic agent

A

*(E) Salicylic acid is used in topicals to cause sloughing of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

In dosing aminoglycosides, which of the following patient populations commonly require an
extended interval (>8 hours)?
A. Elderly patients
B. Neonatal patients
C. Cystic fibrosis patients
D. A and B
E. All of the above

A

*(D) Cystic fibrosis patients commonly clear aminoglycosides very quickly and may even require
dosing intervals of every 6 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Glycerin has a specific gravity of 1.25. One gallon weighs
A. 591.25 g
B. 473 g
C. 4528.0 g
D. 128 g
E. 4800 g

A

*(C) A specific gravity of 1.25 means that 1 fluid ounce (volume) weighs 1.25 ounces (weight). In
avoirdupois measurement, 1 ounce = 28.3 grams. There are 128 ounces in 1 gallon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Vitamin K is associated with
A. pellagra
B. nerves
C. hemoglobin concentration
D. bones
E. blood clotting

A

*(E) Vitamin K is necessary for formation of prothrombin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Another name for polyethylene glycol polymers is
A. sodium alginate
B. silica gel
C. carbowax
D. Friar paste
E. none of the above

A

*(C) Carbowax is merely a trade name used for this group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which of the following is found in vitamin B12?
A. Magnesium
B. Nickel
C. Iron
D. Cobalt
E. Manganese

A

*(D) Cobalt is an element in the chemical structure of cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

–12°C is equivalent to
A. 36°F
B. 12°F
C. 10.4°F
D. 5°F
E. –2°F

A

*(C) °F = 9/5 (–12°C) + 32 = 10.4°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

One tablespoon is approximately equivalent to
A. 15 mL
B. 10 mL
C. 8 mL
D. 20 mL
E. 30 mL

A

*(A) One tablespoon is about one-half ounce, or 15 mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When describing solubility terms, >10,000 parts of solvent for 1 part of solute would be called
A. very soluble
B. soluble
C. sparingly soluble
D. slightly soluble
E. practically insoluble or insoluble

A

*(E) More than 10,000 parts of solvent per one part of solute is considered practically insoluble or
insoluble.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

The amount of 190 proof required to make 500 mL of 70% alcohol is
A. 350 mL
B. 250 mL
C. 184 mL
D. 368 mL
E. 37 mL

A

*(D) 190 proof is 95% alcohol. 70 ÷ 95 = x ÷ 500; x = 368 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which of the following dose forms is specifically covered by the Federal Hazardous Substance
Labeling Act?
A. Parenterals
B. Aerosols
C. Tinctures
D. Ophthalmic solutions
E. Nitroglycerin tablets

A

*(B) Dose forms of aerosols are covered by the Federal Hazardous Substance Labeling Act because
they are in pressurized containers, which could explode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The chemical substance used commonly in running a GI series is
A. barium sulfate
B. fluorescein dye
C. radioactive iodine
D. sodium bicarbonate
E. sodium carbonate

A

*(A) Barium sulfate creates an opaque medium for x-ray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which of the following ions plays a significant role in preventing convulsions?
A. Potassium
B. Lithium
C. Magnesium
D. Phosphorus
E. Fluoride

A

*(C) Magnesium controls convulsions by locking neuromuscular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Colleges of pharmacy are accredited by
A. the AFPE
B. the AACP
C. the ACPE
D. the NABP
E. none of the above

A

*(C) The American Council on Pharmaceutical Education accredits all schools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Denaturation of emulsions is characterized by
A. irreversible precipitation
B. reversible precipitation
C. creaming
D. changing of external phase
E. C and D

A

*(A) If creaming or reversible precipitation occurs, the emulsion can be reestablished. Change of phase
does not always result in precipitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Freeze drying is based on
A. pressure filtration
B. sublimation
C. polymerization
D. pasteurization
E. densification

A

*(B) In this process, water is sublimed from a frozen product. The other answers represent different
processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Characteristics of pyrogens include the following.
I. They usually cause a febrile reaction in humans
II. They may cause pains in the back and legs
III. They may cause chills
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) Pyrogens can commonly cause all of the symptoms listed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Lubricants in tablets serve the following functions.
I. They improve the flow of tablet granulation
II. They prevent adhesion to dies and punches
III. They facilitate ejection from die cavity
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) Lubricants such as talc or stearates facilitate all three functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are
A. hard capsules
B. soft gelatin capsules
C. tablets
D. bulk powders
E. divided powders

A

*(C) Tablets comprise about 75% of all solid dosage forms, followed by hard capsules (23%), and soft
elastic capsules (2%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which of the following is not a naturally occurring emulsifier?
A. Acacia
B. Cholesterol
C. Gelatin
D. Veegum
E. Tragacanth

A

*(D) Veegum is a synthetic hydrophilic thickening agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The purpose of sorbitol in formulations of soft gelatin capsules is as a(n)
A. plasticizer
B. disintegrating agent
C. lubricant
D. thickener
E. emulsifier

A

*(A) Sorbitol renders the shells elastic. It can also be used as a thickener or emulsifier, but only in
liquid dose forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Hard gelatin capsules for human use are available in the following sizes.
I. 1
II. 00
III. 0000
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(D) Capsules for human use are available in sizes from 000 (largest) to 5 (smallest). Size 0000 would
be too large to swallow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Ointments are typically used as
I. emollients
II. protective barriers
III. vehicles for applying drugs
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) The three applications listed are the main uses of ointment: to soften, to protect, and to serve as a
semisolid carrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A humectant retards
A. bacterial growth
B. degradation
C. surface evaporation
D. spreadability
E. all of the above

A

*(C) A humectant such as glycerin helps to retain moisture and prevent drying due to evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The Noyes-Whitney equation describes
A. zero-order kinetics
B. first-order kinetics
C. mixed-order kinetics
D. dissolution rate
E. renal clearance

A

*(D) The Noyes-Whitney equation is used to determine dissolution rate and does not describe any
other biopharmaceutical functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Which of the following properties are characteristic of flocculated particles in suspension?
A. Particles form loose aggregates
B. Rate of sedimentation is high
C. A sediment is formed rapidly
D. The sediment is loosely packed
E. All of the above

A

*(E) All of the above are characteristics of flocculated particles in a suspension. The rate of
sedimentation is high, because particles settle as a floc (a collection of particles). Although a sediment is
formed rapidly, it is loosely packed and possesses a scaffold-like structure. Because the particles do not
bond tightly, caking does not occur. The suspension may not appear uniform due to rapid sedimentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Starch is used in tabletting as a
I. binder
II. glidant
III. disintegrant
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) Starch in the form of a paste can serve as a binder. It also exhibits glidant properties and can help
with disintegration when it comes in contact with body fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Gums are used in tabletting primarily as
A. disintegrators
B. glidants
C. lubricants
D. binding agents
E. both B and C

A

Gums are effective only as binders. They increase hardness and tend to impede lubrication or
flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which of the following is (are) true for buccal and sublingual tablets?
I. They are useful for drugs destroyed by gastric fluid
II. They are readily soluble
III. They are useful for drugs that are poorly absorbed in the intestinal tract
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. II only
D. III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) All three statements are true because these tablets must dissolve in the mouth readily and they
bypass GI tract absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Syrup NF is
A. self-preserving
B. a supersaturated solution
C. a dilute solution
D. highly unstable
E. flavored and preserved

A

*(A) Although syrup NF has a high enough concentration of sucrose to retard bacterial growth, it is not
a saturated solution. This ensures good stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Vanishing creams are classified as
A. oleaginous
B. absorption bases
C. water-soluble bases
D. o/w bases
E. w/o bases

A

*(D) Vanishing creams are emulsion bases of the o/w type and contain a high percentage of water.

