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1) LA Sx scs RUSVM COPY > Joints and Lameness: Arthrocentesis, Septic arthritis, Lameness, OA > Flashcards

Joints and Lameness: Arthrocentesis, Septic arthritis, Lameness, OA Flashcards

1
Q

What type of needle (gauge and length) is typically used for arthrocentesis?

A

20G 1”

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2
Q

Why is physical restraint preferred to chemical restraint for arthocentesis?

A

Drugs renduce inhibition so horse can react more rapidly and exagerated when needle goes in

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3
Q

Left forelimb: What structure(s) are indicated by #13? #14?

A

13: Extensor brnach of interosseus
14: Flexor tendons

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4
Q

What limb is this (fore or hind)? What is indicated by #1, #2, #3, and #6?

A

Forelimb (lateral view)

1: Large metacarpal bone (MC III)
2: Proximal sesamoid bones
3: Proximal phalanx
6: Navicular bone

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5
Q

What are the landmarks for performing a radiocarpal joint arthrocentesis?

A

Distal medial ridge of the radius

Proximal edge of the radiocarpal bone

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6
Q

With which joint does the carpometacarpal joint communicate?

A

Middle/Inter carpal joint

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7
Q

With which joint does the tibiotarsal joint communicate?

A

Proximal intertarsal joint

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8
Q

What landmark do you palpate for a tibiotarsal joint arthrocentesis?

A

Medial malleolus of tibia

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9
Q

You know the drill

A

Blue: Common digital extensor muscle

Pink: Superficial digital flexor tendon

Aqua: Deep digital flexor tendon

Green: Common digital extensor tendon

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10
Q

This bone is one landmark used to ID the radiocarpal joint. Identify the bone indicated.

a. Third carpal bone
b. Ulnar carpal bone
c. Metacarpal IV
d. Radial carpal bone

A

d. Radial carpal bone

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11
Q

What is the preferred approach to the metacarpophalangeal joint?

A

Collateral sesamoidean ligament approach

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12
Q

How many compartments does the stifle joint have? What are they? Which should you inject when treating the stifle?

A

3

Femoropatellar joint

Medial femorotibial joint

Lateral femorotibial joint

Inject all compartments

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13
Q

Which which compartment does the femoropatellar joint communicate with more often?

A

MFT

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14
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of septic arthritis.

A

Decreased HA synthesis

Loss of PG

Joint effusion

Pain

Compromise synovial blood flow

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15
Q

What are the types of septic arthritis is foals? What is involved in each type?

A

S, E, and P

S: Synvoial structures (membrane, fluid)

E: Epiphysis

P: Physis of long bones +/- joint

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16
Q

Which type of septic arthritis in a foal is highly effusive and typically affects multiple larger joints?

A

S-type

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17
Q

Which type of septic arthritis in foals occurs at a few weeks of age usually following another disease such as pneumonia or diarrhea? How does the lameness present?

A

E-Type

Mild lameness followed by acute exacerbation (“Lame on and off and then suddenly super lame”)

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18
Q

Which type of septic arthritis in foals presents with swelling but no effusion? How many sites are usually affected?

A

P-type

One site (e.g. distal physis of MCIII/MTIII, radius, tibia)

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19
Q

What should you evaluate and how in addition to the joints in a foal with septic arthritis?

A

Umbilicus

Ultrasound

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20
Q

Which bacterium is usually associated with iatrogenic septic arthritis in adult horses? Traumatic septic arthritis?

A

Staphylococcus

Enterobacteriaceae

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21
Q

T/F: An open joint is only considered infected if there is effusion.

A

False, an open joint is always an infected joint

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22
Q

What is involved in foal septic arthritis that is usually not involved in adults?

A

Bone

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23
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing sepsis?

A

Microbiology

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24
Q

What is the normal TP in synovial fluid?

A

<2.0 g/dL

>3.5 g/dL is abnormal

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25
Q

What are the 2 requirements for successful treatment of septic arthritis?

