E2: Digit amputation, Bone spavins, Splints, Proximal sesamoids Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dose for penicillin?

A

20,000-22,000 IU/kg BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the treatment options for chronic septic arthritis of the DIJ in cattle?

A

Facilitated ankylosis

Amputation

Culling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For how long can a tourniquet be left on?

A

Up to 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can you do to prevent neuropraxia when a tourniquet needs to be placed?

A

Use padding under the touniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Do you use an open or closed amputation technique if spesis is present?

A

Open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chronic repetitive compression, torsion and shear strains cause the formation of ______.

A

Bone spavins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is this needle (in the green circle) for?

A

Identification / orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: The bandage after an ampuation should be placed immediately after the touniquet is removed.

A

False, bandage before removing tourniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the average survival time post digit amputation in cattle?

A

2 years

Some never recover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do some cattle never recover from amputation?

A

Rapid breakdown of supporting structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

On the thoracic limb, digit amputation is more successful if it is the _____ digit.

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On the pelvic limb, digit amputation is more successful if it is the _____ digit.

A

Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the upper limit (kg) for successful amputation?

A

341 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is good antibiotic choice for IA use in a cow with acute septic arthritis of the DIJ?

A

Florfenicol (FFC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is used to create arthrotomies during a facilitated ankylosis procedure in the DIJ of cattle?

A

Trephine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do you submit for culture before removing infected cartilage and bone during an ankylosis?

A

Subchondral bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bone spavins are DJD of the ______ and the _____ joints on the ____ aspect of the joint.

A

Distal intertarsal (DIT)

Tarsometatarsal (TMT)

Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is this abnormal conformation called? What is the more severe version of this called?

A

Sickle hocked

“Camped under”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is this abnormal conformation called? Horses that perform what types of activities are prone to this?

A

Cow hocked

Western performace horses: Cutting, Reining, Roping, Barrel racing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What view is this?

A

DLPMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What view is this?

A

DMPLO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

On which view can you see both ridges of the talus?

A

DLPMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which aspects are viewed in a DLPMO

A

Dorso-medial

Lateral-plantar/palmar

24
Q

For how long do you hold a proximal limb flexion/spavin test?

A

90 seconds

25
Q

T/F: Medical management for bone spavins has a highly variable success rate.

A

True

35-70% with IA tx

26
Q

What is the goal of surgical management of bone spavins?

A

Ankylosis

27
Q

What surgery can be done to decrease rotational and shearing forces?

A

Cunean tenectomy

28
Q

T/F: 70% ethanol and MIA (monoiodoacetate) and 2 commonly used agents for chemical ankylosis.

A

False, MIA is no longer used due to the high morbidity it causes

29
Q

Why are 3 drill tracts at 30deg diverging angles created when ankylosing the TMT or DIJ joints? (i.e. what is the goal)

A

Spot welding the joint

30
Q

What is the average time to return to soundness after surgical ankylosis?

A

7.5 months

3.5 - 12 mo

31
Q

How does laser facilitated ankylosis work?

A

Destroys cartilage by superheating and vaporizing synovial fluid

32
Q

Which method of facilitated ankylosis results in a return to work the following day in many horses?

A

Ethyl alcohol

33
Q

A 3 year old TB racehorse presents with an acute grade 5/5 lameness. What is the first step in diagnosis of the problem?

a. Nerve block
b. Flexion test
c. Survey rads

A

c. Survey rads

Severe lameness is an indication to not do a nerve block

34
Q

Fractures of P1 occur most commonly in the ________ plane.

A

Sagittal

35
Q

Where do you place the first screw (in lag fashion) when repairing a sagittal P1 fracture? At what intervals are additonal screws placed?

A

Proximally within 5mm of the sagittal groove (to align the articular surface)

20-22mm

36
Q

Are fractures of the proximal phalanx more common in the fore or hindlimb?

A

Forelimb

75%

37
Q

Which bones are the splint bones?

A

MC/MT II

MC/MT IV

38
Q

In this DP view of the carpus, what is the top arrow pointing to? Bottom arrow?

A

Top: Carpal bone IV

Bottom: Metacarpal bone IV (Lateral splint bone)

39
Q

There is less of an articular relationship between the head of the lateral splint bone and the fourth_____ bone in the ___limb.

A

Tarsal

Hind

40
Q

How much of the distal forelimb splint bone can be surgically removed?

A

2/3

41
Q

Care must be taken not to engage _______ when plating a splint bone fracture of the forelimb.

A

Metacarpal bone III

(MC III/ Cannon bone)

42
Q

What surgery is appropriate for this patient who has an old malunion fracture of the lateral splint bone resulting in chronic lameness?

A

Segmental ostectomy

43
Q

A young horse with a history of splint exostosis whose bone lesion has healed has a painful bump (as seen in the picture) and is lame. What structure is involved?

A

Suspensory ligament

Desmitis

44
Q

Which artery/arteries must you look out for when performing surgery on the lateral splint bone of the hindlimb?

A

Dorsal metatarsal (between splint and cannon) and Digital plantar (plantar to splint)

Also nerves and digital plantar vein

45
Q

What is the most common fracture of the proximal sesamoid bones?

A

Apical fracture

46
Q

What are the 3 places to get a pulse on a horse?

A

Facial artery

Transverse facial artery

Dorsal metatarsal artery

47
Q

What type of fracture is this? What is the layman’s term? In which horses are these common?

A

Stress fracture of dorsal cortex of MCIII

Bucked shins

Young racehorses

48
Q

T/F: Long distance galloping rather than regular short distance breezing is indicated for the prevention of bucked shins.

A

False, opposite

49
Q

How is the prognosis for bucked shins and saucer fractures for return to racing?

A

Good

50
Q

What fracture is shown here?

A

Apical sesamoid fracture

51
Q

How much of the sesamoid bone can be moved arthroscopically?

A

Up to 1/3

52
Q

You wish to evaluate the suspensory ligament in a horse with an apical sesamoid fracture. How will you do this?

A

Ultrasound

53
Q

What type of fixation is required for a midbody sesamoid fracture? What is the preferred surgery?

A

Internal fixation

Lag screw with arthroscopic guidance

54
Q

T/F: Abaxial sesamoid fractures are usually displaced.

A

False, uusally not displaced

55
Q

What view must you take when you have an abaxial sesamoid fracture to see if the fracture is articular?

A

60degree skyline view

56
Q

What type of fracture is shown here? How is the prognosis for RTR?

A

Basilar fracture of the proximal sesamoid bone

Poor