124
Q

Which of the following would be classified as a strong acid according to acid-base theory?
A. 10% acetic acid
B. 5% boric acid
C. 0.5% hydrochloric acid
D. 100% oleic acid
E. None because all are weak acids

A

*(C) Only hydrochloric acid is a strong acid because it donates protons readily. Concentration is not
the criterion used.

125
Q

Dissolution rate is increased by
I. an increase in surface area
II. a decrease in particle size
III. the formation of molecular aggregates
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(D) Reduction of particle size and increase of surface area and promote faster dissolution, whereas
aggregation impedes dissolution.

126
Q

Reaction rate is increased most readily by
A. humidity
B. high temperature
C. freezing
D. photolysis
E. hydrolysis

A

(B) Temperature increase has a marked effect on reaction rate, whereas the other choices have a
negative effect, no effect, or only cause slight increases.

127
Q

Units for renal clearance are in
A. mg/L
B. g/L
C. mL/min
D. mg%
E. all of the above

A

*(C) Units for renal clearance involve the volume of drug-containing plasma removed by the kidney
per unit of time, and not the concentration of drug.

128
Q

GMP regulations are promulgated and revised by
A. Congress
B. state boards of pharmacy
C. the DEA
D. the FDA
E. the EPA

A

*(D) GMP regulations are good manufacturing practices and are administered by the Food and Drug
Administration.

129
Q

A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral preparations is its
A. potential toxicity
B. lack of solvent action
C. very limited miscibility
D. high cost
E. high viscosity

A

*(A) Ethylene glycol may oxidize to form oxalic acid, which is corrosive and quite toxic.

130
Q

Ferritin is a(n)
A. vitamin
B. micelle
C. emulsion
D. amino acid
E. protein

A

*(B) Ferritin is a micelle of ferric hydroxyphosphate surrounded by protein units.

130
Q

Glucose is not subject to hydrolysis because it is
A. a disaccharide
B. a monosaccharide
C. a polysaccharide
D. insoluble
E. both B and C

A

*(B) Glucose is a simple sugar that cannot be hydrolized, but it is water soluble.

130
Q

Purified water USP may not be used in
A. syrups
B. topical preparations
C. parenteral preparations
D. elixirs
E. effervescent solutions

A

*(C) Purified water USP can be used in oral preparations, but it may contain pyrogens and is not
suitable for parenterals.

130
Q

Vitamin B6 is also known as
A. thiamine
B. riboflavin
C. niacin
D. pyridoxine
E. cyanocobalamin

A

*(D) Pyridoxine is vitamin B6. The rest are other vitamins in the B complex.

131
Q

Disadvantages of chlorobutanol in germicide solutions include
I. heat instability
II. instability at alkaline pH
III. loss of potency in presence of air
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
E. II and III only

A

*(D) Chlorobutanol suffers from all of the disadvantages listed and, in addition, is very slow acting.

131
Q

HLB is a system used to distinguish between
A. surfactants
B. glidants
C. suspending agents
D. excipients
E. disintegrators

A

*(A) HLB is an acronym for hydrophile-lipophile balance, and is used to classify surfactants as
emulsifiers. The other answers deal with terms used in tabletting or suspensions.

131
Q

A solution has an osmolal concentration of 1 when it contains
A. 1 osmol of solute/kg of water
B. 1 osmol of solute/mL of water
C. 1 osmol of solute/L water
D. 1 osmol of solute/kg of sodium chloride
E. 1 osmol of solute/mL of sodium chloride

A

(A) A solution has an osmolal concentration of one when it contains 1 osmol of solute/kg of water.

132
Q

Sunscreen preparations containing p-aminobenzoic acid should be
A. used sparingly
B. applied 2 hours before exposure
C. packaged in airtight containers
D. packaged in light-resistant containers
E. used only on areas other than the face

A

*(B) It takes 2 hours to penetrate the horny layer of the skin and this provides maximum protection.

133
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true for undecylenic acid?
I. It is often used as the zinc salt
II. It may cause irritation and sensitization
III. It is the most fungistatic of the fatty acids
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) Zinc salts enhance the fungistatic action, but also increase sensitivity.

134
Q

Which of the following is classified as fat soluble?
A. Vitamin D
B. Niacin
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Thiamine hydrochloride
E. Riboflavin

A

*(A) Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat soluble. The others are water soluble.

135
Q

The active constituents of saline laxatives are
A. absorbable anions
B. nonabsorbable cations
C. tribasic cations
D. absorbable cations and anions
E. nonabsorbable cations and anions

A

*(E) The most effective saline laxatives are magnesium and sulfate ions, which are dibasic and
relatively nonabsorbable.

136
Q

Sublimation is the term applied to the following type(s) of transformation.
I. Solid to vapor
II. Liquid to solid
III. Liquid to vapor
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

A

*(A) Sublimation is a transformation of solid to vapor without going through the liquid state.

136
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate is used in antidiarrheals for its
A. hydrophobic action
B. hydrophilic action
C. adsorbent action
D. absorbent action
E. antibacterial action

A

*(C) Bismuth subsalicylate is an effective absorbent that can absorb toxins, bacteria, and fluids; it has
no inherent antimicrobial activity.

136
Q

Mineral oil exerts laxative action primarily by
A. bulk formation
B. fecal softening
C. catharsis
D. stimulation
E. lubrication

A

*(E) Mineral oil acts only by lubricating the intestinal tract. It has very mild or secondary properties of
fecal softening.

137
Q

Which of the following is a cationic emulsifying agent?
A. Potassium laurate
B. Calcium oleate
C. Sodium lauryl sulfate
D. Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
E. Ammonium laurate

A

*(D) This is a quarternary ammonium compound, which is cationic. The others are anionic emulsifiers.

138
Q

Cellulose acetate phthalate is used in pharmacy as a(n)
A. emulsifier
B. enteric coating material
C. suspending agent
D. flavoring agent
E. excipient

A

*(B) This substance is impervious to gastric juices and dissolves in intestinal fluids. It has no other
pharmaceutical use.

139
Q

The most widely used method for sterilization of pharmaceuticals is
A. microfiltration
B. radiation
C. ethylene oxide exposure
D. moist heat
E. dry heat

A

*(D) Moist heat is the method of choice because of its dependability, effectiveness, and low cost. The
other methods are used when moist heat cannot be used.

139
Q

Cocoa butter (theobroma oil) is useful as a suppository base because of its
A. solubility
B. melting point
C. miscibility
D. reactivity
E. lipophilic properties

A

*(B) It melts at about 37°C (body temperature) and releases the drug

139
Q

Ophthalmic solutions should be formulated to include which of the following?
I. Sterility
II. Isotonicity
III. Buffering
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) All of these properties should be achieved, in addition to stability and clarity.

140
Q

One form of the buffer equation is pH = pKa + log salt/acid. For this equation, the salt and acid
concentration is expressed in
A. g/100 mL
B. moles
C. mg %
D. g/L
E. none of the above

A

*(B) The concentrations must be expressed in moles to account for differences in molecular weight,
which affects ionization.

140
Q

If a buffer solution is prepared using equal concentrations of acetic acid and sodium acetate, the pH
would then be
A. 1
B. 14
C. equal to the pKa
D. equal to ½ of the pKa
E. equal to double the pKa

A

*(C) If the salt:acid concentration is 1:1, the salt:acid term is equal to the log of 1, which is 0, and this
term is dropped. Therefore, the pH is equal to the pKa.

141
Q

Another name for the buffer equation is the
A. Arrhenius’ equation
B. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
C. Debye-Huckel equation
D. buffer capacity equation
E. Stokes’ equation

A

*(B) The buffer equation was named for the two men who developed it.