A

Rapid recognition of disease

Immediate aggressive treatment

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26
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for septic arthritis?

A

Lavage

Early and often with large volumes (5-10L) and large G needle (16-18)

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27
Q

How should antibiotics be administered for septic arthritis?

A

Local is vital

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28
Q

How long should you leave the tourniquet when performing regional limb perfusion? What dosage is usually used?

A

30 min

1/3 of systemic dose

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29
Q

What is usually the cause of lameness?

A

Pain

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30
Q

How many steps are there for a classical lameness exam? What are they?

A

7

1: History
2: PE
3: Palpation (weight-bearing and non + Hoof testers)
4: Observation at exercise
5: Flexion tests
6: Diagnostic nerve blocks
7: Diagnostic imaging

31
Q

What is the gait lameness is graded from?

A

Trot

32
Q

If a horse is dropping his head every time the left forelimb hits the ground, where is he lame?

A

Right forelimb

33
Q

At what grade of lameness may you see a head and neck nod with a hindlimb lameness?

A

3/5 or above

34
Q

What parts of the hoof are tested with hoof testers?

A

Wall (all the way a ound)

Sole

Frog (across)

Heels

Coronary band

35
Q

T/F: Stringhalt is a type of lameness caused by pain.

A

False, it is a gait abnormality

36
Q

What grade of lameness is consistently observable at a trot under all circumstances?

A

Grade 3

37
Q

You are evaluating a horse that only shows signs of lameness when trotting in a circle. What grade is this lameness?

A

Grade 2

38
Q

What are the 5 pathognomic lameness’ diagnosed at the walk?

A

Peroneus tertius rupture

Locking patella

Stringhalt

Fibrotic myopathy

Sweeny

39
Q

What muscles are usually affected by fibrotic myopathy?

A

Semimembranosus

Semitendinosus

40
Q

What is possible in a horse with peronius tertius rupture that a healthy horse cannot do?

A

Full extension of the hock with flexion of the stifle (Paradoxical hindlimb movement)

41
Q

What are 3 treatment options for locking patella?

A

Medial patellar desmotomy

Walking backwards

Strengthening quadriceps muscles (Climb hills)

42
Q

What is stringhalt?

A

Hyperflexion of the hock

43
Q

During a lamenss exam you notice a shortened cranial phase of the stride and a characteristic ‘slapping’ sound when one of the hindlimbs hits the ground. What is your top DDx? How could palpation aid in the diagnosis?

A

Fibrotic myopathy

There is a palpable firmness of the affected muscle

44
Q

Damage to which nerve resulting in the atrophy of which muscle causes Sweeny?

A

Suprascapular nerve

Infraspinatus muscle

45
Q

T/F: During a flexion test, the horse should be trotte din a straight line and circle to assess it’s gait.

A

False, straight line immediately after flexion

46
Q

How long do you hold a flexion test for the proximal joints of the forelimb? Distal joints?

A

Proximal 30sec

Distal 60sec

47
Q

Which joints are being flexed during this fore and hindlimb flexion test?

A

Fetlock

Pastern

Coffin

Distal limb

48
Q

Which joints are being flexed during this forelimb flexion test?

A

Carpus

Cubital (elbow)

Glenohumeral

Distal limb

49
Q

How long do you hold a flexion test for the proximal joints of the hindlimb? Distal joints?

A

Proximal 90 sec

Distal 30 sec

50
Q

Which joints are being flexed during this flexion test?

A

Hock (tarsus)

Stifle

Coxofemoral

Proximal hindlimb

51
Q

Why do you begin distally and work proximally when using local anesthesia to localize the lameness? In which direction do you direct the needle? Why?

A

AX numbs everything from the injection site down

Distally to minimize proximal diffusion

52
Q

Which agent is prefered for local anesthesia? How long does it last?