142
Q

Soda lime is used as a(n)
A. alkalinizer
B. therapeutic agent in topical preparations
C. stabilizer in emulsions
D. reagent for absorption of carbon dioxide
E. preservative in aromatic waters

A

*(D) Soda lime is used to absorb carbon dioxide in anesthesia machines, oxygen therapy, and
metabolic tests only.

143
Q

Which of the following is an ampholyte?
A. H2CO3
B. HCl
C. NaOH
D. NaH2PO4
E. KOH

A

*(D) An ampholyte is a substance capable of functioning as both an acid and a base. All except
NaH2PO4 can function only as either an acid or a base.

144
Q

Pumice is often used in
I. soaps and cleansing powders
II. dental preparation
III. filtering
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) Pumice is useful as an abrasive in cleansing agents or dentifrices, and as a filtering agent.

144
Q

The type of instability known as bleeding is usually associated with
A. isotonic solutions
B. emulsions
C. alcoholic solutions
D. ointments
E. suspensions

A

*(D) Bleeding is used to describe separation of liquid ingredients from ointment bases only.

145
Q

There was no requirement to establish efficacy for drug products until
A. 1906
B. 1938
C. 1962
D. 1965
E. 1978

A

*(C) The original Food and Drug Act of 1906 and the 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act did not
require proof of efficacy. It was not until 1962 that the Kefauver-Harris amendment required proof of
efficacy

146
Q

The GMP regulations first became official in
A. 1938
B. 1962
C. 1963
D. 1979
E. 1981

A

*(D) Although regulations were first issued in 1963, they did not become official until 1979, after
several revisions.

146
Q

The Limulus test is a relatively new method of testing for
A. pyrogens
B. microbial growth
C. acidity
D. creaming
E. lack of osmolarity

A

*(A) The Limulus test is an in vitro test for pyrogens and is more rapid, sensitive, and simple than the
rabbit test.

147
Q

Which of the following is associated with excessive infusion of hypotonic fluids?
A. Hemolysis
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Dehydration
D. Glycosuria
E. None of the above

A

*(A) Excessive infusion of hypotonic solutions may cause hemolysis and water intoxication. Clinical
results included convulsions with edema, including pulmonary edema.

148
Q

Which of the following is (are) associated with excessive infusion of hypertonic dextrose solutions?
A. Loss of electrolytes
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Dehydration
D. Glycosuria
E. All of the above

A

*(E) Excessive infusions of hypertonic dextrose solutions (rich in dextrose) may cause hyperglycemia,
glycosuria, intracellular dehydration, osmotic diuresis, and loss of electrolytes. Clinical effects may
include dehydration and coma.

148
Q

Normal rectal temperature is usually
A. measured in the morning
B. measured in the evening
C. about the same as the normal oral temperature
D. about 1° lower than oral
E. about 1° higher than oral

A

*(E) Rectal temperatures typically run about 1° higher than oral. In establishing normal temperature, it
is common to take temperatures several times during the day to establish an average.

149
Q

The Latin oculo utro is translated to mean
A. right eye
B. each eye
C. left eye
D. each ear
E. right ear

A

*(B) This Latin term is translated as each eye or both eyes.

150
Q

Advantages of tablets over liquid dose forms include the following.
I. Enhanced stability
II. Ease of administration
III. Greater accuracy of dosing
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

(E) Liquid forms are usually less stable and may have an objectionable taste. The necessity to
measure teaspoons makes dosage less predictable and accurate.

151
Q

Which of the following is (are) exempted from safety packaging?
I. Oral contraceptives
II. Nitroglycerin
III. Oral analgesics
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(C) Oral contraceptives are exempt because of their unique and useful design. Nitroglycerin is exempt
because of the need for direct and immediate access. Oral analgesics are not exempt except when
requested by the physician or patient.

152
Q

The Latin post cibos can be translated to mean
A. after meals
B. before meals
C. with meals
D. without food
E. on an empty stomach

A

*(A) The Latin post cibos can be translated to mean after meals.

153
Q

A disadvantage of using compressed gases in aerosol preparations is that they
A. produce higher pressures
B. produce incompatibilities
C. contribute to instability
D. produce a wet spray
E. produce increased clogging

A

*(D) Compressed gases possess little expansion power and tend to produce wet sprays or foaming.
They are usually inert and have no other adverse effect.

154
Q

Which of the following is (are) true for water-soluble vitamins?
I. They have limited storage in the body
II. They may be toxic in doses above MDR
III. Most are eliminated by the kidneys
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III

A

(E) All three statements are true.

154
Q

Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver?
A. Cortisone
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Prednisolone
D. Methylprednisolone
E. Dexamethasone

A

*(C) Although it is related to other corticosteroids, it is not possible for the liver enzymes to convert to
anything other than prednisolone.

155
Q

The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg of body weight. What dose should be given to a 110-lb female patient?
A. 2500 mg
B. 250 mg
C. 25 mg
D. 44 mg
E. 440 mg

A

*(B) 1 kg = 2.2 lb. By proportion:
5 mg ÷ x mg = 2.2 lb ÷ 110 lb
x = 250 mg

156
Q

How many grains of a drug are needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a 5% (w/v) solution?
A. 91 grains
B. 96 grains
C. 48 grains
D. 100 grains
E. 24 grains

A

*(A) 1 oz ÷ 4 oz = 455 ÷ x gr; 1820 gr × 0.05 = 91 gr

157
Q

An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a drug into 100 g of white petrolatum. What is
the percent w/w of active ingredient?
A. 10.00%
B. 9.10%
C. 0.91%
D. 0.95%
E. None of the above

A

*(C) 10 g ÷ x = 110 ÷ 100; x = 9.1%

158
Q

What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of alcohol?
A. 25 proof
B. 50 proof
C. 100 proof
D. 75 proof
E. 150 proof

A

*(C) The proof strength of alcohol is double the v/v percentage strength

159
Q

Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties?
A. Neutralizing
B. Emetic
C. Absorptive
D. Adsorptive
E. Stabilizing

A

*(D) Activated charcoal is capable of adsorbing a number of toxins because of its high specific surface.

159
Q

Certified dyes may not be used in the area of
A. the eye
B. the scalp
C. the lips
D. the nose
E. all of the above

A

*(A) Some certified dyes may be used in all areas; however, no category of dye may be applied to the
area of the eye because of the potential for damage.

160
Q

The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics is as a (n)
A. lubricant
B. antacid
C. source of Mg ion
D. disintegrator
E. binder

A

*(A) Magnesium stearate is a free-flowing insoluble compound used as a lubricant in granulations or
powder mixtures. It has no other use.

161
Q

A synonym for vitamin C is
A. riboflavin
B. tocopherol
C. ascorbic acid
D. cyanocobalamin
E. thiamine

A

*(C) The other names are synonyms for other vitamins.

162
Q

What is the pH of a solution that has a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 × 10–8?
A. 8.0
B. 6.0
C. 1.8
D. 1.6
E. None of the above

A

*(A) The log of 1 is 0. The log of 10–8 is 8, so the pH of 0 + 8 = 8.

163
Q

The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in
A. sunscreens
B. antacid tablets
C. capsules as a diluent
D. effervescent salts
E. emulsions

A

*(A) Titanium dioxide in proper concentration can totally block the burning rays of the sun.

164
Q

Which of the following is used as a hemostatic agent?
A. Heparin
B. Oxycel
C. Coumadins
D. Indanediones
E. None of the above

A

*(B) Oxycel is an absorbable gelatin sponge that promotes clotting. The other drugs tend to prevent
clotting.

165
Q

The Latin term oculus sinister can be translated as
A. right eye
B. left eye
C. both ears
D. both eyes
E. right ear

A

*(B) The Latin term oculus sinister can be translated as left eye.