A

2% Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)

30min- 2hrs

Preferred to lidocaine because lidocaine stings

53
Q

Why is 0.5% bupivicaine not used for diagnostics?

A

It lasts too long (5-6 hours)

54
Q

What is the most distal nerve block that can be done in the horse?

A

Palmar digital

Blocking palmar digital nerves

55
Q

Which nerves are blocked with the abaxial/basisesamoid nerve block?

A

Palmar digital nerves

56
Q

Which nerves are blocked by the 4-point block?

A

L/M Palmar metacarpal nerves Or Metatarsal if hindlimb

L/M Palmar nerves

57
Q

Where are the needles placed for a 4-point nerve block?

A

Between Palmar MC III and MC II and MCIV - right at the button of the splint bones

Between the suspensory ligament and the DDFT - avoiding (by going proximal to it) DDF tendon sheath

58
Q

When performing a low 4-point nerve block, what nerves are being blocked by the needle placed distally and more dorsally?

a. Palmar nerves
b. Palmar metacarpal nerves
c. Palmar digital nerves
d. Ulnar nerve

A

b. Palmar metacarpal nerves

At level of button of the split bone

59
Q

The origin of which structure is blocked by the lateral palmar nerve block?

A

Suspensory ligament

60
Q

Lameness that does not improve with PD or abaxial nerve blocks, but shows marked improvement with low 4-point block is likely localized to which area?

a. Cubital joint
b. Metacarpophalangeal joint
c. Proximal interphalangeal joint
d. Carpometacarpal joint

A

b. Metacarpophalangeal joint
* Fetlock*

61
Q

When preforming IA anesthesia, how much volume of anesthetic should you infuse in relation to the volume of fluid injected?

a. Equal volume
b. Injected volume less than or equal to the volume collected
c. Injected volume more than or equal to the volume collected
d. 50cc

A

c. Injected volume more than or equal to the volume collected

Slightly distend joint

62
Q

How many views are required for examing distal joints? Which views?

A

4 views

2 obliques

1 lateral

1 DP

63
Q

What is the only modality that allows for real time evaluation of both soft tissues and to some extent, bone?

A

Ultrasound

64
Q

What is the modality of choice for imaging bone?

A

CT

65
Q

What component of the synovial membrane allows for phagocytosis? Which produce hyaluronic acid and collagen?

A

Type A -Macrophages

Type B -Fibroblasts

66
Q

What portion of the joint absorbs shock?

a. Synovial membrane
b. Subchondral bone
c. Articular cartilage

A

b. Subchondral bone

67
Q

Which condroprotective agent is a long unbranched non-sulfated GAG which originates from type B synoviocytes and chronocytes? The drug is chrondroprotective when administered IA, provides analegsia and reduces cartilage fibrillation, when used appropraitely.

A

Sodium Hyalurinate / Hyaluronan / Hyaluronic Acid / HA

68
Q

What can you combine with HA in order to decrease inflammation?

A

Triamcinolone (IA)

69
Q

T/F: Generic and brand name chrondroprotectants have very similar if not idential efficacy.

A

False, brand name is better (e.g. Adequan)

70
Q

PSGAGS (e.g. Adequan) significantly potentiate subinfective doses of bacreria. What can you do counteract this?

a. Combine with Triamcinolone IA
b. Combine with NSAID IA
c. Combine with Amikacin IA
d. Only administer PSGAGS IV

A

c. Combine with Amikacin IA

125mg

71
Q

T/F: Polyglycan can be administered IV or IA, but is less effective IV.

A

False, IV causes increase in disease progression

72
Q

Which chondroprotective has a greater effect on articular cartilage fibrillation?

A

HA

73
Q

Which chondroprotectant has a greater magnitude of postive effects on the synovial membrane?

A

PSGAG

74
Q

Which corticosteroid has consistently shown to have deleterious effects on articular cartilage and so should not be used IA?

A

Methylprednisolone acetate

1) LA Sx scs RUSVM COPY (20 decks)

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