166
Q

Another name for extended insulin zinc suspension is
A. NPH
B. lente
C. ultralente
D. regular
E. none of the above

A

*(C) Ultralente insulin contains large crystals of insulin with a high zinc content that are collected and
resuspended in a sodium acetate/sodium chloride solution.

167
Q

Membrane filters with 0.22 micron pores can remove which of the following when used to filter
solutions?
A. bacteria
B. pyrogens
C. viruses
D. fungi
E. A and D

A

*(E) Due to their larger size, bacteria and fungi can be removed by using a 0.22 micron filter. Viruses
are too small and will pass through the filter. Pyrogens are most commonly destroyed by heat.

167
Q

The recommended method of mixing insulins is to
A. shake vigorously
B. mix gently by rolling between palms of hands
C. add simultaneously to container
D. add lente insulin first then regular insulin
E. none of the above

A

*(B) Vigorous shaking may break protein structures.

168
Q

Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for injections?
A. Peanut oil
B. Cottonseed oil
C. Corn oil
D. Theobroma oil
E. Sesame oil

A

*(D) Theobroma oil is a semisolid at room temperature and is used as a suppository base.

169
Q

Which preservative has recently been removed from several vaccine products to decrease the
potential of toxicity events in children?
A. benzyl alcohol
B. sodium bicarbonate
C. thimerosal
D. peanut oil
E. methylparaben

A

*(C) A review conducted by the FDA concluded that the use of thimerosal as a preservative in
vaccines might result in the intake of mercury during the first 6 months of life that exceeds EPA
recommendations. Today all vaccines in the recommended childhood immunization schedule that are for use in the U.S. market contain no thimerosal or only trace amounts (<0.0002%). Influenza (flu) vaccines
and tetanus and diphtheria vaccines (Td and DT) are not available without thimerosal.

170
Q

Two formulations of different active ingredients that have been judged to produce similar effects
are called
I. generic equivalence
II. therapeutic equivalence
III. pharmaceutical equivalence
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(B) The terms “generic equivalent” and “pharmaceutical equivalent” refer to medications identical in
active ingredient, strength, and dosage form.

171
Q

Drugs subject to a significant first-pass effect following oral administration include
I. Propranolol
II. Nifedipine
III. Nitroglycerin
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

(E) Propranolol, nifedipine, and nitroglycerin are all subject to extensive metabolism by the liver
prior to the drug reaching the systemic circulation.

172
Q

Which of the following factors is (are) important in the delivery of drug to the intended site of
absorption with a metered dose inhaler?
I. Particle size and shape
II. Physiochemical properties of the active ingredient
III. Use of an oral adaptor
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) Particle size and shape, solubility of active ingredient in pulmonary fluids, and configuration of
the oral adaptor to reduce oropharyngeal deposition of aerosol are all important factors in aerosol delivery
of the drug.

173
Q

Which of the following is true regarding transdermal delivery systems?
A. Products from different manufacturers require identical amounts of active ingredient to yield
equivalent responses.
B. Skin thickness is not a factor in drug absorption.
C. The transdermal unit should always be placed at the same site.
D. The transdermal unit contains more drug than is intended for delivery into the body over the
prescribed period of use.
E. The transdermal unit may remain attached to the skin after the labeled delivery period because drug
absorption ceases.

A

(D) Transdermal units contain much greater quantities of active ingredient than is delivered over the
intended period of use. The drug delivery rate decreases as the concentration in the unit falls, but it does
not necessarily cease at the end of the prescribed delivery period.

174
Q

Which of the following orders contain the basic components needed for a standard total parenteral
nutrition solution?
A. Dextrose 7.5%, amino acids 4.25%, electrolytes
B. Dextrose 10%, albumin 4%, multivitamin concentrate 10mL
C. Amino acids 15%, insulin 5 units/L, electrolytes
D. Dextrose 2.5%, fat emulsion 30%, electrolytes
E. Dextrose 5%, amino acids 30%, fat emulsion 20%

A

*(A) Essential components in parenteral nutrition solutions are amino acids, dextrose, electrolytes,
vitamins, and trace elements. Generally, peripheral solutions contain 5% to 7.5% dextrose and 3% to 5%
amino acids. A dextrose concentration of 10% or greater should be infused through a central venous line.

175
Q

The most commonly used method to sterilize tale powder for the treatment of pleural effusions is
A. gas sterilization
B. irradiation
C. low level heat
D. moist heat
E. dry heat

A

*(A) Gas sterilization is one of the more common methods used to sterilize powders, particularly talc.

176
Q

According to the FDA’s therapeutic equivalence rating, product is not considered substitutable if it
has a Therapeutic Equivalence code of:
A. AP
B. BP
C. AO
D. XN
E. AT

A

*(B) Therapeutic equivalence codes signify the equivalence between products. Codes beginning with
“A” signify that the product is deemed therapeutically equivalent to the reference product for the
category. Codes beginning with “b” indicate that bioequivalence has not been confirmed. The second
character typically indicates the dosage form, thus, AP indicates an injectable aqueous solution that has
meets bioequivalence requirements.

177
Q

An example of two products that are pharmaceutically equivalent are:
A. Diazepam 2 mg and Diazepam 5 mg tablets
B. A 300 mg extended release theophylline tablet and a 300 mg extended release theophylline capsule
C. Haloperidol deconate injection and haloperidol lactate injection
D. A 100 mg Normadyne tablet and a 100 mg Trandate tablet
E, None of the above

A

*(D) Pharmaceutically equivalent products are defined as the same active ingredients (same salt) in the
same dosage form, route of administration and are identical in strength or concentration. Pharmaceutically
equivalent drug products may, however, differ in shape, scoring configurations, release mechanisms,
packaging, excipients, expiration times, and within certain limits, labeling.

177
Q

Which of the following products are considered interchangeable on a mg to mg basis?
I. Amprenavir capsules and oral solution
II. Sporanox capsules and oral solution
III. Diazepam tablets and oral concentrated solution
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(B) Amprenavir capsules and oral solution are not considered interchangeable on a mg to mg basis as
the oral solution is 14% less bioavailable in this form as compared to the capsule formulation. Sporanox
capsules and oral solution should not be used interchangeably as they have different absorption
characteristics when administered with food. The dosing for oral concentrate solution and tablets of
diazepam are the same.

178
Q

Alfuzosin is used mainly to treat
A. gout
B. benign prostatic hypertrophy
C. diabetes
D. carcinomas
E. high blood pressure

A

*(B) Alfuzosin, a selective alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, was approved by the FDA in 2003 for
the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy

179
Q

Dosage of anticonvulsants is adjusted
A. when seizures occur frequently
B. every 2 weeks
C. every 2 years
D. only when side effects are seen
E. seasonally

A

(A) Dosage is regularly adjusted upward if attacks occur frequently.

180
Q

Sulfonamides are excreted free and combined as
A. the acetyl derivative
B. the amino derivative
C. the sulfate derivative
D. the glycine conjugate
E. none of the above

A

*(A) The conjugation is primarily by acetylation.

180
Q

Which of the following symptoms is not present in digitalis intoxication?
A. AV block
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Vomiting
D. Vagal arrest of the heart
E. Visual disturbances

A

*(D) If arrest occurs, it is due to asystole.

181
Q

Parkinsonism is probably due to
A. too little dopamine in the brain
B. too little levodopa in the brain
C. too little acetylcholine in the brain
D. too much levodopa in the brain
E. too much dopamine in the brain

A

(A) The disease is characterized by low levels of brain dopamine.

182
Q

Which of the following agents is associated with tinnitus as a result of toxicity?
A. salicylate
B. phenytoin
C. propranolol
D. acetaminophen
E. cyclobenzaprine

A

*(A) Tinnitus is a common sign of salicylate toxicity and represents blood salicylate levels reaching or
exceeding the upper limits of therapeutic ranges. Temporary hearing loss disappears gradually upon
discontinuation of the drug.

183
Q

A specific narcotic antagonist is
A. meperidine
B. polybrene
C. nalorphine
D. universal antidote
E. meprobamate

A

(C) Nalorphine is structurally similar to morphine derivatives and has some agonistic activity.

183
Q

The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is
A. renal shutdown
B. paralysis of spinal cord
C. respiratory depression
D. cardiovascular collapse
E. none of the above

A

*(C) Medullary paralysis can occur with overdoses.

184
Q

Which of the following is used to curtail chronic uric acid stone formation?
A. Allopurinol
B. Trimethoprim
C. Methenamine
D. Ethacrynic acid
E. Furosemide

A

*(A) Allopurinol interferes with uric acid synthesis and is a good prophylactic agent to prevent gout.

184
Q

Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels?
A. Trimethadione
B. Rosuvastatin
C. Flucytosine
D. Coumarin
E. Propranolol

A

*(B) Rosuvastatin is a statin agent approved by the FDA in 2003 for the reduction of low-density
lipoproteins.

184
Q

Olmesartan, an antihypertensive, is classifed as which of the following?
A. Beta-blocker
B. Diuretic
C. Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
D. Steroid
E. Alpha-1 adrenergic blocker

A

*(C) Olemsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocking agent approved in 2002 for the treatment of
hypertension.

184
Q

Therapeutically, vitamin B1 has been employed most successfully in the treatment of
A. microcytic anemia
B. pellagra
C. scurvy
D. beriberi
E. macrocytic anemia

A

*(D) A deficiency of vitamin B1 produces beriberi.

184
Q

Aprepitant is used to treat
A. hypertension
B. muscular injuries
C. ulcers
D. chemotherapy-induced emesis
E. congestive heart failure

A

*(D) Aprepitant is a neurokinin (NK-1) receptor antagonist, which was approved by the FDA in 2003
for the treatment of chemotherapy-induced emesis.

184
Q

A class of plant alkaloids widely used to treat migraine is
A. vinca alkaloids
B. digitalis glycosides
C. stramonium alkaloids
D. ergot alkaloids
E. belladonna alkaloids

A

*(D) Many of the migraine drugs are ergot derivatives.

185
Q

Magnesium ion is necessary in
A. stimulating enzyme systems
B. muscular contraction
C. nerve conduction
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

A

*(D) Magnesium ion plays an important role in all of the activities listed.

185
Q

Bevacizumab is used primarily to treat
A. metastatic colon cancer
B. hypertension
C. cardiac insufficiency
D. gout
E. migraine headache

A

*(A) Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody approved by the FDA in 2002 for the short-term
treatment of metastatic colon cancer.

185
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to rescue patients who have received high dose methotrexate?
A. Allopurinol
B. Leucovorin
C. Methyldopa
D. Naloxone
E. Isoflurane

A

*(B) Leucovorin (folinic acid), the formyl derivative and active form of folic acid, is considered an
antidote for folic acid antagonists, such as methotrexate (>100 mg/m2) or trimethoprim.

185
Q

Complications of enteral tube feedings include
A. aspiration pneumonia
B. diarrhea
C. hyperglycemia
D. fluid and electrolyte disturbances
E. all of the above

A

*(E) All are potential complications of enteral feedings.

186
Q

Daunorubicin and doxorubicin have been commonly associated with
A. ulcers
B. cardiac toxicity
C. colitis
D. gout
E. hepatotoxicity

A

*(B) For daunorubicin, myocardial toxicity, as potentially fatal congestive heart failure, may occur
when a total cumulative dosage exceeds 400 to 550 mg/m2 in adults, 300 mg/m2 in children over 2, or 10
mg/kg in children under 2. This effect may occur during therapy or within several months to years after
therapy. For doxorubicin, the risk of developing congestive heart failure increases with increasing total
cumulative dose in excess of 450 mg/m2. Such toxicity may occur at lower doses in patients with
predisposing factors (e.g., chest irradiation).

186
Q

Which of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors is FDA approved to treat both
depression and diabetic neuropathy?
A. Citalopram
B. Fluoxetine
C. Duloxetine
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

A

*(C) Duloxetine is an oral selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, which was approved by the FDA in
2004 for the treatment of depression and diabetic neuropathy.

186
Q

In which of the following dosage forms is nicotine available when used as a smoking deterrent?
A. Transdermal
B. Nasal spray
C. Gum
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C

A

*(E) Nicotine is available as a nonprescription product either as an ion-exchange resin in a sugar-free
chewing gum base or as a transdermal patch. As a prescription product nicotine is available both as a
nasal spray and an oral inhaler (Nicotrol Inhaler or Nicotrol NS).

186
Q

Which of the following statements about propylthiouracil is false?
A. It is used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism
B. It inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones
C. It diminishes peripheral deiodination of T4 to T3
D. It inhibits iodide oxidation
E. It interferes with the effectiveness of exogenously administered thyroid hormones

A

*(E) Propylthiouracil inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones. However, if thyroid hormones are
already present, propylthiouracil will not inhibit their action. This is the case whether the thyroid
hormones were produced naturally or administered exogenously.

186
Q

Triamcinolone differs from most glucocorticoids because it does not
A. cause depression
B. cause water retention
C. affect blood sugar
D. increase susceptibility to infection
E. increase appetite

A

*(E) Triamcinolone produces all the side effects of the class (including depression, water retention,
effects on blood sugar, and increasing susceptibility to infection), but does not increase appetite.

186
Q

Folic acid administration has been recommended during pregnancy to prevent which of the
following congenital problems?
A. spina bifida
B. cystic fibrosis
C. patent ductus arteriosus
D. limb deformations
E. cleft palate

A

*(A) Approximately 2,500 to 3,000 U.S. infants are born annually with spina bifida or anencephaly
(known as neural tube defects) caused by the incomplete closing of the spine and skull. In 1998, the Food
and Nutrition Board of the National Academy of Sciences Institute of Medicine (IOM) recommended that
to reduce the risk for neural tube defects, women capable of becoming pregnant should take 400 mg of
synthetic folic acid daily, from fortified foods or supplements or a combination of the two, in addition to
consuming folate in a varied diet.

186
Q

Which of the following drugs is (are) restricted for approved uses in a specific gender?
A. Tegaserod
B. Finasteride
C. Teriparatide
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

A

*(E) Tegaserod is approved for the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome in women. Finasteride is
approved for the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy, and Teriparatide, approved in 2002, is
approved for postmenopausal osteoporosis.

186
Q

Which of the following chemotherapy agents requires a special restricted distribution program due
to severe teratogenicity effects?
A. Vincristine
B. Cisplatin
C. 5-Fluoruracil
D. Thalidomide
E. Cyclophosphamide

A

*(D) Even the administration of a single thalidomide tablet during pregnancy has been associated with
severe birth defects. Thus, in the United States, the distribution of this drug is limited to a special
restricted distribution program known as S.T.E.P.S. (System for Thalidomide Education and Prescribing
Safety). Only prescribers and pharmacists registered and trained via the program are allowed to prescribe
and dispense the product.

187
Q

An advantage of amoxicillin over ampicillin is that it
A. is more acid stable
B. is not destroyed by penicillinase
C. has a broader spectrum
D. does not cause allergies
E. has a longer shelf life

A

*(A) The only advantage is that amoxicillin is not easily destroyed by stomach acid.

187
Q

Which of the following agents is commonly administered with isoniazid to prevent or relieve the
symptoms of peripheral neuritis?
A. Niacin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Cyanocobalamin
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Acetaminophen

A

*(B) Peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid administration is most likely due to interference
with pyridoxine metabolism. Thus, in persons with conditions where neuropathy may be common (e.g.,diabetes, uremia, malnutrition), the administration of pyridoxine is recommended. Recommended
prophylactic doses range from 6 to 100 mg daily.

187
Q

Eletriptan was approved by the FDA in 2002 to treat which of the following diseases?
A. Migraines
B. Muscle spasms
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Neuralgias
E. Colon cancer

A

*(A) Eletriptan is a triptan compound approved in 2002 to treat migraines.

188
Q

Botulinum toxin is FDA approved to treat
A. blepharospams
B. cervical dystonias
C. facial wrinkles
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

A

*(E) Botulinum toxin A was initially FDA approved for the treatment of strabismus and
blepharospasms in patients at least 12 years old. In 2000, botulinum toxin B was approved for the
treatment of cervical dystonias. Because the agent causes temporary local paralysis of muscles at the site
of injection, it is also used for the reduction of facial wrinkles.

188
Q

Primidone, used in the treatment of generalized tonic-clonic seizures, is metabolized to
A. phenytoin
B. phenobarbital
C. metformin
D. carbamazepine
E. none of the above

A

*(B) Primidone is a deoxybarbiturate which is metabolized to two active metabolites,
phenylethylmalonamide (PEMA) and phenobarbital. Serum concentration of phenobarbital is used to
monitor patients taking primidone.

189
Q

Vincristine has been commonly associated with which of the following adverse events?
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Gout
C. Duodenal ulcers
D. Blood clotting
E. None of the above

A

*(A) One of the dose-limiting effects of vincristine is the neurotoxic effects of the drug. Peripheral
neuropathy may present as tingling and numbness in the feet.

190
Q

Cholestyramine resin has the prevalent side effect of
A. blocking absorption of some vitamins
B. raising cholesterol levels
C. causing intoxication
D. increasing sensitivity to UV light
E. all of the above

A

*(A) Cholestyramine resin has an affinity for bile salts and interferes with absorption of fat. Fatsoluble vitamins may not be absorbed. It reduces cholesterol levels and has none of the other effects
listed.

190
Q

Lorazepam produces which of the following action(s)?
A. Sedation
B. Loss of memory
C. Reduction of anxiety
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

*(D) Because it produces sedation, loss of memory, and reduction of anxiety, lorazepam is used as a
preoperative medication.

190
Q

Telithromycin is a member of which class of anti-infectives?
A. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin
C. Aminoglycoside
D. Ketolid
E. Sulfonamide

A

*(D) It is a ketolid antibiotic indicated for the treatment of acute bronchitis, sinusitis, and community
acquired pneumonia.

190
Q

Which of the following is (are) true for tetracyclines?
I. They may cause yellowing of the teeth in adolescents
II. They are bacteriostatic
III. They exhibit a broad spectrum of activity
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A

*(E) All are true. Tetracyclines are quite readily absorbed.

190
Q

Rasburicase is used to treat
A. hay fever
B. vertigo
C. drug allergies
D. hyperuricemia
E. drowsiness

A

*(D) Rasburicase is a recombinant urate oxidase that was approved by the FDA in 2002 and is
indicated for the treatment of hyperuricemia.

190
Q

All of the following are diuretics except
A. aminophylline
B. lanthanum
C. spironolactone
D. bumetanide
E. chlorthalidone

A

*(B) All have diuretic activity except lanthanum, which reduces serum phosphate in end-stage renal
disease.

191
Q

Gemifloxacin is a(n)
A. ß-adrenergic blocker
B. anti-infective
C. glucocorticoid
D. local anesthetic
E. sunscreen

A

*(B) Gemifloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is used to treat bacterial infections.

191
Q

Adefovir is a member of which class of anti-infectives?
A. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin
C. Aminoglycoside
D. Tetracycline
E. Antiviral

A

*(E) Adefovir, an antiviral used to treat hepatitis B infection, was approved by the FDA in 2002.

191
Q

Voriconazole is classified as a(n)
A. muscle relaxant
B. sedative-hypnotic
C. tranquilizer
D. analgesic
E. antifungal

A

*(E) The principal action of this drug is as an antifungal and was approved by the FDA in 2002 for the
treatment of serious fungal infections.

192
Q

Celecoxib is used as a(n)
A. antimalarial
B. cardiotonic
C. antihistaminic
D. antacid
E. analgesic

A

*(E) Celecoxib, a cyclo-oxygenase-2 inhibitor, was FDA approved in 1998 for the treatment of
osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. It has analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.

192
Q

Timolide combines the action of a nonselective beta-blocking agent and a(n)

A. diuretic
B. cardiotonic
C. selective beta-blocker
D. anti-inflammatory agent
E. vasoconstrictor

A

*(A) Timolide is a combination of timolol maleate and the diuretic hydrochlorothiazide, used to treat
hypertension.

192
Q

Which of the following drugs has been associated with Reye’s syndrome in children?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. Naproxen
E. Phenobarbital

A

*(A) The use of salicylates during certain viral illnesses (e.g., influenza A, influenza B and varicella)
may be a factor in the pathogenesis of Reye’s syndrome. The Centers for Disease Control advises caution
in administering salicylates to children with a viral illness.

192
Q

Treprostinil is used mainly to treat
A. gastritis
B. minor anxiety states
C. pulmonary arterial hypertension
D. severe pain
E. nausea

A

*(C) Treprostinil, a prostaglandin, was FDA approved in 2002 for the treatment of pulmonary
hypertension.

192
Q

Ultra-short-acting barbiturates are used primarily as
A. sedatives
B. hypnotics
C. antispasmodic agents
D. anti-parkinsonian agents
E. preanesthetic agents

A

*(E) The rapid action and short duration of action make ultra-short-acting barbiturates ideal for
inducing anesthesia.

192
Q

Some anticonvulsants (e.g., carbamazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin) are FDA approved to treat
seizures but have also been effective in the treatment of
A. parkinsonism
B. neuralgias or neuropathies
C. colitis
D. nausea
E. all of the above

A

*(B) Carbamazepine, phenytoin, or gabapentin have been used as off-label indications to treat diabetic
neuropathy, trigeminal neuralgias, or peripheral neuropathy

192
Q

Oxaliplatin is used as a(n)
A. narcotic antagonist
B. narcotic analgesic
C. antineoplastic
D. antiepileptic
E. anesthetic

A

*(C) Oxaliplatin, a platinum antineoplastic, was approved by the FDA in 2002 for the management of
metastatic carcinoma of the colon/rectum.

192
Q

Norethindrone is a drug commonly used in
A. mixed estrogens
B. oral contraceptives
C. treating carcinomas
D. diagnostic testing
E. abortifacients

A

*(B) Norethindrone has both progestational activity and mild estrogenic activity, and is widely used in
oral contraceptives.

192
Q

Which of the following is not a side effect of codeine?
A. Miosis
B. Nausea
C. Diarrhea
D. Respiratory depression
E. Addiction

A

*(C) Codeine may cause constipation rather than diarrhea.

192
Q

Histamine is found in the human body in
A. the granules of mast cells in blood
B. the mucosal layer of the GI tract
C. the hypothalamus
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

A

*(E) Histamine is found at all three sites.

193
Q

Emtricitabine is used primarily as a(n)
A. cardiotonic
B. antidepressant
C. diuretic
D. antiviral
E. sedative

A

*(D) Emtricitabine is a nucleotide analog antiviral approved by the FDA in 2002 to treat HIV infection
in adults.

193
Q

Which of the following is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
A. Liotrix
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Liothyronine
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Etidronate

A

*(D) Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid agent. The others are thyroid hormones and are contraindicated
in hyperthyroidism.

193
Q

The principal toxic effect of heparin is
A. hemorrhage
B. bronchospasm
C. chills
D. fever
E. hair loss

A

*(A) All side effects are seen, but hemorrhage is the principal one, usually due to overdosage.

193
Q

Antipsychotics usually act on the
A. cerebrum
B. cerebellum
C. lower brain areas
D. brain and spinal cord
E. nerve endings

A

*(C) Antipsychotics produce calmness without sedation, hypnosis, motor impairment, or euphoria.

193
Q

Cocaine has a long duration of local anesthetic action because it is
A. more stable than most local anesthetics
B. readily absorbed
C. not biotransformed
D. a vasoconstrictor
E. none of the above

A

*(D) Cocaine is a vasoconstrictor and prevents its own absorption, keeping the drug localized longer.

193
Q

Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic or as a(n)
A. general anesthetic
B. antipruritic
C. preanesthetic
D. antiarrhythmic
E. analgesic

A

*(D) Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic and for ventricular arrhythmias.

193
Q

All of the following are natural estrogens or congeners except
A. estradiol
B. diethylstilbestrol
C. estrone
D. ethinyl estradiol
E. estropipate

A

*(B) Diethylstilbestrol was the first synthetic estrogen introduced.

193
Q

Hyoscyamine has the same action as atropine but is
A. twice as potent
B. three times more potent
C. ten times more potent
D. half as potent
E. one-fourth as potent

A

*(A) Hyoscyamine is the levo isomer of the racemic mixture known as atropine. The dextro isomer is
almost inactive.

193
Q

Carbidopa is used to
A. treat Parkinson’s disease
B. treat hypertension
C. potentiate levodopa
D. treat depression
E. treat Lou Gehrig’s disease

A

*(C) Carbidopa has no therapeutic activity, but prevents degradation of L-dopa.

193
Q

Tenecteplase is used primarily to reduce mortality associated with which of the following clinical
problems?
A. Diabetes
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Hemorrhage
D. Prostate cancer
E. None of the above

A

*(B) Tenecteplase is a plasminogen activator thrombolytic approved in 2000 for the reduction of
mortality associated with acute myocardial infarction.

193
Q

Albuterol is usually administered by which route?
A. IV
B. IM
C. Nasal
D. Rectal
E. Oral

A

*(C) Albuterol is much more effective in treating bronchospasm when given by inhalation. Oral forms
are used less frequently.

193
Q

Omalizumab is used most commonly to treat
A. AIDS
B. genital herpes
C. asthma
D. CMV retinitis
E. influenza

A

Omalizumab was approved in 2003 to treat moderate to severe persistent asthma.

193
Q

Barbiturates, in general, are particularly noted for
A. lack of habituation
B. producing microsomal enzymes in liver
C. instability
D. slow absorption
E. poor oral absorption

A

*(B) They are among the most potent of the enzyme inducers.

193
Q

Epinastine exerts its action because it is a(n)
A. antihistamine
B. MAO inhibitor
C. alkaline
D. calcium channel blocker
E. acid

A

*(A) Epinastine is an ocular antihistamine approved in 2003 to treat moderate to severe persistent
asthma.

193
Q

The principal mechanism of action of penicillins on microorganisms is
A. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. destruction of the nucleus
C. bacteriostatic
D. causing mutations
E. lysis

A

*(A) Penicillins act primarily by inhibition of cell wall synthesis in susceptible microorganisms, and
are bacteriocidal.

193
Q

A. it is inactivated in the gastric mucosa
B. local vasoconstriction inhibits absorption
C. it is rapidly inactivated in circulation
D. none of the above
E. all of the above

A

*(E) All three effects are seen; epinephrine is poorly effective when administered orally.

193
Q

Which of the following cardiac glycosides does not occur naturally?
A. Digoxin
B. Ouabain
C. Digitoxin
D. Amrinone
E. Nitroglycerin

A

*(D) Amrinone is a synthetic bipyridine derivative. Nitroglycerin is not a cardiac glycoside. The others
occur naturally.

193
Q

Efalizumab is used to treat
A. plaque psoriasis
B. Hodgkin’s disease
C. angina pectoris
D. breast cancer
E. depression

A

*(A) Efalizumab is a monoclonal antibody approved in 2003 for the treatment of moderate to severe
plaque psoriasis.

193
Q

Which of the following is classified as a cholinergic antagonist?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Bethanehol
E. Methacholine

A

(C) Atropine is the prototypical cholinergic antagonist. The others are cholinergic agonists.

193
Q

The action of heparin is terminated by
A. coumarin
B. indanediones
C. insulins
D. sulfonamides
E. protamine sulfate

A

(E) Protamine sulfate quickly terminates the action of heparin on a 1:1 mole basis.

193
Q

Nitroglycerin has a relatively short half-life due to
A. its volatility
B. its chemical instability
C. its poor absorption
D. first-pass metabolism
E. all of the above

A

*(D) Although nitroglycerin is volatile and somewhat unstable, its short half-life is due to metabolic
instability caused by extensive first-pass metabolism.

193
Q

Various opiates may be used as all of the following except
A. analgesics
B. anti-inflammatories
C. antidiarrheals
D. aids to anesthesia
E. antitussives

A

*(B) Various opiates are used as analgesics, antitussives, and antidiarrheals, and to induce anesthesia.
However, they exhibit no significant anti-inflammatory activity.

194
Q

Trihexylphenidyl is used to treat
A. parkinsonism
B. angina
C. xerostomia
D. glaucoma
E. muscle spasms

A

*(A) Trihexylphenidyl is related to atropine and is used primarily to treat parkinsonism.

194
Q

The prevalent mechanism of action of antihistaminics is that they
A. prevent formation of histamine
B. speed up elimination of histamine
C. destroy histamine
D. competitively inhibit histamine
E. speed up biotransformation of histamine

A

*(D) Antihistaminics compete for the same receptor sites with histamine.

194
Q

Isotretinoin is commonly used to treat
A. lice infestations
B. fungal infestations
C. ringworm
D. burns
E. acne

A

*(E) Isotretinoin is closely related to vitamin A and is used to treat acne.

194
Q

Endorphins play a significant role in
A. pain perception
B. absorption
C. diuresis
D. hypertension
E. glaucoma

A

*(A) Endorphins are released in times of stress and have a marked role in pain perception.

194
Q

The most effective substance in treating acute attacks of gout is
A. allopurinol
B. probenecid
C. aspirin
D. para-aminobenzoic acid
E. colchicine

A

*(E) Colchicine gives immediate and most effective relief from the pain of gout. Other drugs are
slower in activity. Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) is not used to treat gout.

194
Q

Nystatin is used to treat
A. Trichomonas infestations
B. Staphylococcus aureus infections
C. candidiasis
D. Escherichia coli infections
E. rickettsial infections

A

*(C) Nystatin is very effective against Candida infestations, but is ineffective against Trichomonas,
bacteria, and rickettsia.

194
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs is available in a parenteral form?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Ketorolac
C. Tolmetin
D. Piroxicam
E. None of the above

A

*(B) Ketorolac is available both orally and parenterally. The manufacturer recommends that the total
duration of therapy (both oral and parenteral) is indicated for short-term (not to exceed 5 days)
management of moderately severe acute pain requiring analgesia at the opioid level.

194
Q

Muscle relaxants are seldom used for more than 2 to 3 weeks because
A. of toxicity
B. of instability
C. of short duration of need
D. of tolerance being developed
E. they are used longer commonly

A

*(C) Musculoskeletal pain is usually of short duration; specific therapy for longer periods is
unwarranted.

194
Q

what is the antidote of Acetaminophen

a. Acetylcysteine
b. flumazenil
c. Digoxin immune fab
d. Phentolamine

A

a. Acetylcysteine

194
Q

what is the antidote of Benzodiazepines

a. Acetylcysteine
b. flumazenil
c. Digoxin immune fab
d. Phentolamine

A

b. flumazenil

194
Q

what is the antidote of Digoxin

a. Acetylcysteine
b. flumazenil
c. Digoxin immune fab
d. Phentolamine

A

c. Digoxin immune fab

194
Q

what is the antidote of Dopamine

a. Acetylcysteine
b. flumazenil
c. Digoxin immune fab
d. Phentolamine

A

d. Phentolamine

194
Q

what is the antidote of Heparin

a. Protamine
b. Deferoxamine
c. Leucovorin
d. Naloxone

A

a. Protamine

194
Q

what is the antidote of Iron

a. Protamine
b. Deferoxamine
c. Leucovorin
d. Naloxone

A

b. Deferoxamine

194
Q

what is the antidote of Methotrexate

a. Protamine
b. Deferoxamine
c. Leucovorin
d. Naloxone

A

c. Leucovorin

194
Q

what is the antidote of Morphine (opiates)

a. Protamine
b. Deferoxamine
c. Leucovorin
d. Naloxone

A

d. Naloxone

194
Q

what is the antidote of Nitrogen mustard

a. Naloxone
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Pralidoxime/2-PAM
d. Phytonadione/vitamin K

A

b. Sodium thiosulfate

195
Q

what is the antidote of Organophosphates

a. Naloxone
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Pralidoxime/2-PAM
d. Phytonadione/vitamin K

A

c. Pralidoxime/2-PAM

195
Q

what is the antidote of Warfarin

a. Naloxone
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Pralidoxime/2-PAM
d. Phytonadione/vitamin K

A

d. Phytonadione/vitamin K

195
Q

Vitamin K

a. Naloxone
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Pralidoxime
d. Phytonadione

A

d. Phytonadione

195
Q

2-PAM

a. Naloxone
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Pralidoxime
d. Phytonadione

A

c. Pralidoxime

195
Q

what laboratory test is a test to indicate Rheumatic disease

a. ANA titer
b. aPTT
c. Coombs
d. D-xylose

A

a. ANA titer

195
Q

what laboratory test used to monitor heparin therapy

a. ANA titer
b. aPTT
c. Coombs
d. D-xylose

A

b. aPTT

195
Q

what laboratory test is aan antibody screening for blood donor/ recipient compatibility

a. ANA titer
b. aPTT
c. Coombs
d. D-xylose

A

c. Coombs

195
Q

what laboratory test is a test to indicate GI function

a. ANA titer
b. aPTT
c. Coombs
d. D-xylose

A

d. D-xylose

195
Q

what laboratory test is a test to indicate occult blood in the stool

a. Guaiac
b. INR
c. Prostate specific antigen
d. Prothrombin time

A

a. Guaiac

195
Q

what laboratory test is used to monitor warfarin therapy

a. Guaiac
b. INR
c. Prostate specific antigen
d. Prothrombin time

A

b. INR

196
Q

what laboratory test is used to monitor Prostate cancer

a. Guaiac
b. INR
c. Prostate specific antigen
d. Prothrombin time

A

c. Prostate specific antigen

197
Q

what laboratory test is used to monitor warfarin therapy

a. Guaiac
b. INR
c. Prostate specific antigen
d. Prothrombin time

A

d. Prothrombin time

198
Q

what laboratory test is used to Screen for heavy metals
a. Reinsch
b. Schillings
c. Sweat test
d. Tropronins

A

a. Reinsch

199
Q

what laboratory test is used to monitor Vitamin B12 absorption (pernicious anemia)

a. Reinsch
b. Schillings
c. Sweat test
d. Tropronins

A

b. Schillings

200
Q

what laboratory test is used to monitor Cystic fibrosis

a. Reinsch
b. Schillings
c. Sweat test
d. Tropronins

A

c. Sweat test

201
Q

what laboratory test is used to monitor Cardiac marker
a. Reinsch
b. Schillings
c. Sweat test
d. Tropronins

A

d. Tropronins

202
Q

Displays the structure of each of the drugs referenced

a. AHFS Drug Information (American Hospital Formulary Service)

b. Merck Manual

c. Merck Index

d. Red Book

e. Remington’s

A

a. AHFS Drug Information (American Hospital Formulary Service)

203
Q

List of diseases and how to treat

a. AHFS Drug Information (American Hospital Formulary Service)

b. Merck Manual

c. Merck Index

d. Red Book

e. Remington’s

A

b. Merck Manual

204
Q

Encyclopedia of chemicals, drugs,
and biologicals

a. AHFS Drug Information (American Hospital Formulary Service)

b. Merck Manual

c. Merck Index

d. Red Book

e. Remington’s

A

c. Merck Index

205
Q

Prices, lists of sugar-free, alcohol-free products
pregnancy categories, photosensitivity
information, etc.

a. AHFS Drug Information (American Hospital Formulary Service)

b. Merck Manual

c. Merck Index

d. Red Book

e. Remington’s

A

d. Red Book

206
Q

Compounding information

a. AHFS Drug Information (American Hospital Formulary Service)

b. Merck Manual

c. Merck Index

d. Red Book

e. Remington’s

A

e. Remington’s

207
Q

Normal lab value of sodium

a.135–147 mEq/L
b. 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
c. 95–105 mEq/L

A

a.135–147 mEq/L

208
Q

Normal lab value of potassium

a.135–147 mEq/L
b. 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
c. 95–105 mEq/L

A

b. 3.5–5.0 mEq/L

209
Q

Normal lab value of chloride

a.135–147 mEq/L
b. 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
c. 95–105 mEq/L

A

c. 95–105 mEq/L

210
Q

Normal lab value of Magnesium

a. 1.5–2.2 mEq/L
b. 8.5–10.8 mg/dL
c. 2.6–4.5 mg/dL

A

a. 1.5–2.2 mEq/L

211
Q

Normal lab value of Calcium

a. 1.5–2.2 mEq/L
b. 8.5–10.8 mg/dL
c. 2.6–4.5 mg/dL

A

b. 8.5–10.8 mg/dL

212
Q

Normal lab value of Phosphate

a. 1.5–2.2 mEq/L
b. 8.5–10.8 mg/dL
c. 2.6–4.5 mg/dL

A

c. 2.6–4.5 mg/dL

213
Q

Linezolid is used against infections caused by antibiotic-resistant
A. gram-positive cocci
B. gram-negative bacilli
C. HIV virus
D. gram-positive bacilli
E. none of the above

A

*(A) Linezolid was FDA approved in 2000 for the treatment of vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus
faecium (VRE) infection and nosocomial pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus including MRSA
or Streptococcus penumoniae.

214
Q

Nateglinide stimulates the release of
A. insulin
B. epinephrine
C. glucose
D. glucagon
E. norepinephrine

A

*(A) Nateglinide is used as an adjunct to metformin for control of hyperglycemia in patients with type
II diabetes.

215
Q

Mifeprostone is a receptor antagonist of which hormone?
A. Estrogen
B. Thyroid
C. Insulin
D. Cortisol
E. Progesterone

A

*(E) Mifeprostone is an oral abortifacient that acts as a progesterone receptor antagonist.

216
Q

Rivastigmine has the primary action of inhibiting
A. acetylcholinesterase
B. epinephrine
C. gastric acid
D. calcium influx
E. histamine release

A

*(A) Rivastigmine is a reversible carbamate acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that interacts preferentially
with acetylcholinesterase G, which is found in high levels in the brains of patients with Alzheimer’s
disease. Its inhibition lasts for 10 hours.

217
Q
A
218
Q
A

kaps (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions